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Higher Secondary School Teacher Mathematics - Kerala Higher Secondary Education question paper 2022

Kerala Higher Secondary Education

Date of test
13-08-2022
Question paper code
66/2022/OL
Category No.
484/2019
Questions
100
Answer key
Provisional Answer Key
Exam mode
Online (computer based)

Provisional key. Kerala PSC can change answers after reviewing complaints; the final key decides the marks.

Source: Kerala PSC (keralapsc.gov.in) · official document· Last updated 25 Sept 2026· How we check content

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All 100 questions with answers

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  1. 1.
    Which of the following is a subspace of Mn(R)M_n(\mathbb{R}), the vector space of all n×nn \times n real matrices
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    The set of all matrices with trace A=0\text{trace } A = 0
    The set of matrices with trace zero forms a subspace since the trace function is a linear map.
  2. 2.
    Let A be a 5×35 \times 3 matrix and B be a 3×73 \times 7 matrix then the rank of AB can be:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    3
    The rank of the product AB cannot exceed the rank of either factor, so rank(AB)≤min⁡(rank(A),rank(B))=min⁡(3,3)=3\text{rank}(AB) \le \min(\text{rank}(A), \text{rank}(B)) = \min(3, 3) = 3.
  3. 3.
    The number of linearly independent eigen vectors of the matrix (2200210000300014)\begin{pmatrix} 2 & 2 & 0 & 0 \\ 2 & 1 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 3 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 & 4 \end{pmatrix} is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    4
    The eigenvalues can be found from the characteristic polynomial. Computing for this matrix yields 4 distinct or independent eigenvectors.
  4. 4.
    Let A be a 5×55 \times 5 real matrix. Which of the following is true?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    If A is a skew-symmetric matrix, then det⁡A=0\det A = 0
    For an odd-order (n=5n = 5) skew-symmetric matrix, the determinant is always zero.
  5. 5.
    Which of the following is the Jordan form of a 3×33 \times 3 matrix?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    (210020000)\begin{pmatrix} 2 & 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 2 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 0 \end{pmatrix}
    Option B represents a valid Jordan canonical form matrix with blocks along the diagonal.
  6. 6.
    Let T:P3(R)→M2×2(R)T : P_3(\mathbb{R}) \to M_{2 \times 2}(\mathbb{R}) be defined by T(f(x))=(f(1)f(−1)f(2)f(−2))T(f(x)) = \begin{pmatrix} f(1) & f(-1) \\ f(2) & f(-2) \end{pmatrix}. Then which of the following statements is true?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    T is both one-one and onto
    Since the dimension of both spaces is 4, and T is injective (one-one), by the rank-nullity theorem it is also surjective (onto).
  7. 7.
    Let V=M2(R)V = M_2(\mathbb{R}), ATA^T denotes the transpose of the matrix A and I be the identity matrix in V. Define an inner product on V as ⟨A,B⟩=trace(BTA)\langle A, B \rangle = \text{trace}(B^T A). Then the dimension of the orthogonal complement of the set \{I\} is:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    3
    The space V has dimension 4. The orthogonal complement of a 1-dimensional subspace spanned by {I} has dimension 4−1=34 - 1 = 3.
  8. 8.
    The series 1−12+14⋅2!+18⋅3!+116⋅4!+…1 - \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{4 \cdot 2!} + \frac{1}{8 \cdot 3!} + \frac{1}{16 \cdot 4!} + \dots converges to:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    e−12e^{-\frac{1}{2}}
    The series can be expressed as ∑n=0∞(−1/2)nn!=e−1/2\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1/2)^n}{n!} = e^{-1/2} (Note: Question was cancelled in final key, but original provisional key option was D).
  9. 9.
    Let f:R→Rf : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} be defined as :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    f is continuous on R∖Q\mathbb{R} \setminus \mathbb{Q}
    Standard Dirichlet-like function behavior where continuity holds on the irrational numbers.
  10. 10.
    Which of the following functions is uniformly continuous on (0,1)?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    f(x)=xsin⁡(1x)f(x) = x \sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)
    f(x)=xsin⁡(1/x)f(x) = x\sin(1/x) can be continuously extended to [0,1][0, 1] by defining f(0)=0f(0)=0, hence it is uniformly continuous on (0,1)(0, 1).
  11. 11.
    Let f:[0,1]→[0,1]f : [0,1] \to [0,1] be a continuous function. Then which of the following statements is true?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    f has a fixed point
    By Brouwer's Fixed Point Theorem, every continuous function from a closed interval to itself has at least one fixed point.
  12. 12.
    Let f:R→Rf : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} be a thrice differentiable function such that f(a)=f′(a)=f(b)=f′(b)=0f(a) = f'(a) = f(b) = f'(b) = 0 where a,b∈R,a<ba, b \in \mathbb{R}, a < b. Then choose the correct statement.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    f′′′(c)=0f'''(c) = 0 for some c∈(a,b)c \in (a, b)
    Using Rolle's Theorem repeatedly on f,f′,f′′f, f', f'', we obtain that f′′′(c)=0f'''(c) = 0 for some c∈(a,b)c \in (a, b).
  13. 13.
    Consider the sequences of functions (fn)(f_n) and (gn)(g_n) defined by fn(x)=11+nx,x∈(0,1)f_n(x) = \frac{1}{1+nx}, x \in (0,1), gn(x)=x1+nx,x∈(0,1)g_n(x) = \frac{x}{1+nx}, x \in (0,1). Choose the correct statement from the following:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    gng_n converges uniformly on (0,1)
    Limit of gn(x)g_n(x) is 0 and the supremum norm sup⁡∣gn(x)−0∣→0\sup |g_n(x) - 0| \to 0, showing uniform convergence.
  14. 14.
    Let f:[0,1]→[0,1]f : [0,1] \to [0,1] be defined as: f(x)={0if x∈Qxif x∈R∖Qf(x) = \begin{cases} 0 & \text{if } x \in \mathbb{Q} \\ x & \text{if } x \in \mathbb{R} \setminus \mathbb{Q} \end{cases}. Which of the following statements is true?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    The upper Riemann integral of f is 12\frac{1}{2}
    The lower Riemann integral is 0 and the upper Riemann integral is ∫01xdx=12\int_0^1 x dx = \frac{1}{2}.
  15. 15.
    Which of the following sets has nonzero Lebesgue measure?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    (R∖Q)∩[0,1](\mathbb{R} \setminus \mathbb{Q}) \cap [0,1]
    The set of irrationals in [0,1][0,1] has Lebesgue measure 1, which is nonzero.
  16. 16.
    Consider the function f:R2→Rf:\mathbb{R}^2 \to \mathbb{R} defined by f(x)=x2y2x2+y4f(x) = \frac{x^2 y^2}{x^2 + y^4} if x≠0x \neq 0, 00 if x=0x = 0. Choose the correct statement from the following:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    f has directional derivatives at (0,0) in all directions
    All directional derivatives exist at the origin and equal zero.
  17. 17.
    The value of the integral ∫01t−1/2(1−t)−1/2dt\int_0^1 t^{-1/2}(1-t)^{-1/2} dt
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    π\pi
    This is a Beta function B(1/2,1/2)=Γ(1/2)Γ(1/2)Γ(1)=πB(1/2, 1/2) = \frac{\Gamma(1/2)\Gamma(1/2)}{\Gamma(1)} = \pi.
  18. 18.
    Let f(x)=x,0<x<πf(x) = x, 0 < x < \pi. Which of the following is true?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    f(x)=π−2∑n=1∞sin⁡nxn,0<x<2πf(x) = \pi - 2 \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{\sin nx}{n}, 0 < x < 2\pi
    Fourier series representation for f(x)=xf(x) = x on the interval yields the specified sine series expansion.
  19. 19.
    Let f:R→Rf:\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} be a Lebesgue measurable function and E⊂RE \subset \mathbb{R} be a measurable set. Choose the correct statement from the following:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    None of the above
    None of the standard conditions alone imply f=0f=0 everywhere except almost everywhere.
  20. 20.
    Let f:R2→R2f:\mathbb{R}^2 \to \mathbb{R}^2 be defined by f(x,y)=(x+y,x−y)f(x,y) = (x+y, x-y), choose the correct statement from the following:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Df(0,0)Df(0,0) exists and is invertible
    The Jacobian matrix is (111−1)\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1 \\ 1 & -1 \end{pmatrix}, whose determinant is −2≠0-2 \neq 0, so Df(0,0)Df(0,0) exists and is invertible.
  21. 21.
    Consider the function f:[0,1]→Rf:[0,1] \to \mathbb{R} defined by f(x)=1f(x) = 1 if xx is rational and 11 if xx is irrational. Which of the following statements is true?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    f is Lebesgue integrable and its Lebesgue integral is 1
    Since f(x)=1f(x) = 1 everywhere on [0,1][0,1], it is a constant function, hence Lebesgue integrable with integral equal to 1.
  22. 22.
    Let G be a non-abelian group of order 6. Then the number of subgroups of G of order 2 is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    3
    A non-abelian group of order 6 is isomorphic to S3S_3, which has 3 subgroups of order 2 (the transpositions).
  23. 23.
    Which of the following pairs of groups are isomorphic:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    (R,+),(C,+)(\mathbb{R}, +), (\mathbb{C}, +)
    As vector spaces over Q\mathbb{Q}, both R\mathbb{R} and C\mathbb{C} are infinite-dimensional vector spaces of the same cardinality (continuum), hence isomorphic as additive groups.
  24. 24.
    The number of abelian groups of order 36 (up to isomorphism) is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    4
    Since 36=22⋅3236 = 2^2 \cdot 3^2, the partitions of 2 are 2 and 1+11+1, giving 2 partitions for 4 and 2 partitions for 9. Total abelian groups = 2×2=42 \times 2 = 4.
  25. 25.
    Let G be a group of order n. Then G is cyclic if n is:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    15
    If n=15=3×5n = 15 = 3 \times 5 and gcd⁡(3,5−1)=1\gcd(3, 5-1) = 1, a group of order pqpq with p<qp < q and p∤(q−1)p \nmid (q-1) is cyclic. Here 3∤(5−1)=43 \nmid (5-1)=4, so groups of order 15 are cyclic.
  26. 26.
    Let G be a group of order 28. Which of the following statements is true?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    G has a normal subgroup of order 7
    By Sylow's theorems, the number of 7-Sylow subgroups n7≡1(mod7)n_7 \equiv 1 \pmod 7 and n7∣4n_7 \mid 4, which forces n7=1n_7 = 1. Thus there is a unique normal subgroup of order 7.
  27. 27.
    Which of the following is a class equation of a group of order 10?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    10=1+2+2+510 = 1 + 2 + 2 + 5
    The class equation for D5D_5 (dihedral group of order 10) is 10=1+2+2+510 = 1 + 2 + 2 + 5.
  28. 28.
    Choose the correct statement from the following:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    A5A_5 is simple
    The alternating group A5A_5 is well-known to be a simple group.
  29. 29.
    Let R[x]\mathbb{R}[x] be the polynomial ring over the field of real numbers. Which of the following set I is an ideal in R[x]\mathbb{R}[x]
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    I={p(x)∈R[x]:p(2)=0}I = \{p(x) \in \mathbb{R}[x] : p(2) = 0\}
    The set of polynomials vanishing at 2 is the kernel of the evaluation homomorphism p(x)↦p(2)p(x) \mapsto p(2), hence it is an ideal.
  30. 30.
    Let ⟨p(x)⟩\langle p(x) \rangle denotes the ideal generated by the polynomial p(x) in Z[x]\mathbb{Z}[x]. Choose the correct statement from the following
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    The set \{p(x) \in \mathbb{Z}[x] : p(0) = 0 = p(1)\} is not a prime ideal
    The set of polynomials vanishing at 0 and 1 is not a prime ideal because x(x−1)x(x-1) belongs to it, but neither xx nor x−1x-1 belongs to it.
  31. 31.
    Choose the true statement from the following:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Z\mathbb{Z} is a PID but Z[x]\mathbb{Z}[x] is not a PID
    Z\mathbb{Z} is a PID, but Z[x]\mathbb{Z}[x] is not a PID (e.g., the ideal ⟨2,x⟩\langle 2, x \rangle is not principal).
  32. 32.
    Which of the following is a field?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Z5[x]/⟨x2+3⟩\mathbb{Z}_5[x]/\langle x^2 + 3 \rangle
    In Z5[x]\mathbb{Z}_5[x], the polynomial x2+3x^2 + 3 has no roots in Z5\mathbb{Z}_5 and is irreducible of degree 2, making the quotient a field.
  33. 33.
    The Galois group of the splitting field of x3−2x^3 - 2 over Q\mathbb{Q} is isomorphic to:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    S3S_3
    The splitting field of x3−2x^3 - 2 over Q\mathbb{Q} is Q(23,ω)\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[3]{2}, \omega), which has degree 6 and its Galois group is S3S_3.
  34. 34.
    The number of generators of the multiplicative group of a field of order 81 is:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    32
    The multiplicative group is cyclic of order 81−1=8081 - 1 = 80. The number of generators is ϕ(80)=80⋅(1−1/2)⋅(1−1/5)=80⋅(1/2)⋅(4/5)=32\phi(80) = 80 \cdot (1 - 1/2) \cdot (1 - 1/5) = 80 \cdot (1/2) \cdot (4/5) = 32.
  35. 35.
    Let p(x)∈R[x]p(x) \in \mathbb{R}[x]. If p(x) is irreducible then p(x) can be:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    2x+22x + 2
    Every irreducible polynomial in R[x]\mathbb{R}[x] has degree 1 or 2. Only 2x+22x+2 has degree 1.
  36. 36.
    If d:M×M→[0,∞)d: M \times M \to [0, \infty) defined by d(A,B)=∣det⁡(A)−det⁡(B)∣d(A,B) = |\det(A) - \det(B)| for all A,B∈MA, B \in M where M is the set of all n×nn \times n matrices over R\mathbb{R}, then
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    d is a pseudo metric on M
    It satisfies pseudo-metric properties, but d(A,B)=0d(A,B) = 0 does not imply A=BA = B (since distinct matrices can have the same determinant), so it is a pseudo-metric.
  37. 37.
    If the metric space (X,τ)(X, \tau) is both totally bounded and complete, then it is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Compact
    A metric space is compact if and only if it is complete and totally bounded.
  38. 38.
    The set {1m+1n;m,n∈N}∪{0}\{\frac{1}{m} + \frac{1}{n} ; m, n \in \mathbb{N}\} \cup \{0\}
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Compact but not open
    The set is closed and bounded in R\mathbb{R}, hence compact by Heine-Borel theorem, but not open.
  39. 39.
    Which of the following statement is false?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Every regular separable space is normal
    Regular separable space need not be normal (a standard counterexample in topology).
  40. 40.
    Which of the following statement is not correct
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Connectedness is a hereditary property
    Connectedness is not hereditary (subspaces of a connected space need not be connected).
  41. 41.
    The space [0,1]J[0,1]^J with the product topology is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Metrizable
    By Tychonoff's theorem and related embedding theorems, countable products of compact metric spaces are metrizable.
  42. 42.
    If [X,τ][X, \tau] is Hausdorff and X is finite, then τ\tau is the
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Discrete topology
    Every finite Hausdorff space is discrete.
  43. 43.
    The conjugate of 1+i1+i with respect to the circle ∣z−1∣=2|z-1| = 2 is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    1−4i1-4i
    Formula for inverse point in a circle yields 1−4i1-4i.
  44. 44.
    If 1,w,w21, w, w^2 are the complex cube roots of unity, then (x−y)(x−wy)(x−w2y)(x-y)(x-wy)(x-w^2y)
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    x3−y3x^3-y^3
    This is the factorization of the difference of cubes: x3−y3x^3 - y^3.
  45. 45.
    Pick the correct statement from the following four statements
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    sin⁡2z+cos⁡2z=1\sin^2 z + \cos^2 z = 1 for all z∈Cz \in \mathbb{C}
    The fundamental trigonometric identity sin⁡2z+cos⁡2z=1\sin^2 z + \cos^2 z = 1 holds for all complex numbers zz.
  46. 46.
    The function f(z)=zˉf(z) = \bar{z} is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    continuous everywhere
    The conjugation function f(z)=zˉf(z) = \bar{z} is continuous everywhere on C\mathbb{C}, but nowhere differentiable/analytic.
  47. 47.
    The harmonic conjugate of x2−y2x^2 - y^2 is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    2xy2xy
    Using Cauchy-Riemann equations, if u=x2−y2u = x^2 - y^2, then ux=vy=2x  ⟹  v=2xyu_x = v_y = 2x \implies v = 2xy.
  48. 48.
    Consider the functions f(z)=ez2f(z) = e^{z^2} and g(z)=ezg(z) = e^z and S={z∈C:Re z∈(−π,π)}S = \{z \in \mathbb{C} : \text{Re } z \in (-\pi, \pi)\}. Then
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    f is bounded on S
    On the strip SS, the real part of zz is bounded, making ez2e^{z^2} bounded in magnitude.
  49. 49.
    The power series ∑n=0∞2−nz2n\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} 2^{-n} z^{2^n} converges is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    ∣z∣<2|z| < \sqrt{2}
    Radius of convergence analysis using Cauchy-Hadamard theorem gives the disk of convergence ∣z∣<2|z| < \sqrt{2} or ∣z∣≤1|z| \le 1.
  50. 50.
    Dimensions of Cn\mathbb{C}^n over R\mathbb{R} is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    2n
    Since C\mathbb{C} has dimension 2 over R\mathbb{R}, Cn\mathbb{C}^n has dimension 2n2n over R\mathbb{R}.
  51. 51.
    Which of the following is a Banach space
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Space of all continuous functions on [a,b] with the supremum norm
    The space of continuous functions with the supremum norm (C[a,b]C[a,b]) is complete, hence a Banach space.
  52. 52.
    The term Hilbert space stands for a
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Complete inner product space
    A Hilbert space is defined as a complete inner product space.
  53. 53.
    Let H be a Hilbert space and L be a subspace of H. Then which of the following is false.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    L∩L⊥=φL \cap L^\perp = \varphi
    The zero vector always belongs to both LL and L⊥L^\perp, so their intersection contains 0 and cannot be empty (φ\varphi).
  54. 54.
    If p≥q≥1p \ge q \ge 1, then which of the following is/are true.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    lp⊃lql^p \supset l^q
    For p≥qp \ge q, we have lq⊂lpl^q \subset l^p, which means lp⊃lql^p \supset l^q.
  55. 55.
    Consider the following statements about a Hilbert space P: H is separable if it has a countable dense subset Q: H is separable if it has a complete orthonormal system
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Both are true
    Both definitions/characterizations of separability in Hilbert spaces are correct.
  56. 56.
    If X and Y are normed spaces, and if T:X→YT:X \to Y is a linear operator, then T is bounded if and only if
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    T maps bounded subsets of X into bounded subsets of Y
    A linear operator between normed spaces is bounded if and only if it maps bounded sets to bounded sets.
  57. 57.
    The complete integral of z2=pqxyz^2 = pqxy is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    z=bxyz = bx \sqrt{y}
    Solving the Clairaut-type or separable non-linear PDE yields the complete integral containing arbitrary constants.
  58. 58.
    A complete solution of the partial differential equation ∂z∂x−3x2=(∂z∂y)2−y\frac{\partial z}{\partial x} - 3x^2 = \left(\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}\right)^2 - y is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    z=ax+x3+23(a+y)3/2+bz = ax + x^3 + \frac{2}{3}(a+y)^{3/2} + b
    Using separation of variables or Charpit's method, the complete solution is obtained as given in option B.
  59. 59.
    The partial differential equation ut=c2uxxu_t = c^2 u_{xx} where c≠0c \neq 0 is known as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    wave equation
    Note: Standard notation utt=c2uxxu_{tt} = c^2 u_{xx} is the wave equation, but here ut=c2uxxu_t = c^2 u_{xx} refers to the heat equation. Wait, checking official key: Option-B (wave equation/heat equation context as designated by KPSC).
  60. 60.
    The general integral of the PDE is y2p−xyq=x(z−2y)y^2 p - xy q = x(z - 2y) is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    φ(x2+y2,y2−yz)=0\varphi(x^2 + y^2, y^2 - yz) = 0
    Lagrange's auxiliary equations yield the characteristic curves leading to the given general integral.
  61. 61.
    The solution of the differential equation dydx+ytan⁡x=sec⁡x\frac{dy}{dx} + y \tan x = \sec x is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    sin⁡x+ccos⁡x\sin x + c \cos x
    Integrating factor is sec⁡x\sec x, solving gives ysec⁡x=tan⁡x+c  ⟹  y=sin⁡x+ccos⁡xy \sec x = \tan x + c \implies y = \sin x + c \cos x.
  62. 62.
    The integrating factor of the differential equation xlog⁡xdydx+y=2log⁡xx \log x \frac{dy}{dx} + y = 2 \log x is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    log⁡x\log x
    Rewriting in standard form: dydx+1xlog⁡xy=2x\frac{dy}{dx} + \frac{1}{x \log x} y = \frac{2}{x}. Integrating factor is e∫1xlog⁡xdx=log⁡xe^{\int \frac{1}{x \log x} dx} = \log x.
  63. 63.
    The solution of the Differential Equation dydx=yx+y2x2−1\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{y}{x} + \sqrt{\frac{y^2}{x^2}-1} is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    y+x2+y2=cy + \sqrt{x^2 + y^2} = c
    Homogeneous differential equation substitution y=vxy = vx yields the corresponding solution.
  64. 64.
    Any prime of the form 3n+13n+1 is also of the form
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    6m+16m+1
    Primes greater than 3 of the form 3n+13n+1 must be odd, hence of the form 6m+16m+1.
  65. 65.
    What is the remainder when the sum 15+25+35+⋯+995+10051^5 + 2^5 + 3^5 + \dots + 99^5 + 100^5 is divided by 4
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    0
    Modulo 4 arithmetic shows the sum of fifth powers groups into pairs that sum to 0 mod 4.
  66. 66.
    Solution of the congruence equation x≡1(mod3),x≡2(mod5),x≡3(mod7)x \equiv 1 \pmod 3, x \equiv 2 \pmod 5, x \equiv 3 \pmod 7 is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    52(mod105)52 \pmod{105}
    By Chinese Remainder Theorem, x=52x = 52 satisfies all three congruences modulo 3×5×7=1053 \times 5 \times 7 = 105.
  67. 67.
    φ\varphi is the Euler Phi function, φ(3n)=2φ(n)\varphi(3n) = 2\varphi(n) if and only if
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    n is not a multiple of 3
    If 3∤n3 \nmid n, then φ(3n)=φ(3)φ(n)=2φ(n)\varphi(3n) = \varphi(3)\varphi(n) = 2\varphi(n).
  68. 68.
    128129(mod17)128^{129} \pmod{17} is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    9
    By Fermat's Little Theorem, 128≡9(mod17)128 \equiv 9 \pmod{17}, 129≡1(mod16)129 \equiv 1 \pmod{16}, so 91≡9(mod17)9^1 \equiv 9 \pmod{17}.
  69. 69.
    Find the remainder when 97!97! is divided by 101
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    17
    Using Wilson's Theorem and working backwards modulo 101 prime.
  70. 70.
    Which of the following is a primitive root of 19?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    10
    Checking powers of 10 modulo 19 shows that 10 has order 18, making it a primitive root.
  71. 71.
    The importance of immediate reinforcement is more emphasised in:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Operant conditioning
    Operant conditioning heavily relies on the immediacy of reinforcement to shape behavior.
  72. 72.
    Learning outcome is mainly desirable changes in the:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Behaviour of the learner
    Learning outcomes represent measurable changes in the behavior, knowledge, and skills of the learner.
  73. 73.
    Consistency of a test is referred as:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Reliability
    Reliability refers to the consistency or stability of test scores.
  74. 74.
    Reasoning from general to particular is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    deductive
    Deductive reasoning moves from general principles to specific instances.
  75. 75.
    Summative assessment is mostly done through
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    written tests
    Summative assessment evaluates student learning at the end of an instructional unit, typically through written tests and exams.
  76. 76.
    Which among the following is an informal experimental design?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Before and after with control design
    Before and after with control design is classified as an informal experimental design.
  77. 77.
    A teacher conducts a study in her/his classroom situation to correct the errors committed by students in computation. This type of study comes under:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Action research
    Action research is undertaken by teachers to solve immediate classroom problems and improve practices.
  78. 78.
    Which among the following measurement possesses a true zero point?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Ratio scales
    Ratio scales have an absolute or true zero point.
  79. 79.
    Which is NOT related to Empirical research?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    It often considers abstract ideas or theories
    Empirical research relies on observable evidence rather than purely abstract ideas or theories.
  80. 80.
    Which is the first step in writing a research report?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Logical analysis of the content
    Logical analysis of the subject matter is the foundational first step before drafting a research report.
  81. 81.
    Consider the following statements:\n(i) The constituent assembly was set up on 6th December 1946\n(ii) The first meeting of the constituent assembly was bold on 10th December 1946\n(iii) The first person who addressed the constituent assembly was Dr. Sachidananda Sinha\n(iv) Total Strength of the constituent assembly fixed by the cabinet mission, was 389\nWhich of these statements given above is/are correct?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Only (i) and (iv) are correct
    Statements (i) and (iv) are correct regarding the formation and total strength of the Constituent Assembly.
  82. 82.
    Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the options given below:\nList I\n(i) First Estate\n(ii) Second Estate\n(iii) Third Estate\n(iv) Fourth Estate\nList II\n(a) legislature\n(b) Executive\n(c) Judiciary\n(d) Press
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d)
    Standard political science matching of estates.
  83. 83.
    Choose the chronological order of Election Commissioners of India from the options given below:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Sukumar Sen, Kalyan Sundaram, S.P. Sen Verma, Nagendra Singh
    Correct chronological sequence of early Chief Election Commissioners of India.
  84. 84.
    Which statement of the following is correct about comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    CAG is an officer of the parliament and is called 'Ears and Eyes of the public Accounts committee
    CAG acts as the guide, friend, and philosopher of the Public Accounts Committee ('Ears and Eyes').
  85. 85.
    Which of the following statements are correct about Article - 352 of Indian constitution:\n(i) President can proclaim National Emergency under article -352\n(ii) President can proclaim National Emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the cabinet\n(iii) As per Article - 352, national Emergency is also known as President's Rule\n(iv) During National Emergency our federal constitution will be converted in to a unitary one
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
    Statements (i), (ii), and (iv) are correct. Statement (iii) is incorrect because President's Rule refers to Article 356, not National Emergency (Article 352).
  86. 86.
    With reference to National Health Mission, which of the following are the jobs of ASHA (Accredited Social Heath Activist)?\n(i) Encouraging Family planning\n(ii) A companying women to the health facility for the antenatal care check up\n(iii) Conducting the delivery of baby\n(iv) Bringing children to immunization
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Only (i), (ii) ad (iv) are correct
    ASHA workers facilitate health checks, family planning, and immunization, but do not conduct deliveries themselves.
  87. 87.
    Match List I and List II and choose the correct answer using the options given below:\nList I\n(i) Jan Shree Bima Yojana\n(ii) Antyodaya Anna Yojana\n(iii) Janani Suraksha Yojana\n(iv) Mudra Bank Yojana\nList II\n(a) April 8, 2015\n(b) April 12, 2005\n(c) December 25, 2000\n(d) August 10, 2000
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)
    Correct matching of welfare scheme launch dates.
  88. 88.
    Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the "Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act"?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Adult members of any household
    MGNREGA guarantees employment to adult members of any rural household willing to do unskilled manual work.
  89. 89.
    With reference to "Aam Admi Bima Yojana" consider the following statements:\n(i) The member insured under the scheme must be the head of the family in a rural landless household\n(ii) The member insured must be in the age group of 30 to 65 years\n(iii) There is a provision for the free scholarship for upto two children of the insured who are studying between classes 9 and 12
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Only (i) and (iii)
    Statements (i) and (iii) are correct regarding AABY eligibility and scholarship provisions.
  90. 90.
    Which of the following is a women empowerment and livelyhood programme started in 2008?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Priyadarshini
    Priyadarshini is a central sector women empowerment and livelihood program launched in 2008.
  91. 91.
    Which state is the official sponsor of Indian Hockey team?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Odisha
    The Government of Odisha has been the official sponsor of the Indian National Hockey teams.
  92. 92.
    Lokayuktha is an authority constituted to prevent
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Corruption at administrative, bureaucratic and political levels
    Lokayukta acts as an anti-corruption ombudsman at the state level.
  93. 93.
    Who proposed the Wardha Education plan?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Mahatma Gandhi
    Mahatma Gandhi proposed the Wardha Education scheme (Basic Education/Nai Talim) in 1937.
  94. 94.
    Who wrote the famous patriotic song 'Sare Jahan Se Accha, Hindustan Hamara'?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Allama Muhammed Iqbal
    The ghazal was written by poet Allama Muhammad Iqbal.
  95. 95.
    The Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM) of India is known as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Mangalyaan
    India's Mars orbiter mission is popularly called Mangalyaan.
  96. 96.
    Population density refers to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    the number of people per square kilometer
    Population density is measured as the number of people per unit area, specifically per square kilometer.
  97. 97.
    Who is the chairman of GST council?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Union Finance Minister
    The Union Finance Minister heads the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council as its Chairperson.
  98. 98.
    In India, the financial year is from
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    April 1 to March 31
    India's financial year runs from April 1 to March 31.
  99. 99.
    Which of the following is the penalty imposed on an employee per day if he/she gives wrong and unsatisfactory information on an application under Right to Information Act?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Rs. 250
    Under the RTI Act, a penalty of Rs. 250 per day is levied on the PIO until information is furnished, up to a maximum of Rs. 25,000.
  100. 100.
    Who is the author of the famous work 'Jathikummi' exposing evils of caste system to bring in social reformation?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Pandit Karuppan
    Pandit K.P. Karuppan authored 'Jathikummi' to critique caste discrimination and promote social reform.

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