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As published by the Kerala Public Service Commission.

All 100 questions with answers

Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer. Answers follow the official Kerala PSC answer key.

  1. 1.
    The Chilika Lake lies in the state of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Orissa
    Chilika Lake is a brackish water lagoon located in the state of Odisha (Orissa).
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  2. 2.
    The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Orissa
    The Tropic of Cancer passes through eight Indian states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram. It does not pass through Odisha.
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  3. 3.
    The Pastern most longitude of India is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    97°25’E
    The longitudinal extent of India is from 68°7'E to 97°25'E.
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  4. 4.
    Uttarakhand, Uttarpradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Skikkim have Common frontiers with
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Nepal
    These five Indian states share a common border with Nepal.
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  5. 5.
    The height of the mountain peak Nanda devi is _____________ metre.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    7817
    Nanda Devi is the second highest mountain in India with an elevation of 7817 meters.
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  6. 6.
    Which five year plan introduced IRDP and NREP ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    6th6^{th}
    The Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) and National Rural Employment Programme (NREP) were introduced during the 6th Five Year Plan.
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  7. 7.
    The book "Planned Economy for India" was written by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    M. Visveswaraya
    M. Visveswaraya wrote the book 'Planned Economy for India' in 1934.
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  8. 8.
    The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) was enacted in the year
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    1973
    FERA was enacted in 1973 to regulate foreign exchange in India.
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  9. 9.
    Who presented the first budget in Kerala Assembly ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    C. Achutha Menon
    C. Achutha Menon presented the first budget in the Kerala Legislative Assembly.
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  10. 10.
    Anamudi, the highest Peak in Kerala is in __________ Taluk.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Munnar
    Anamudi is located in the Munnar region of the Idukki district.
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  11. 11.
    Who wrote the book "Jathinirnayam" ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Sree Narayana Guru
    Jathinirnayam is a philosophical work written by Sree Narayana Guru.
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  12. 12.
    Who is the propagator of the idea, "Anandajati" ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Brahmananda Sivayogi
    Brahmananda Sivayogi propagated the concept of 'Anandajati'.
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  13. 13.
    Who translated the "Atmopadesa Sathakam" of Sree Narayana Guru to English language ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Nataraja Guru
    Nataraja Guru translated Sree Narayana Guru's 'Atmopadesa Sathakam' into English.
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  14. 14.
    c. Kesavan made the Kozhencherry speech in the year
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    1935
    C. Kesavan delivered the famous Kozhencherry speech in 1935.
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  15. 15.
    "Chithralekha" is written by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Pandit Karuppan
    Pandit Karuppan is the author of the work 'Chithralekha'.
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  16. 16.
    The cleanest city in India, by the Survey of 2018
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Indore
    Indore was ranked as the cleanest city in India in the Swachh Survekshan 2018.
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  17. 17.
    Who won the Orange Cap for leading run scorer of the IPL Tournament 2018 ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Kane Williamson
    Kane Williamson won the Orange Cap in the 2018 IPL season.
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  18. 18.
    Which bank was the first to introduce ATMs to the world ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Citi Bank
    Citibank was the first to introduce ATMs to the world in 1977.
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  19. 19.
    The 105th105^{th} Indian Science Congress was held in 2018 at
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Imphal
    The 105th Indian Science Congress was held in Imphal, Manipur in 2018.
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  20. 20.
    The winner of J. C. Danil Award 2017
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Sree Kumaran Thanpi
    Sreekumaran Thampi was the recipient of the J.C. Daniel Award for 2017.
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  21. 21.
    A nucleus remains stable as Z(proton number) increases when
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    no. of neutrons > no. of protons
    As the atomic number Z increases, the repulsive Coulomb force between protons increases, requiring a larger neutron-to-proton ratio for nuclear stability.
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  22. 22.
    In 90Sr-90Y^{90}\text{Sr-}^{90}\text{Y} beta ray applicator, the parent and daughter nuclei are in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Secular equilibrium
    Since the half-life of strontium-90 (~28.8 years) is much longer than that of yttrium-90 (~64 hours), they exist in secular equilibrium.
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  23. 23.
    Compton interaction depends up on
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Photon energy and electron density of the medium
    Compton scattering probability depends primarily on the photon energy and the electron density (electrons per unit mass) of the medium.
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  24. 24.
    In build up region for high energy photon beams
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Energy absorbed increases
    In the build-up region, secondary electrons are set in motion, causing the absorbed dose to increase with depth until it reaches maximum dose (dmax⁡d_{\max}).
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  25. 25.
    The calculation parameters which we used for the SSD set up treatments are
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    PDD and the dose rate in water at dmax⁡d_{\max}
    SSD (Source-Skin Distance) setups use Percentage Depth Dose (PDD) and the reference dose rate in water at dmax⁡d_{\max}.
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  26. 26.
    The unit of integral dose is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Joule
    Integral dose is the total energy absorbed by the patient or target volume, measured in Joules (or gram-rads).
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  27. 27.
    Radiation Field size is defined as the
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Lateral distance between 50% Isodose line at reference depth
    Radiation field size is clinically defined by the width of the beam profile at the 50% isodose line at a specified reference depth.
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  28. 28.
    Radiation weighting factor is same for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Photons and electrons
    Both photons and electrons have a radiation weighting factor (WRW_R) of 1 according to ICRP recommendations.
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  29. 29.
    Using TLD personal monitoring system we can detect
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Photons and electrons
    Thermoluminescent dosimeters (TLDs) are widely used for personnel monitoring to measure doses from photons and electrons (beta particles), while specific albedo TLDs are needed for neutrons.
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  30. 30.
    The filters used with Mega Voltage x-rays is for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Making the intensity uniform across the beam
    Flattening filters in megavoltage linear accelerators are primarily designed to make the photon beam intensity uniform across the field (flattening the beam).
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  31. 31.
    "Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm with involvement of spleen and extra lymphatic organ" in Ann Arbor staging classification for Hodgkins disease is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    III SE
    Stage III indicates lymph node involvement on both sides of the diaphragm. 'S' denotes spleen involvement, and 'E' denotes extralymphatic site involvement.
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  32. 32.
    The therapeutic ratio of a given regimen is the ratio of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Percentage tumor control with therapy/Percentage complication with therapy
    Therapeutic ratio is a comparison of the probability of tumor control to the probability of normal tissue complications.
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  33. 33.
    Beckwith Wiedemann Syndrome is associated with Wilm' stumor in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    5%
    Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome is a congenital overgrowth syndrome associated with an increased risk of embryonal tumors, notably Wilms tumor, in about 5% of cases.
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  34. 34.
    5 year survival rate of inflammatory breast cancer after multidisciplinary management
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    40%
    With modern multi-modality therapy (chemotherapy, surgery, and radiotherapy), the 5-year survival rate for inflammatory breast cancer is around 40%.
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  35. 35.
    All the following included in electromagnetic spectrum except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Beta rays
    Beta rays consist of high-speed electrons or positrons, which are particulate radiation, not electromagnetic radiation.
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  36. 36.
    Risk of relapse of stage I seminoma after high inguinal radical orchidectomy is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    20%
    Stage I seminoma has an approximate 15-20% risk of occult micrometastatic relapse following radical orchiectomy alone.
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  37. 37.
    What is the dose limit for whole body of a radiation worker ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    20 mSv/year
    According to AERB and ICRP guidelines, the effective dose limit for occupational radiation workers is averaged to 20 mSv per year.
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  38. 38.
    Which of the following gene(s) is/are associated with hereditary breast cancer ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    BRCA1, BRCA2, CHEK2, and PALB2 are all established susceptibility genes associated with hereditary breast cancer.
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  39. 39.
    Nobel prize for the discovery of cell cycle was received by all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Zetterberg
    Leland H. Hartwell, R. Timothy Hunt, and Paul M. Nurse were awarded the 2001 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for their discoveries concerning key regulators of the cell cycle.
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  40. 40.
    Gamma ray energy related to cobalt 60 radiosotope
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Cobalt-60 decay produces two principal gamma-ray photons of 1.17 MeV and 1.33 MeV, with an average effective energy of approximately 1.25 MeV.
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  41. 41.
    Which of the following statements regarding lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) is wrong ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    LCIS cells are commonly ER negative
    LCIS cells are typically strongly estrogen receptor (ER) and progesterone receptor (PR) positive, making statement A incorrect.
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  42. 42.
    Type of asbestosfibers with highest risk of malignant pleural mesothelioma
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Amphibole
    Amphibole asbestos fibers (such as crocidolite and amosite) carry a significantly higher risk of causing malignant pleural mesothelioma than chrysotile fibers.
    Report a mistake
  43. 43.
    Normal tissue tolerance dose of heart with conventional fractionation radiation treatment is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    No more than 1/3 of heart volume to receive 60 Gy
    According to standard QUANTEC data, normal tissue tolerance limits for the heart include no more than 1/3 of the heart volume receiving ≥60\ge 60 Gy to limit severe pericarditis risk.
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  44. 44.
    Most common origin for cardiac metastasis is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Lung
    Carcinoma of the lung is the most frequent malignancy to metastasize to the heart.
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  45. 45.
    The risk of breast cancer in a woman whose second degree relative has breast cancer is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    1.5%
    Having a second-degree relative with breast cancer slightly increases the lifetime risk, roughly around 1.5 times the baseline population risk.
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  46. 46.
    Bite block (intraoral device) is used in the radiation treatment of carcinoma tongue to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Bite blocks immobilize the tongue, displace healthy structures like the palate and buccal mucosa out of the high-dose region, and ensure reproducible positioning.
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  47. 47.
    Standard dose of definitive radiation therapy for esophageal cancer is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    50 to 50.4v Gy at conventional fractionation schedule
    The standard definitive radiation dose for esophageal cancer combined with concurrent chemotherapy is 50 to 50.4 Gy delivered in conventional fractions.
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  48. 48.
    Prophylactic cranial irradiation indicated in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Small cell lung carcinoma
    Prophylactic cranial irradiation (PCI) is standard practice in patients with small cell lung cancer (SCLC) who achieve a complete or partial response to initial therapy.
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  49. 49.
    Cranial nerve least affected in carcinoma nasopharynx is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    I
    Cranial nerve I (Olfactory nerve) is located anteriorly in the cribriform plate and is rarely affected by nasopharyngeal carcinoma compared to CN V, VI, IX, X, XI, and XII which exit near the skull base.
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  50. 50.
    Mechanism of chemotherapy induced radiation sensitivity of taxanes
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Taxanes act as radiosensitizers by arresting cells in the G2/M phase (which is the most radiosensitive phase of the cell cycle), inducing apoptosis, and potentially aiding reoxygenation.
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  51. 51.
    Which of the following normal tissue constraints is wrong ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Brain stem - Maximum < 45 Gy
    The brain stem tolerance limit is typically kept below 54-60 Gy to avoid radionecrosis, making maximum < 45 Gy an incorrect constraint.
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  52. 52.
    Cervicallymphadenopathy is present in upto _____________ % of patients with carcinoma nasopharynx.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    87
    Cervical lymphadenopathy is very common at presentation in nasopharyngeal carcinoma, seen in up to 85-90% of patients.
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  53. 53.
    Half-life of iodine -131 is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    8 Days
    The radioactive half-life of Iodine-131 is approximately 8.02 days.
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  54. 54.
    Which of the following is correct ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    None of the above
    Standard dose rate classifications define LDR as 0.4 to 2 Gy/hour, MDR as 2 to 12 Gy/hour (not minute), and HDR as >12> 12 Gy/hour (>1200>1200 cGy/hour or >20>20 cGy/minute). Thus, none of the options match standard brachytherapy definitions precisely.
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  55. 55.
    Median lethal dose of whole body radiation expressed as a single fraction is approximately
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    4 Gy
    The median lethal dose (LD50/60LD_{50/60}) for humans from acute whole-body irradiation without medical support is approximately 3.5 to 4.5 Gy.
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  56. 56.
    Which of the following regarding "hot spot" is correct (ICRU report 62) ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Volume outside PTV that receives dose>100% of specified PTV dose, 15mm diameter
    According to ICRU Report 62, a hot spot is an area outside the PTV receiving a dose exceeding 100% of the specified PTV dose, with a minimum dimension (diameter) of at least 15 mm.
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  57. 57.
    PDD (Percentage Death Dose) of gamma rays of Cobalt 60 at 10 cm depth is (SSD-80 cm)
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    55%
    For a Cobalt-60 beam at 80 cm SSD, the percentage depth dose (PDD) at 10 cm depth for a standard field size is approximately 55%.
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  58. 58.
    FDA approved antiangiogenic drug Regorafenib improves overall survival in chemo refractory metastatic colorectal cancer is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    1.4 months
    Regorafenib improves overall survival in refractory metastatic colorectal cancer by a modest median margin of approximately 1.4 months over placebo.
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  59. 59.
    Which of the following is not a Hallmark of cancer ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Sensitivity to anti-growth signals
    Evading anti-growth signals (insensitivity to anti-growth signals) is a hallmark of cancer, whereas sensitivity to anti-growth signals is a normal cellular property.
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  60. 60.
    Which is wrong regarding hyper fractonation ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Overall treatment time prolonged
    In hyperfractionation, the overall treatment time is typically kept similar to conventional fractionation while delivering a larger number of smaller doses twice daily.
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  61. 61.
    Van Nuys Prognostic Index for ductal carcinoma in (breast) considers following features except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Perivascular invasion
    The Van Nuys Prognostic Index (VNPI) for DCIS considers lesion size, margin width, pathologic classification (necrosis/grade), and patient age, but not perivascular invasion.
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  62. 62.
    Positive immunohistochemistry staining for calcitonin in medullary carcinoma thyroid has sensitivity range of ______________ in cytology specimen
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    55-60%
    Calcitonin immunohistochemistry in cytology specimens of medullary thyroid carcinoma shows a sensitivity of approximately 55-60% (or higher depending on antibodies, but traditionally cited around this range in specific comparative studies).
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  63. 63.
    For detecting Minimal residual disease following complete clinical remission in leukemia, which test technique helps in decreasing false positives
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Real time PCR
    Real-time quantitative PCR (RQ-PCR) provides high sensitivity and specificity while quantifying target templates, minimizing false positives compared to conventional qualitative PCR.
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  64. 64.
    Which chromosomal translocation in ALL have favorable prognosis ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    t(12;21) (p12;q22)
    The translocation t(12;21)(p13;q22) resulting in ETV6-RUNX1 is associated with a very favorable prognosis in childhood acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL).
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  65. 65.
    The following gene expression profiles in Diffuse Large B cell Lymphoma shows poor prognosis except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Bcl-1 expression
    Bcl-1 (CCND1) overexpression is characteristic of mantle cell lymphoma, not DLBCL, whereas Bcl-2, P53 mutations, and altered HLA-DR expression are associated with prognosis in DLBCL.
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  66. 66.
    True regarding flow cytometry in cancer diagnosis include
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Flow cytometry requires fresh single-cell suspensions, allows multiplexing (multiple markers simultaneously), and yields rapid diagnostic results.
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  67. 67.
    T4N2M1 (ipsilateral) carcinoma lung comes under which composite stage ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Stage IV
    Any M1 designation (distant metastasis, including ipsilateral malignant pleural effusion or contralateral nodule) automatically classifies lung cancer as Stage IV.
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  68. 68.
    As per NCCN guidelines 2018, FIGO stage IA of epithelial ovarian cancer patients in whom fertility needs to be preserved is treated by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Unilateral salpingo-oopherectomty with comprehensive staging
    For young patients with stage IA epithelial ovarian cancer desiring fertility preservation, unilateral salpingo-oophorectomy combined with comprehensive surgical staging is recommended.
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  69. 69.
    PET scan is considered "essential" in following initial tumor workup as per NCCN guidelines except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma-Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia
    PET/CT is standard for staging Hodgkin lymphoma and aggressive NHLs, but is not considered essential or standard for initial routine staging of Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL).
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  70. 70.
    FIGO staging workup for carcinoma cervix include
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    USG abdomen
    Historically and per classical FIGO guidelines, clinical staging allows basic investigations such as cystoscopy, proctoscopy, chest X-ray, IVP, and ultrasound/clinical exam (though modern practice incorporates cross-sectional imaging, USG is traditionally listed among basic workups in classic definitions).
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  71. 71.
    Indication/s of Radiotherapy in sigmoid or caecal primary carcinoma include all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    All T2-T3 diseases
    Routine T2-T3 colon cancers without high-risk features do not routinely require adjuvant radiotherapy; RT is reserved for positive margins, T4 lesions, or recurrent/fixed disease.
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  72. 72.
    Regarding results of German Trial in treatment of cancer Rectum, pre operative chemo radiotherapy showed following results compared to post operative chemo radiotherapy
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Decreased chronic toxicity rate
    The landmark German Rectal Cancer Study showed that preoperative chemoradiotherapy significantly reduced acute and chronic toxicities and improved local control compared to postoperative treatment.
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  73. 73.
    WPRT (Whole Prostate Radiotherapy) is indicated in all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Lymph node involvement as per radiological investigation
    If gross lymph node involvement is proven radiologically, targeted nodal irradiation or systemic therapy is indicated, but whole pelvic radiotherapy criteria typically rely on calculated risk scores (Roach formula >15%>15\%). (Note: Option A states node involvement as per radiology, which often prompts a boost or systemic therapy rather than standard elective WPRT alone).
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  74. 74.
    Total Low Dose Rate brachytherapy dose commonly used in carcinoma cervix treatment after external beam radiotherapy of 45Gy is __________Gy
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    40 Gy
    A typical classic LDR brachytherapy prescription to Point A is 30-40 Gy following 45 Gy of external beam radiation.
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  75. 75.
    A 15 year old boy with swelling tibial shaft complaints of local pain and fever. Histopathology shows small round cells. Most likely diagnoses is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Ewings sarcoma
    Ewing sarcoma typically presents in children and adolescents in the diaphysis of long bones (like the tibia), accompanied by pain, fever, and small round blue cell histology.
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  76. 76.
    A patient is receiving Cytarabine, Daunorubicin and Etoposide as part of induction therapy for Leukemia.ECG shows peaked T wave with ST depression. Child's heart rate is 70/minute (<20% from base line heart rate). Serum potassium of 7.4 m Eq/L. Clinical should initiate measures to manage
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Tumor Lyses Syndrome
    The clinical presentation of acute hyperkalemia (peaked T waves, potassium 7.4 mEq/L) in the setting of induction therapy for leukemia strongly points to Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS).
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  77. 77.
    In Breast Reconstruction Surgery after mastectomy, which of the following is not true regarding TRAM flap.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    It uses supra umbilical fat
    The TRAM (Transverse Rectus Abdominis Myocutaneous) flap predominantly uses infraumbilical abdominal wall fat and skin, making option D false.
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  78. 78.
    As per NSABP B-18 trial, _____ % of patients who had a planned mastectomy were able to undergo breast conservation therapy following neo adjuvant chemotherapy.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    9%
    The NSABP B-18 trial demonstrated that neoadjuvant chemotherapy enabled breast-conserving surgery in approximately 9% of patients who initially required mastectomy.
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  79. 79.
    The prescribed dose in Carcinoma Nasopharynx radiation planning is ______ to PTV of Clinical Target Volume (CTV) gross and ______ to PTV of CTV high risk subclinical disease.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    70 Gy, 59.4 Gy
    Standard definitive IMRT doses for nasopharyngeal carcinoma deliver 70 Gy to high-risk gross disease (CTV gross) and around 59.4 Gy to elective/subclinical nodal areas in conventional daily fractions.
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  80. 80.
    Radio Surgery for focally recurrent Glioblastoma Multiforme has resulted in median survival of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    8 to 10 months
    Stereotactic radiosurgery for recurrent glioblastoma yields a reported median survival ranging between 8 to 10 months.
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  81. 81.
    People friendly health care delivery system is the concept of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Mission Aardram
    Mission Aardram is a healthcare initiative by the Government of Kerala aimed at making government hospitals people-friendly.
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  82. 82.
    Historically the first chemotherapeutic drugs used in the clinical setting were
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Alkylating agents
    Nitrogen mustards (alkylating agents) were the first modern chemotherapeutic agents used clinically during World War II.
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  83. 83.
    Adverse effects of oral morphine includes all EXCEPT
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Respiratory depression
    While respiratory depression is a known physiological risk of opioids, in chronic oral administration for cancer pain, patients rapidly develop tolerance to respiratory depression, whereas constipation persists indefinitely.
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  84. 84.
    The vitamin used to reduce the severity of hand foot syndrome of 5-fluro uracil
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    B6
    Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6) is commonly used prophylactically or therapeutically to reduce the incidence and severity of hand-foot syndrome associated with 5-fluorouracil or capecitabine.
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  85. 85.
    NOT true about tamoxifen flare
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Occurs in approximately 30% of cases with metastatic disease
    Tumor flare with antiestrogens like tamoxifen occurs in a smaller percentage (around 5-10%) of patients with metastatic bone lesions, not 30%.
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  86. 86.
    A measure of central tendency
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Mode
    Mode is a standard measure of central tendency, whereas range and standard deviation are measures of dispersion.
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  87. 87.
    The dominant means of energy production in cancer cells
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Glycolysis
    Cancer cells predominantly rely on aerobic glycolysis for energy production, known as the Warburg effect.
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  88. 88.
    A radiotherapy emergency
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Spinal cord compression
    Malicious spinal cord compression is a classic oncologic/radiotherapy emergency requiring immediate evaluation and treatment to prevent permanent paralysis.
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  89. 89.
    The time interval between end of treatment and PET imaging after concurrent chemoradiation should be at least
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    10-12 weeks
    To minimize false-positive results due to post-treatment radiation-induced inflammation and granulation, PET-CT scans are generally recommended to be delayed by at least 10 to 12 weeks after completion of chemoradiation.
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  90. 90.
    For all the following analytical studies, the individual is the unit of analysis EXCEPT
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Ecological
    In ecological studies, the unit of analysis is the population or community, not individual study subjects.
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  91. 91.
    Prophylactic surgery can prevent cancer in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Both A) and B)
    Prophylactic colectomy prevents colon cancer in severe ulcerative colitis/FAP, and prophylactic thyroidectomy prevents medullary thyroid cancer in MEN syndromes.
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  92. 92.
    NOT true about mesna
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    The usual does is 80% of the daily mg ifosfamide dose
    The cumulative dose of mesna is typically 60% to 100% of the ifosfamide dose (often divided into multiple doses), but specific fixed percentages like exactly 80% of daily mg is not a rigid universal rule, though mesna dosing regimens vary. (Note: Mesna total dose is usually equal to or 60-100% of ifosfamide).
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  93. 93.
    All are elements of communicating bad news-the SPIKE approach EXCEPT
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Intimacy
    SPIKES stands for Setting, Perception, Invitation, Knowledge, Emotions/Empathy, and Strategy/Summary. 'Intimacy' is not a step in the SPIKES protocol.
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  94. 94.
    All are adverse effects of cisplatin EXCEPT
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Hypercalcemia
    Cisplatin causes nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, and peripheral neuropathy, but tends to cause electrolyte wasting (like hypomagnesemia and hypocalcemia), not hypercalcemia.
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  95. 95.
    The APL group will get the benefit of karunya benevolent fund if their annual income is below
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    Answer: B —
    3 lakhs
    Under the Karunya Benevolent Fund scheme in Kerala, APL families with an annual income below 3 lakhs are eligible for financial assistance.
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  96. 96.
    When a patient completes his/her age 18 years after commencement of treatment, further assistance under cancer suraksha scheme will be extended for a maximum period of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    None
    Assistance under pediatric/childhood cancer schemes like Cancer Suraksha typically terminates upon reaching adulthood (18 years), with specific guidelines governing extensions or lack thereof.
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  97. 97.
    About Nivolumab TRUE
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Programmed cell death 1 (PD-1) inhibitor
    Nivolumab is a fully human monoclonal antibody that targets the Programmed cell death 1 (PD-1) receptor.
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  98. 98.
    Alemtuzumab targets
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    CD 52 antigen
    Alemtuzumab is a monoclonal antibody directed against the CD52 antigen found on the surface of normal and malignant B and T lymphocytes.
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  99. 99.
    NOT true of phase III trails
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    A quality of life measure should be included to measure benefit to patients
    While quality of life is often evaluated, inclusion of QoL is not a mandatory defining endpoint requirement for every single Phase III trial design, though it is encouraged.
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  100. 100.
    Patient reported outcomes are important endpoint in oncology research because
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Cancer treatments often have significant toxicity
    Patient-reported outcomes (PROs) capture the patient's perspective on symptom burden and treatment toxicities, which are substantial in oncology.
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