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All 99 questions with answers

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  1. 1.
    "The author commented casework relationship as the" soul of casework while the process of study, diagnosis and treatment has been called the body
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Felix P . Biestek
    Felix P. Biestek is known for his work on the casework relationship, often describing it as the soul of casework.
  2. 2.
    Why is it important to avoid judgments and opinions during the interview process?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    It is essential to remain neutral and unbiased to ensure that accurate information is gathered
    Maintaining neutrality is crucial in social work interviews to prevent bias and ensure the collection of objective, accurate information.
  3. 3.
    Examine the following statements i. Social case work solves the problems of an individual ii. Social case work provides equal rights to everyone and reaches out to every needy and troubled person.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Both statements are false
    Social casework is a method focused on individual adjustment, but it does not inherently provide equal rights to everyone in the sense of a universal right; it is a professional service.
  4. 4.
    Perspectives on social casework was written by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Helen Harris Pearlman
    Helen Harris Pearlman is the author of the influential book 'Perspectives on Social Casework'.
  5. 5.
    The principles of case recording in group work consists of the following except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Principle of evaluation
    Evaluation is a process, not a standard principle of case recording in group work.
  6. 6.
    Match the following (i) Education and Training (a) Ethical responsibilities to the social work profession (ii) Conflicts of Interest (b) Ethical responsibilities to Colleagues (iii) Referral for Services (c) Ethical responsibilities as professionals (iv) Misrepresentation (d) Ethical responsibilities to clients (v) Evaluation and Research (e) Ethical responsibilities to the broader society (vi) Social and Political Action (f) Ethical responsibilities in practice setting
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    i-f, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c, v-f, vi-e
    This matching follows the standard NASW Code of Ethics categorization.
  7. 7.
    arrange in a chronological sequence based on year of establishment A. CSWE B. Association of Training Schools of Professional Social Work C. NASW D. International federation of social workers
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    B,A,C,D
    The chronological order of establishment is Association of Training Schools (1919), CSWE (1952), NASW (1955), and IFSW (1956).
  8. 8.
    In the questions given below are two statements labelled as assertion (A) and reason (R). In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct. Assertion (A) Records should neither be too long nor too short Reason (R) There should be certain degree of uniformity
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
    While both statements are true, the reason for records not being too long or short is usually related to efficiency and clarity, not just uniformity.
  9. 9.
    Consider the following statement i. The 2017 revision to the NASW Code of Ethics changed the title of standard 1.05 from "Cultural Competence" to "Cultural diversity and social awareness ii. These recommendations for change were proposed by the National committee on Racial and Ethnic Diversity (NCORED)
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Only statement ii is true
    The change was proposed by NCORED, but the specific title change details in statement i are historically inaccurate regarding the exact wording.
  10. 10.
    The theory which insists that treatment must be differentiated according to the need of the client
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Psychosocial
    The Psychosocial approach emphasizes individualization and tailoring treatment to the specific needs of the client.
  11. 11.
    Which of the following is the most frequently used skill in social work?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    The interview
    The interview is the fundamental and most frequently used tool/skill in all areas of social work practice.
  12. 12.
    Which of these does not comes under group decision-making and cooperative action method of community organization
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Public relations
    Public relations is a communication strategy, whereas conferences, negotiations, and committees are direct methods of group decision-making.
  13. 13.
    Egan identified four aspects of Positive regard - Which of the following is not right?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Elaborating the content
    Elaborating the content is a communication skill, not an aspect of positive regard as defined by Egan.
  14. 14.
    The process through which the worker guides the group in setting up of formal organization is known as______?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Principle of flexible functional organization
    The principle of flexible functional organization refers to the structure and formalization of group activities.
  15. 15.
    In the questions given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct? Assertion (A) The practice of social group work is important for social action Reason (R) Social action is essentially a group activity
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    Social action requires collective effort, making group work a vital foundation for organizing and mobilizing communities.
  16. 16.
    Consider the following statements i. Assessment begins at the study and continues up to the termination iv. Assessment results in the categorization of individuals or in the labelling of problems
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Only statement i is true
    Assessment is an ongoing process from study to termination, whereas labeling is generally avoided in professional social work assessment.
  17. 17.
    Which of the following is not the determinants of cooperation and competition?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Social identity
    Social identity is distinct from the primary structural and interactional determinants like reward structure, communication, and reciprocity.
  18. 18.
    Behaviour according to the group norm is called
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Conformity
    Conformity refers to adjusting behavior to align with group norms.
  19. 19.
    Group Experience and Democratic Values" is written by_______?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Grace Coyle
    Grace Coyle authored 'Group Experience and Democratic Values'.
  20. 20.
    In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct Assertion (A) There is a shortage of skilled manpower in India Reason (R) Employment opportunities have not been generated to the required level
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
    Both statements describe socioeconomic realities in India, but R does not explain A directly.
  21. 21.
    Ethical dilemmas in social work include instances where practitioners face
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Conflicting values
    Ethical dilemmas primarily arise from conflicting professional values and principles.
  22. 22.
    Which of the following approach makes a shift toward channelizing social services to needy people?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Basic needs approach
    The basic needs approach focuses on meeting fundamental human needs and directing services to the most vulnerable.
  23. 23.
    Important elements of social action include 1. Activeness of the community 2. Democratic approach 3. Understanding behaviour 4. Community resources
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    1, 2 and 4
    Community activeness, democratic methods, and mobilization of resources are core elements of social action.
  24. 24.
    What are the key characteristics of transactional leaders?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Guiding, mentoring and motivating
    Transactional leadership involves guidance, mentoring, and motivation within established structures.
  25. 25.
    A scientific distinction between rural and urban community can be made on the basis of:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    density of population
    Population density is a primary sociological criterion for distinguishing rural and urban communities.
  26. 26.
    Needs assessment is :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Used to document gaps in service
    Needs assessments are systematic processes used to identify unmet needs and document service gaps.
  27. 27.
    While working with an individual client on a one-to-one basis, the relationship is :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Purposeful in meeting the psychosocial needs of the client
    Professional social work relationships are inherently purposeful and directed toward meeting psychosocial needs.
  28. 28.
    What is the primary characteristic of Non-Governmental Organizations (NGOs)?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    They undertake different functions in the community
    NGOs perform diverse developmental, welfare, and advocacy functions in communities.
  29. 29.
    What is the most widespread statutory organization in rural India?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Panchayati Raj Institutions
    Panchayati Raj Institutions form the widespread statutory local governance system in rural India.
  30. 30.
    Consider the two statements regarding programme in group work, and choose the correct answer i. The value of programme in group work is related to establishing a satisfying affective relationship ii. The programme in the group depends highly on the interests and resources of the worker
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Only statement i is true
    Statement i highlights the affective value of group programs, while statement ii is incorrect because programs depend primarily on group member interests.
  31. 31.
    Which of the following is not a characteristic of an effective work group?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    A sense of commitment by individual members to their own goals and objectives
    Effective groups commit to shared collective goals rather than individual isolated goals.
  32. 32.
    Which one of the following captures implicit and explicit group communication and interaction patterns?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    A sociogram
    A sociogram maps social relationships, communication, and interaction patterns within a group.
  33. 33.
    What is the importance of promoting inclusivity in social group work?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    T o challenge systems of oppression and marginalization
    Inclusivity challenges oppression and ensures marginalized voices are represented.
  34. 34.
    In the Neighbourhood Community Organising model proposed by Mary Weil, scope of concern is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Quality of life in the geographic area
    Mary Weil's neighborhood organizing model focuses on improving the quality of life within a specific geographic area.
  35. 35.
    The period that begins when the fetal body emerged from the mother's body and lasts till umbilicial cord has been cut and tied, is known as :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Period of Partunate
    The partunate period spans from birth until the umbilical cord is cut and tied.
  36. 36.
    Psycho social stages of human growth and development is related to:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Erik Erickson
    Erik Erikson formulated the psychosocial stages of human development.
  37. 37.
    The process by which a stimulated receptor creates a pattern of neural messages that represent the stimulus in the brain is called
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Sensation
    Sensation is the process of detecting environmental stimuli and converting them into neural signals.
  38. 38.
    Development proceeds from the head downward - this is known as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    The cephalocaudal principle
    The cephalocaudal trend describes physical development proceeding from head to foot.
  39. 39.
    Agents that produce a birth defect are called
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    T eratogens
    Teratogens are environmental agents that cause physical birth defects.
  40. 40.
    The word puberty is derived from the Latin word "Pubertas", which means
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Age of manhood
    Pubertas translates to 'age of manhood' or adulthood.
  41. 41.
    A defense mechanism leading to the temporary or long-term reversion of the ego to an earlier stage of development rather than handling unacceptable impulses more adaptively is known as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Regression
    Regression is reverting to earlier developmental behaviors under stress.
  42. 42.
    The stage from conception to birth is called :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Gestation
    Gestation refers to the entire period from conception to birth.
  43. 43.
    The technical term for the process in which a trained professional uses psychological methods to help a person with psychological problem is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Psychotherapy
    Psychotherapy is the general term for psychological treatment methods.
  44. 44.
    According to Rogers, the ability of the therapist to share the client's emotions is an important process called
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Empathy
    Empathy is the therapist's capacity to understand and share the client's emotional experience.
  45. 45.
    Clients are taught to associate relaxation techniques with fearful stimuli that replace previous learned harmful responses for helping people overcome phobias. This method is termed as?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Systematic desensitization
    Systematic desensitization pairs deep relaxation with graded anxiety-provoking stimuli.
  46. 46.
    It is generally considered that Cognitive behavioural therapy changes
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Thoughts and behaviour
    CBT modifies both maladaptive thoughts and behaviors.
  47. 47.
    Critical Incident Stress Debriefing is more associated with
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Crisis Counselling
    CISD is a specialized crisis intervention technique following traumatic events.
  48. 48.
    Emphasis on 'here and now' is key to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Gestalt Therapy
    Gestalt therapy places primary emphasis on immediate present awareness ('here and now').
  49. 49.
    When individuals are under stress, they often return to a less mature way of behaving. This is called as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Regression
    Regression involves reverting to immature behavioral patterns under stress.
  50. 50.
    Which is the excitatory neurotransmitter present in more neurons of the central nervous system than any other transmitter
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Glutamate
    Glutamate is the most abundant excitatory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system.
  51. 51.
    Which part of the brain is involved maintaining homeostasis by exerting control over the autonomic nervous system
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Hypothalamus
    The hypothalamus regulates autonomic functions and maintains homeostasis.
  52. 52.
    Which gland in human body secretes Epinephrine
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Adrenal
    The adrenal glands secrete epinephrine (adrenaline).
  53. 53.
    Which of the following disorder is considered as a developmental disability
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Autism
    Autism spectrum disorder is classified as a neurodevelopmental disorder.
  54. 54.
    The symptom where people report that they have lost the ability to experience joy, even in response to the most joyous occasions
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Anhedonia
    Anhedonia is the inability to feel pleasure or joy.
  55. 55.
    Which among the following is not a secondary social institution?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Family
    Family is a primary social institution.
  56. 56.
    'Stricter norms' are________
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Mores
    Mores are moral norms with stricter social enforcement than folkways.
  57. 57.
    The movement of people or groups from one social status or position to another status or position is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Social mobility
    Social mobility refers to movement between social positions or statuses.
  58. 58.
    ______ is often known as "subsistence poverty".
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Absolute poverty
    Absolute poverty is defined by the severe deprivation of basic human needs, often termed subsistence poverty.
  59. 59.
    Which of the following theoretical perspective of sociology focuses primarily on social order and stability?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Functionalist
    Functionalism emphasizes social integration, order, and stability.
  60. 60.
    The word 'administration' - derived from Latin words; 'ad' and 'ministrare' - which means
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    T o look after
    The Latin roots 'ad' and 'ministrare' literally translate to 'to look after' or 'to serve/manage'.
  61. 61.
    _________ is a planned organization - wide effort that is managed at senior levels and is intended to increase organizational effectiveness and health through deliberate interventions in the organization's processes.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Organisation Development
    Organizational Development (OD) involves planned interventions to improve organizational effectiveness.
  62. 62.
    _________ is the establishment of effective authority relationships among selected works, persons and work places in order for the group to work together efficiently, or the process of dividing work into sections and departments.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Organising
    Organizing involves structuring authority relationships and dividing work into departments.
  63. 63.
    Which of the following is not a part of Memorandum of Association?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Logo of the society
    A society's logo is not a statutory requirement in the Memorandum of Association.
  64. 64.
    360 degree feed-back is associated with
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Performance Appraisal
    360-degree feedback is a comprehensive performance appraisal method.
  65. 65.
    A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is called a
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Independent variable
    An independent variable is the presumed cause in experimental research.
  66. 66.
    Cluster sampling, stratified sampling and systematic sampling are types of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Random sampling
    These are probability (random) sampling techniques.
  67. 67.
    ______ holds a deterministic philosophy in which causes (probably) determine effects or outcomes
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Postpositivist
    Postpositivism holds a deterministic philosophy focusing on cause-and-effect linkages.
  68. 68.
    Which one is best suited approach under Quantitative research design?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Experimental
    Experimental research is a primary quantitative design.
  69. 69.
    Which of these is not a method of data collection
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Experiments
    Experiments are research designs/methods of investigation rather than direct data collection instruments like questionnaires or interviews.
  70. 70.
    Which among the following operations come under the interactive phase of teaching according to P .V. Jackson? A. Deciding appropriate strategies B. Sizing up the class C. Selection of stimuli D. Diagnosis of the learners
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    B, C and D
    Sizing up the class, stimulus selection, and diagnosis occur during the interactive phase of teaching.
  71. 71.
    Which are the major elements of true co-operative learning suggested by David and Roger Johnson? A. Individual accountability B. Group Processing C. Positive interdependence D. Learning Styles E. Exploratory tasks
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    A, B and C
    Johnson and Johnson identified individual accountability, group processing, and positive interdependence as core elements.
  72. 72.
    Rosenshine has identified certain teaching functions. Identify the most relevant functions 1. Review and check the previous day's work 2. Present the new materials 3. Provide guided practice 4. Provide dependent practice
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    1, 2 and 3
    Review, presentation of new material, and guided practice are key direct instruction functions identified by Rosenshine.
  73. 73.
    Criterion - referenced test may work best when you are: 1. Measuring mastery of basic skills 2. Assessing affective and psychomotor objectives 3. Grouping students for instructions 4. Assessing the range of abilities in a large group
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    1, 2 and 3
    Criterion-referenced tests excel at measuring mastery and skill acquisition.
  74. 74.
    As a teacher you want to identify specific learning problems. You may need to refer- a. Standardised tests b. Diagnostic tests c. Achievement tests d. Aptitude tests
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    b only
    Diagnostic tests are specifically designed to identify learning difficulties and problems.
  75. 75.
    Effect of extraneous variables are controlled through i. statistical control by the use of covariance ii. through randomization and matching iii. By employing multiple regression analysis
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    i and ii
    Randomization, matching, and analysis of covariance (ANCOVA) are standard methods to control extraneous variables.
  76. 76.
    Following practices can ensure research ethics i. Promise of confidentiality ii. Witholding true nature of data collection iii. Informed consent from all participants
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    i and iii
    Confidentiality and informed consent are fundamental pillars of ethical research.
  77. 77.
    _________ is the instrument which fairly and comprehensively covers the domain that puports to cover
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Content validity
    Content validity assesses how well an instrument covers the entire content domain.
  78. 78.
    Following is the sampling method where, the first unit is selected randomly and the remaining units of the sample are selected at fixed intervals.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Systematic sampling
    Systematic sampling selects units at regular fixed intervals after a random start.
  79. 79.
    Choose correct statements i. Type 1 error is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is actually true. ii. Reliability is the extent to which a measure or set of measure correctly represent the concept of study. iii. Measurement error is the inaccuracies of measuring the 'true' variable values due to the fallibility of the measurement instrument. iv. Multicollinearity is the extent to which a variable can be explained by the other variable in the analysis.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    i, iii and iv only
    Statements i, iii, and iv correctly define Type I error, measurement error, and multicollinearity.
  80. 80.
    ASHA scheme is presently in place in 33 States and Union T erritories except...
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Goa, Chandigarh and Puducherry
    Goa, Chandigarh, and Puducherry do not have the ASHA program implemented in the same manner.
  81. 81.
    Consider the statements below in connection with the appointment of Information Commissioners and find out the incorrect statement(s) i. Information Commissioners are eligible for reappointment. ii. In the absence of a recognised opposition leader, leader of the single largest group in the opposition shall be deemed as the leader of opposition. iii. Information Commissioners are appointed by the President of India on the recommendation by the President of Prime Minister
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    i and iii
    Statements i and iii contain factual inaccuracies regarding Information Commissioners' terms and appointment process under RTI rules.
  82. 82.
    The function(s) of the Central Council of the MNREGS is/are______ i. To establish a central evaluation and monitoring system ii. Review the monitoring system from time to time iii. Determining the preferred work iv. Dissemination of information about the scheme
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    i, ii and iv
    Central Council functions include establishing monitoring systems, reviewing them, and disseminating information.
  83. 83.
    The Direct Benefit Transfer under National Food Security Act 2013 aims at_____ i. To reduce the need for huge physical movement of food grains. ii. To provide greater autonomy to beneficiaries to choose their consumption basket. iii. To enhance dietary diversity and reduce leakage. iv. To facilitate better targeting and promote financial inclusion
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    All the above
    All listed objectives apply to Direct Benefit Transfer under the NFSA.
  84. 84.
    Consider the following fundamental duties of Indian citizens and identify the incorrect i. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture ii. To safeguard public property iii. To secure a living wage and decent standard of living. iv. Equal justice and free legal aid to the poor
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    iii and iv
    Items iii and iv are Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), not Fundamental Duties.
  85. 85.
    Out of the following statements, which is/are the scheme for ensuring the social security and welfare of the workers of unorganised sector. i. eShram ii. Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan)PM-SYM) iii. Aam Admi Beema Yojana
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All the above
    All three are prominent welfare and social security schemes for unorganized sector workers.
  86. 86.
    If there is a disagreement between the two Houses of Parliament regarding the passage of a bill for the amendment of the constitution, the deadlock could be solved through.....
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    None of the Above
    Constitution amendment bills cannot be passed via joint sessions; both houses must pass them separately.
  87. 87.
    The Vice President of India is not entitled to discharge the functions of the President, when the office of the President gets vacated due to..... i. The expiry of the term of five years of the President ii. The death of the president iii. The resignation of the President iv. Removal through impeachment
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    i only
    When a term expires, a new election is held before vacancy, but the VP acts upon vacancy due to death, resignation, or removal; specifically, expiry of term requires an election rather than VP succession.
  88. 88.
    Consider the statements below and identify correct statement(s)
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    All ministers can attend the proceedings of both Houses but enjoy right to vote in the House to which he belong.
    Ministers have the right to speak and attend proceedings in both houses, but can only vote in the house of which they are members.
  89. 89.
    The Central Consumer Protection Council is chaired by______
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    The Minister in charge of the Department of Consumer Affairs.
    The Consumer Affairs Minister heads the Central Consumer Protection Council.
  90. 90.
    Who modified the famous slogan of Sree Narayana Guru, 'One caste, one religion, one God for mankind' as 'No caste, No Religion, No God for mankind'.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Sahodaran Ayyappan
    Sahodaran Ayyappan modified Sree Narayana Guru's slogan into 'Misra Bhojanam' / anti-caste maxims.
  91. 91.
    The recipient of inaugural Khel Ratna Award in 1991 - 92, first sports person to receive Padma Vibhushan in 2007. A minor planet discovered in 1988 has been officially named after him in the year 2015
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Vishwanathan Anand
    Viswanathan Anand is the chess grandmaster who received these accolades.
  92. 92.
    Which football legend's statue has been unveiled in Panaji Goa, recently
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Cristiano Ronaldo
    A statue of Cristiano Ronaldo was unveiled in Panaji, Goa.
  93. 93.
    Which state's legislative council has passed a bill to give more powers to Higher Education minister in the state run Varsities recently.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Maharashtra
    Maharashtra's legislative measures concerned higher education minister powers.
  94. 94.
    The Nobel peace prize 2021 was awarded to Maria Ressa and Dmitry Muratov for their efforts to safeguard freedom of expression, which is a pre condition for democracy and lasting peace. Ms Maria Ressa was the CEO of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Rappler
    Maria Ressa co-founded and headed the Philippine news website Rappler.
  95. 95.
    Which state was announced the most film - friendly state in India. in National film Award's 2021
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Sikkim
    Sikkim received the award for the most film-friendly state.
  96. 96.
    The technique of Satyagraha included various methods which of the was/were not included by Gandhi in those methods. i. Fasting ii. Non violence iii. Scorched earth policy iv. Strikes and hartals V. Underground activities Choose the answer from the codes given below
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    iii and v
    Scorched earth policy and underground activities were strictly avoided by Gandhi in Satyagraha.
  97. 97.
    As per national Multidimensional poverty Index, base line report 2021 by Niti Aayog - which state has the highest proportions of poverty level.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Bihar
    Bihar recorded the highest proportion of multidimensional poverty according to NITI Aayog's 2021 report.
  98. 98.
    Which constitutional amendment has given states the power to add communities to OBC list that they deem fit.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    127th constitution Amendment Bill
    The 105th Constitutional Amendment Act (originating as the 127th Amendment Bill) restored states' power to identify and specify OBCs.
  99. 99.
    Maulavi Ahmadullah of Faizabad was another outstanding leader of the Revolt of 1857. He was a native of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Madras
    Maulavi Ahmadullah Shah was originally a native of Madras before operating in Awadh/Faizabad during 1857.

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