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100 questions with answersProvisional keyKerala PSC Exam

Associate Professor/Reader in Forencis Medicine and Toxicology question paper 2024

Date of test
14/06/2024
Category No.
169/2023
Questions
100
Answer key
Provisional Answer Key
Exam mode
Online (computer based)

Provisional key. Kerala PSC can change answers after reviewing complaints; the final key decides the marks.

Source: Kerala PSC (keralapsc.gov.in) · official document· Last updated 25 Sept 2026· How we check content

Official PDFs

As published by the Kerala Public Service Commission.

All 100 questions with answers

Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer. Answers follow the official Kerala PSC answer key.

  1. 1.
    Match the following persons with their contribution field in Forensic Medicine: I. Sir Robert Christison a. Forensic Entomology II. Azizul Haque and Hem Chandra Bose b. Forensic Pathology III. Jean Pierre Megnin c. Case of Burke and Hare IV. Ambroise Pare d. Dactylography
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    I-c; II-d; III-a; IV-b
    Sir Robert Christison is associated with the case of Burke and Hare, Azizul Haque and Hem Chandra Bose with Dactylography, Jean Pierre Megnin with Forensic Entomology, and Ambroise Pare with Forensic Pathology.
  2. 2.
    Dental formula of a child brought for medicolegal examination represented in modified FDI formula is as follows : Which of the following statement/s about this child is/are correct? I. Unsworn evidence is admissible in court of law II. Abandonment of this child by parents is punishable with 2 years imprisonment under S.317 IPC III. This child is not criminally responsible IV. This child can give valid consent for clinical examination
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Only statement I is correct
    In the context of medicolegal examination of a child, unsworn evidence is admissible in a court of law.
  3. 3.
    Which of the following parameter is an important sex differentiating feature even in early foetal life?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Sciatic notch index
    The sciatic notch index is a well-established parameter for sex determination in skeletal remains, including foetal life.
  4. 4.
    The technique applied to determine whether the skull is that of the person in the photograph is called:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Superimposition technique
    Superimposition technique involves overlaying a photograph of a person onto a skull to determine if they match.
  5. 5.
    Which of the following statement/s is/are true regarding finger print system? I. First fingerprint Bureau was established in Mumbai II. Fingerprint pattern of identical twins will be similar III. Formation of finger print pattern completes in intrauterine life itself IV. First case where fingerprints used for identification is Francisca Rojas case
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Statements III and IV are correct
    Fingerprint patterns are formed during intrauterine life and the Francisca Rojas case is historically significant as the first criminal case solved using fingerprints.
  6. 6.
    A suspected stain from a crime scene is placed on a glass slide and added a reagent containing water, NaOH, pyridine and glucose and then covered with a cover slip. When examined under microscope, it showed pink feathery crystals. It could be due to the formation of:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Pyridine ferroprotoporphyrin
    The Takayama test uses pyridine and glucose to form pink feathery crystals of pyridine ferroprotoporphyrin (hemochromogen).
  7. 7.
    Match the following: I. Daniel McNaughten a. Product test II. Monte Durham b. Lack of capacity to confirm the conduct III. Donald K Currens c. Wild beast test IV. Edward Arnold d. Right or wrong test
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    I-d; II-a; III-b; IV-c
    Daniel McNaughten is associated with the 'Right or wrong test', Monte Durham with the 'Product test', Donald K Currens with 'Lack of capacity to confirm the conduct', and Edward Arnold with the 'Wild beast test'.
  8. 8.
    Testamentary capacity is _________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Ability of a person to make a valid will
    Testamentary capacity refers to the legal and mental ability of a person to create a valid will.
  9. 9.
    A 40-year-old man accused in a case of bribery was admitted to your hospital with complaints of sudden onset of irritability, talkativeness and abnormal abusive behaviour. His symptoms and signs do not satisfy criteria of any of the mental illness. His sleep became normal in two days of hospital stay. His symptoms are more when he was examined by the doctor. Which of the following can be used to identify his condition?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Miller Forensic Assessment of Symptoms Test
    The Miller Forensic Assessment of Symptoms Test (M-FAST) is used to detect malingering of psychiatric symptoms.
  10. 10.
    All the following comes under a "false personal unshaken belief in contrary to proof" Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Bernheim syndrome
    Capgras, Fregoli, and Othello syndromes are types of delusional misidentification or delusional jealousy, whereas Bernheim syndrome is not a delusional syndrome of this type.
  11. 11.
    A 20 year old lady has frequent and recurrent episodes of binge eating, self-induced vomiting and use of purgatives is suffering from which of the following condition?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Bulimia nervosa
    Bulimia nervosa is characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors like self-induced vomiting or purgative use.
  12. 12.
    The special technique used to demonstrate intravascular fat in cases of suspected fat embolism during postmortem examination is _________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Robb-Smith's technique
    Robb-Smith's technique is specifically used for the demonstration of fat emboli in postmortem tissue samples.
  13. 13.
    A man and a woman were found dead in a car parked in a closed garage. The engine of the car was found started and air condition was in on position. During postmortem examination postmortem staining appeared cherry red in colour. Choose the special viscera to be preserved in this case to find out the cause of death.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Spleen
    The cherry red staining indicates carbon monoxide poisoning; the spleen is a preferred organ for detecting carboxyhemoglobin.
  14. 14.
    The method used to assess the stature of a person when unknown fragmented long bones recovered were brought to you for examination.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Steel's formula
    Steel's formula is specifically utilized for stature estimation from fragmented long bones.
  15. 15.
    Which of the following section of Criminal Procedure Code concerned with the inquiry by a magistrate into the cause of death?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    176
    Section 176 of the CrPC mandates a magisterial inquiry into the cause of death in specific circumstances (e.g., custodial death).
  16. 16.
    Read the following statements and choose the best option: I. Rectified spirit is not used as a preservative for viscera in phenol poisoning. II. Organic acids are soluble in rectified spirit.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Both statements are correct and II is the explanation for I
    Phenol is soluble in rectified spirit, which would dissolve the poison and interfere with analysis, hence it is not used.
  17. 17.
    A psychiatrist is asked to disclose a patient's communication made during a consultation, by the police. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Refuse to disclose citing professional secrecy.
    Medical ethics and professional secrecy protect patient-doctor communications unless legally compelled by a court order.
  18. 18.
    An exception for professional misconduct
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Charge is brought before Court of Law
    Professional misconduct is generally handled by medical councils; if a charge is already before a Court of Law, it may be considered an exception to immediate council action.
  19. 19.
    Which of the following elements is not required to prove negligence in a civil case?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Intent to cause harm
    Negligence is an unintentional tort; intent to cause harm is not a required element.
  20. 20.
    A patient who neglects a wound on his foot caused by doctor's negligence which in turn leads to aggravation of the damage resulted in amputation of the foot, will not be entitled to recover damages under,
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Doctrine of Avoidable consequence rule
    The doctrine of avoidable consequences prevents a plaintiff from recovering damages for injuries that could have been avoided by reasonable effort.
  21. 21.
    In last clear chance doctrine
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Limits the scope of contributory negligence as defense by the doctor.
    The last clear chance doctrine allows a plaintiff to recover despite their own negligence if the defendant had the final opportunity to avoid the harm.
  22. 22.
    Consent of an insane person is invalid according to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Sec. 90 IPC
    Section 90 of the IPC defines consent given by a person of unsound mind as invalid.
  23. 23.
    A doctor takes consent before surgical procedures and he may go beyond the consent if he feels that it is needed for the patient's benefit is termed as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Doctrine of extended consent
    The doctrine of extended consent allows a surgeon to perform additional necessary procedures discovered during surgery for the patient's benefit.
  24. 24.
    Punishment for causing death by medical negligence is by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Section 304 A IPC
    Section 304A of the IPC deals with causing death by negligence.
  25. 25.
    Regarding State Medical Council, all are true except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    To conduct medical research
    Conducting medical research is not a primary statutory function of the State Medical Council.
  26. 26.
    A doctor is legally bound to report
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Doctors have a legal obligation to report these categories to the appropriate authorities.
  27. 27.
    If a patient requests for his medical record, it should be issued with in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    72 hrs.
    Medical records should be provided to the patient within 72 hours of a formal request.
  28. 28.
    Consent is not required in medical examination of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All the above
    In these specific legal and public health contexts, consent is not required for medical examination.
  29. 29.
    Bolam test is applicable in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Medical negligence
    The Bolam test is a legal standard used to determine if a doctor acted with reasonable care in medical negligence cases.
  30. 30.
    An exception to Res Ipsa Loquitor
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Occurrence of utero vesicle fistula in repeated caesarian section
    Res ipsa loquitur ('the thing speaks for itself') does not apply to complications that can occur despite proper care, such as certain fistulas in complex surgeries.
  31. 31.
    A doctor should not discriminate while giving priority for treatment of a patient on any ground other than emergency is stated in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Geneva convention 1949
    The Geneva Convention (specifically the principles derived from it regarding medical neutrality) emphasizes non-discrimination in medical treatment.
  32. 32.
    Molecular death
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Occurs piecemeal
    Molecular death refers to the death of individual cells and tissues, which occurs gradually (piecemeal) after somatic death.
  33. 33.
    Sudden death is when death occurs
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Within 24 hours after the onset of terminal illness
    Sudden death is generally defined as death occurring within 24 hours of the onset of symptoms or terminal illness.
  34. 34.
    Which among the following is true regarding Rigor Mortis?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Is independent of integrity of nervous system
    Rigor mortis is a chemical process involving ATP depletion in muscles and is independent of the nervous system.
  35. 35.
    Which statement is true regarding adipocere formation?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All the above
    Adipocere formation involves the hydrolysis of body fats into fatty acids, typically starting in subcutaneous tissues, and exhibits these characteristic physical properties.
  36. 36.
    Paltaufs hemorrhages are usually present in about 50% of cases in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Lower lobes of lungs
    Paltauf's hemorrhages are subpleural hemorrhages often found in the lower lobes of the lungs, typically associated with drowning.
  37. 37.
    Burking is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Combination of smothering and traumatic asphyxia
    Burking is a method of homicide involving the combination of smothering (covering the nose and mouth) and traumatic asphyxia (applying pressure to the chest).
  38. 38.
    Mechanism of death in café coronary is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Reflex cardiac arrest
    Café coronary is caused by the obstruction of the airway by a food bolus, leading to reflex cardiac arrest via vagal stimulation.
  39. 39.
    Pseudoligature mark is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Skin fold resembling ligature mark
    A pseudoligature mark is a skin fold or crease that mimics the appearance of a ligature mark, often seen in infants or obese individuals.
  40. 40.
    In hanging, ecchymosis alone in the grooving due to ligature material
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    have no significance as to whether hanging was caused during life or not
    Ecchymosis in the ligature groove is not a reliable indicator of vital reaction in hanging, as it can occur postmortem.
  41. 41.
    Which of the following is true?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All the above
    Choking is primarily accidental, but can occur in suicidal or homicidal (infanticide) contexts.
  42. 42.
    Death usually occurs in starvation when
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    60% of the original weight is reached
    This question was cancelled by the examination board.
  43. 43.
    Death occurs in starvation
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    When 20% of body proteins are lost
    Death in starvation is typically associated with the depletion of body protein reserves, often cited around 20-30%.
  44. 44.
    In heat prostration
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Patient usually recovers when removed from exposure and placed at rest
    Heat prostration (heat exhaustion) is characterized by peripheral vascular collapse, but patients typically recover with rest and cooling.
  45. 45.
    Paradoxical undressing is seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Hypothermia
    Paradoxical undressing is a phenomenon where victims of severe hypothermia remove their clothing due to a sensation of burning heat caused by peripheral vasodilation.
  46. 46.
    In neonatal cold injury
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Hemorrhagic tendency is manifested
    Neonatal cold injury can lead to metabolic disturbances, including a tendency towards hemorrhage.
  47. 47.
    Scab of abrasion appears reddish brown in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    2-3 days
    The formation of a reddish-brown scab on an abrasion typically occurs within 2-3 days as the wound dries.
  48. 48.
    Brown colour of contusion is due to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Haemosiderin
    The color changes in a contusion are due to the breakdown of hemoglobin; hemosiderin is responsible for the brown color.
  49. 49.
    All are percolated contusion except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Kevorkian sign
    Percolated (or extravasated) contusions occur when blood tracks to a distant site; Battle's, Cullen's, and Grey-Turner's are examples, while Kevorkian is not.
  50. 50.
    The enzyme activity that increase as early as in one hour after sustaining injury is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Adenosinetriphosphatase
    Adenosinetriphosphatase (ATPase) activity in muscle tissue shows changes very early after injury.
  51. 51.
    After sustaining an injury Treusta's shunt can occur in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Brain
    This question was cancelled in the official answer key.
  52. 52.
    Waddel's triad include all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Fracture of Tibia
    Waddell's triad consists of head injury, abdominal/thoracic injury, and femoral shaft fracture.
  53. 53.
    Harikiri is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Suicidal stab injury
    Harikiri (or Seppuku) is a traditional form of ritual suicide involving self-inflicted abdominal stab wounds.
  54. 54.
    Instrument used to examine the interior of a barrel in firearm
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Helixometer
    A helixometer is a specialized instrument used to inspect the rifling and interior of a firearm barrel.
  55. 55.
    Sparrow foot marks are seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Windscreen impact
    Sparrow foot marks (or spider-web fractures) are characteristic of injuries caused by impact with a vehicle windscreen.
  56. 56.
    The commonest cause of the Bends is rapid release of gaseous
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Nitrogen
    Decompression sickness (the Bends) is caused by the rapid release of dissolved nitrogen gas from tissues into the blood.
  57. 57.
    Percentage of surface area of head and neck in a child of age 1 to 4 years, according to Lund and Browder is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    19
    According to the Lund and Browder chart, the head and neck surface area for a child aged 1-4 years is 19%.
  58. 58.
    Wischnewsky Spots are seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Hypothermia
    Wischnewsky spots are characteristic gastric mucosal erosions found in cases of death due to hypothermia.
  59. 59.
    The bullet that leaves a visible mark while in flight is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Tracer bullet
    Tracer bullets contain a pyrotechnic composition that burns during flight, leaving a visible trail.
  60. 60.
    Choking have the following effects except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Increases rate of spread of pellets
    Choking in a shotgun barrel is designed to keep the shot pattern tighter, thereby decreasing the rate of spread of pellets.
  61. 61.
    The Musket is a
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Smooth bore shoulder arm
    A musket is a muzzle-loading, smooth-bore firearm intended to be fired from the shoulder.
  62. 62.
    The desire to be identified as a member of the opposite sex is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Eonism
    Eonism refers to the desire to adopt the dress and social role of the opposite sex.
  63. 63.
    Rosenberg criteria is related to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Munchausen's syndrome by proxy
    Rosenberg criteria are used to assist in the diagnosis of Munchausen syndrome by proxy.
  64. 64.
    The process of aseptic autolysis is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Maceration
    Maceration is the process of aseptic autolysis of a fetus in the uterus.
  65. 65.
    Choline iodide crystals appear in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Florence test
    The Florence test is used to detect choline in seminal fluid, resulting in the formation of characteristic choline iodide crystals.
  66. 66.
    Sec. 318 IPC involves
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Concealment of birth
    Section 318 of the Indian Penal Code deals with the concealment of birth by secret disposal of the dead body of a child.
  67. 67.
    Under 'Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013, when a woman gives complaint regarding sexual harassment, the inquiry process should be completed within a time period of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    90 days
    The Act mandates that the inquiry into a complaint of sexual harassment must be completed within 90 days.
  68. 68.
    Which of the following statement is/are incorrect about Lochia? (i) It is alkaline discharge (ii) It is acidic discharge (iii) It lasts for 2-3 months after delivery (iv) It resolves more rapidly in women who breast fed
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Both (ii) and (iii)
    Lochia is alkaline and typically lasts for 2-3 weeks, not months.
  69. 69.
    'Buggery' is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Sodomy
    Buggery is a legal term historically used to refer to sodomy.
  70. 70.
    'SAFE' Kit is used for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Examination of sexual assault survivors
    SAFE (Sexual Assault Forensic Evidence) kit is used for the collection of forensic evidence from sexual assault survivors.
  71. 71.
    Assisted reproductive technology (ART) is/are:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Both (1) and (2)
    Both ICSI and Zona drilling are techniques used in assisted reproduction.
  72. 72.
    Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about vaginismus?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All the above
    Vaginismus is an involuntary spastic contraction of the vaginal muscles that can prevent intercourse.
  73. 73.
    A male may be impotent with a particular female, but not with another
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Quod hanc
    Quod hanc is a form of relative impotence where a man is unable to perform with a specific partner.
  74. 74.
    Osiander's sign is positive at about __________ week of pregnancy
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    8th
    Osiander's sign (pulsation of the vaginal arteries) is typically felt around the 8th week of pregnancy.
  75. 75.
    Which section of law deals with Police Inquest?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    174 Cr.PC
    Section 174 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) deals with the police inquest.
  76. 76.
    True about organ transplantation
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    The Transplantation of Human Organs Act covers these aspects of organ donation and regulation.
  77. 77.
    Example of a designer drug
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    MDMA
    MDMA (Ecstasy) is a classic example of a designer drug.
  78. 78.
    Regarding Consumer Protection Act, true is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Three-tier structure of consumer redressal mechanism
    The Consumer Protection Act establishes a three-tier quasi-judicial redressal mechanism (District, State, and National Commissions).
  79. 79.
    Flashback phenomenon is characteristic of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Lysergic acid diethylamide
    Flashbacks are a well-known long-term effect of LSD use.
  80. 80.
    The active principle of DATURA
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Atropine
    Datura contains tropane alkaloids, primarily atropine, hyoscyamine, and scopolamine.
  81. 81.
    Regarding Homeopathy Central Council Act 1973 true statement is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    The Homeopathy Central Council Act 1973 covers all these regulatory and promotional functions.
  82. 82.
    The most toxic part of Aconite
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Root
    The root of the Aconitum plant contains the highest concentration of aconitine.
  83. 83.
    Which of the following is not a cardiac glycoside?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Hyoscine
    Hyoscine is an anticholinergic alkaloid, not a cardiac glycoside.
  84. 84.
    Which of the following is an organic irritant poison?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Calotropis
    Calotropis is classified as an organic irritant poison.
  85. 85.
    The statutory limit for alcohol in the blood while driving in India
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    30 mg/dl
    Under the Motor Vehicles Act, the permissible limit for blood alcohol concentration is 30 mg/100 ml.
  86. 86.
    Substances used as War gases (i) Phosgene (ii) Lewisite (iii) Hydrocyanic acid
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above (i), (ii) and (iii)
    Phosgene, Lewisite, and Hydrocyanic acid are all historically classified as chemical warfare agents.
  87. 87.
    Which of the following is not true in carbon monoxide poisoning?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    The presence of soot in the air passages is a reliable indicator
    Soot in the air passages is an indicator of smoke inhalation, not specifically carbon monoxide poisoning itself.
  88. 88.
    Marsh test is used for the detection of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Arsenic
    The Marsh test is a highly sensitive method for the detection of arsenic.
  89. 89.
    All are clinical signs in chronic mercury poisoning except,
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Raindrop pigmentation
    Raindrop pigmentation is a characteristic sign of chronic arsenic poisoning, not mercury.
  90. 90.
    Basophilic stippling is seen in poisoning with
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Lead
    Basophilic stippling of red blood cells is a classic hematological finding in lead poisoning.
  91. 91.
    Which of the following is true in snake bite management?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Immobilize the bitten limb
    Pressure immobilization is the standard first-aid recommendation for snake bites to slow venom spread.
  92. 92.
    Xanthoproteic reaction is seen in poisoning with
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Nitric acid
    Nitric acid causes a yellow staining of the skin due to the xanthoproteic reaction with proteins.
  93. 93.
    Which one of the following is a spinal poison?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Nux Vomica
    Nux Vomica (strychnine) acts primarily on the spinal cord, causing convulsions.
  94. 94.
    Following are the medicolegal duties of a doctor in poisoning cases except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Issuing a death certificate
    In medicolegal cases, a doctor cannot issue a death certificate; the body must be referred for a postmortem examination.
  95. 95.
    Ewald's tube is used for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Decontamination
    Ewald's tube is a large-bore gastric tube used for gastric lavage (decontamination) in poisoning cases.
  96. 96.
    Poison that produces miosis
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Organophosphates
    Organophosphate poisoning causes cholinergic crisis, which includes pinpoint pupils (miosis).
  97. 97.
    Regarding opium use, which among the following is true? (i) Respiratory depression in opium poisoning (ii) Gas chromatography can detect opiates in urine (iii) Withdrawal reaction seen in abrupt stoppage of opium intake (iv) Pinpoint pupil is characteristic of opium poisoning
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
    All listed statements are correct features of opium poisoning and its clinical management.
  98. 98.
    In Cannabis use all are true except,
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Physical dependence is more common
    Cannabis is primarily associated with psychological dependence rather than strong physical dependence.
  99. 99.
    In poisoning with antipyretics all are true except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Activated charcoal is contraindicated in the management
    Activated charcoal is actually the standard treatment for antipyretic (e.g., paracetamol) overdose if administered early.
  100. 100.
    Toxic principle in Abrus precatorius
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Abrin
    Abrin is the highly toxic protein found in the seeds of Abrus precatorius.

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