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All 100 questions with answers

Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer. Answers follow the official Kerala PSC answer key.

  1. 1.
    Which of the following countries or continents was not a part of ancient landmass of Gondwana land?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Europe
    Europe was part of the northern supercontinent Laurasia, not Gondwana.
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  2. 2.
    Which of the following types of soils have a marked capacity to retain water?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Regur soil
    Regur soil (Black cotton soil) has a high clay content, giving it a high water-retention capacity.
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  3. 3.
    Which of the following lies on the left bank of the Ganga?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Varanasi
    Varanasi is situated on the left bank of the river Ganga.
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  4. 4.
    Which of the coldest place in India?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Dras
    Dras, located in Ladakh, is known as the coldest inhabited place in India.
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  5. 5.
    Which of the following states suffer from "loo"?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Uttar Pradesh
    Loo is a strong, hot, and dry summer wind from the west which blows over the western Indo-Gangetic Plain region of North India and Pakistan.
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  6. 6.
    The famous Diwara Temples are situated in _____________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Rajasthan
    The Dilwara Temples are located in Mount Abu, Rajasthan.
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  7. 7.
    Planning Commission was constituted on ____________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    15 March 1950
    The Planning Commission was established on 15 March 1950.
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  8. 8.
    Who established Anusheelan Samiti?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All the above
    Anusheelan Samiti was founded by multiple individuals including Barindra Kumar Ghosh, Jatindranath Banerjee, and Pramod Mitter.
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  9. 9.
    The famous Thusharagiri waterfall is formed by which river?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Chalippuzha
    Thusharagiri waterfall is formed by the Chalippuzha river in Kerala.
    Report a mistake
  10. 10.
    Our atmosphere has the largest concentration of which gas?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Nitrogen
    Nitrogen makes up approximately 78% of the Earth's atmosphere.
    Report a mistake
  11. 11.
    Jathikummi, which criticised the prevailing caste system was written by ___________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Pandit Karuppan
    Jathikummi was a famous social critique poem written by Pandit Karuppan.
    Report a mistake
  12. 12.
    The first systematically organized agitation in Kerala against orthodoxy to secure the rights of the depressed classes
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Vaikom Satyagraha
    Vaikom Satyagraha was the first systematically organized agitation against untouchability and temple entry restrictions.
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  13. 13.
    'Vayalvaram Veedu' is related to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Sree Narayana Guru
    Vayalvaram Veedu is the birthplace of Sree Narayana Guru.
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  14. 14.
    What was the original name of Thycaud Ayya?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Subbarayan
    Subbarayan was the original name of social reformer Thycaud Ayya.
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  15. 15.
    In which year Kurikose Elias Chavara died?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    1871
    Saint Kuriakose Elias Chavara passed away on January 3, 1871.
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  16. 16.
    Which country won the Copa America tournament for 2015 to win this prestigious South American football title for the first time?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Chile
    Chile won the 2015 Copa America defeating Argentina.
    Report a mistake
  17. 17.
    During 2015 which Indian city was recently chosen as "City of Music" by UNESCO under the Creative Cities Network?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Varanasi
    Varanasi was designated as a UNESCO Creative City of Music in 2015.
    Report a mistake
  18. 18.
    According to the 2011 census, which state had recorded the largest proportion of scheduled tribe (ST) population?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Mizoram
    Mizoram recorded the highest percentage of ST population relative to its total population in the 2011 Census.
    Report a mistake
  19. 19.
    Which is the first golden jubilee film of India?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Sant Tukaram
    Sant Tukaram (1936) was India's first film to achieve golden jubilee status.
    Report a mistake
  20. 20.
    President Pranab Mukherjee inaugurated the 77th session of the India History Congress in which state?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Kerala
    The 77th session of the Indian History Congress was inaugurated in Kerala (at University of Kerala, Thiruvananthapuram).
    Report a mistake
  21. 21.
    In the palm the septae dorsal to the digital nerves and vessels are known as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Cleland's ligaments
    Cleland's ligaments are cutaneous ligaments of the digits.
    Report a mistake
  22. 22.
    What represents the position of anterior neuropore in an adult?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Lamina terminalis of 3rd ventricle
    The lamina terminalis marks the site of the embryonic anterior neuropore.
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  23. 23.
    All are true about D/G translocation of chromosomes except one
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Accounts for 1-4% cases of Down's syndrome
    D/G translocations account for a small percentage of Down syndrome cases, but statement A is false because not all cases are due to this (most are trisomy 21). Wait, per official key, option C is the correct answer to the 'except' question.
    Report a mistake
  24. 24.
    Name the nerve that is injured if medial epicondyle of humerus is fractured
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Ulnar nerve
    The ulnar nerve passes directly behind the medial epicondyle and is vulnerable in fractures.
    Report a mistake
  25. 25.
    Normal serum bilirubin level
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    0.2 to 0.8 mg%
    Normal total serum bilirubin ranges approximately from 0.2 to 0.8-1.0 mg/dL.
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  26. 26.
    Immunoglobulin crossing the blood brain barrier
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    IgG
    IgG is the primary immunoglobulin that can cross the blood-brain barrier and placental barrier.
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  27. 27.
    Most important urinary buffer system
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Phosphate
    Titratable acidity is largely due to the phosphate buffer system in urine.
    Report a mistake
  28. 28.
    Which of the following is a negative acute phase protein?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Albumin
    Albumin and transferrin are well-known negative acute-phase reactants.
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  29. 29.
    The Renal threshold for Glucose in venous plasma is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    180 mg/dl
    The renal threshold for glucose is approximately 180 mg/dL.
    Report a mistake
  30. 30.
    Location of Pneumotaxic Centre is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Pons
    The pneumotaxic center is located in the upper pons.
    Report a mistake
  31. 31.
    Chvostek's sign is seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Hypocalcemic tetany
    Chvostek's sign is a clinical sign of hypocalcemia (tetany).
    Report a mistake
  32. 32.
    Functional Residual Capacity in normal young adult male is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    2400 ml
    Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) is approximately 2300-2400 ml.
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  33. 33.
    An Assistant Sessions Court can pass ____________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    A sentence of imprisonment upto ten years and unlimited fine
    An Assistant Sessions Judge can pass any sentence except death, life imprisonment, or imprisonment for a term exceeding 10 years.
    Report a mistake
  34. 34.
    The most reliable criteria for age estimation of an adult by Gustafson's method is the degree of ____________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Root transparency
    Root transparency is considered the single most reliable parameter in Gustafson's method of age estimation.
    Report a mistake
  35. 35.
    According to the Motor Vehicle's Act the maximum permissible blood alcohol concentration while driving or attempting to drive a motor vehicle in India is __________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    30 mg%
    Under Section 185 of the Motor Vehicles Act, the permissible limit is 30 mg of alcohol per 100 ml of blood.
    Report a mistake
  36. 36.
    Which section of IPC deals with Grievous Hurt?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Section 320 IPC
    Section 320 of the Indian Penal Code defines grievous hurt.
    Report a mistake
  37. 37.
    Which of the following fungus infects the reticuloendothelial system?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Histoplasmacapsulatum
    Histoplasma capsulatum is a dimorphic fungus that typically infects the reticuloendothelial system.
    Report a mistake
  38. 38.
    Which of the following is a diploid cell line?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Wl-38
    WI-38 is a diploid human fibroblast cell line.
    Report a mistake
  39. 39.
    Resistance transfer factor can be transferred from one bacterium to another by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Conjugation
    R-factors (plasmids) are commonly transferred via bacterial conjugation.
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  40. 40.
    Which is the antibiotic of choice in Legionella infection?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Erythromycin
    Macrolides like erythromycin or fluoroquinolones are drugs of choice for Legionella.
    Report a mistake
  41. 41.
    Granuloma seen in all conditions except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Amoebiasis
    Amoebiasis causes necrosis and abscesses, not granulomas.
    Report a mistake
  42. 42.
    Most useful special stain used for demonstration of amyloid is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Congo red
    Congo red stain gives apple-green birefringence under polarized light for amyloid.
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  43. 43.
    Genetic aberration responsible for acute promyelocytic leukemia `<AML-M_3>`
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    t : (15 : 17)
    Acute promyelocytic leukemia is characterized by the translocation t(15;17)t(15;17).
    Report a mistake
  44. 44.
    Schiller-Duval body seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Yolk sac tumour
    Schiller-Duval bodies are pathognomonic of yolk sac tumors (endodermal sinus tumors).
    Report a mistake
  45. 45.
    Which of the following fibrinolytics is approved for use in ischaemic stroke?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Alteplase
    IV Alteplase is FDA-approved for acute ischemic stroke within the therapeutic window.
    Report a mistake
  46. 46.
    Which of the following is not true regarding flumazenil?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Antagonism of benzodiazepine induced respiratory depression is predictable
    Reversal of respiratory depression by flumazenil is unpredictable and unreliable.
    Report a mistake
  47. 47.
    The preferred drug used to treat pseudo membranous colitis is?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Metronidazole
    Oral metronidazole or oral vancomycin are used, with metronidazole traditionally being first-line for mild-to-moderate cases.
    Report a mistake
  48. 48.
    Which of the following vitamins decreases the therapeutic effect of levodopa?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Pyridoxine
    Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6) enhances peripheral decarboxylation of levodopa, reducing its brain penetration.
    Report a mistake
  49. 49.
    The level of prevention by screening of cancer cervix by visual inspection of acetic acid is ____________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Secondary prevention
    Screening for early detection is secondary prevention.
    Report a mistake
  50. 50.
    The following one is NOT a malaria measurement
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Average infestation rate
    Average infestation rate is not a standard malariometric index.
    Report a mistake
  51. 51.
    Which of the following disease is included in "Water related" disease?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Malaria
    Malaria is a vector-borne disease related to water habitats of mosquitoes (water-related insect vector disease).
    Report a mistake
  52. 52.
    Orthotolidine test is used for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Test chlorine in water
    Orthotolidine test is used to estimate free and combined chlorine in water.
    Report a mistake
  53. 53.
    Mechanism of action of Excimer Laser in cornea is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Photoablation
    Excimer laser uses photoablation (ultraviolet radiation breaking molecular bonds directly) in procedures like LASIK.
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  54. 54.
    Complicated cataract has all of the following features, Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Pseudoexfoliation
    Pseudoexfoliation is a distinct syndrome, not a feature of complicated cataract.
    Report a mistake
  55. 55.
    Pigment epithelium of iris develops from
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Neural ectoderm
    The pigment epithelium of the iris develops from the optic cup, which is neural ectoderm origin.
    Report a mistake
  56. 56.
    Pin point pupil is seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Organophosphorus compound poisoning
    Pinpoint pupils (miosis) are characteristic of organophosphate and opioid toxicity.
    Report a mistake
  57. 57.
    Thumb sign in X-ray neck lateral view is seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Acute epiglottitis
    Swollen epiglottis resembles a thumb on lateral neck radiographs in acute epiglottitis.
    Report a mistake
  58. 58.
    Schwartz operation is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Cortical mastoidectomy
    Schwartz operation refers to a simple or cortical mastoidectomy.
    Report a mistake
  59. 59.
    Stapedius muscle is supplied by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Facial nerve
    The stapedius muscle is innervated by a branch of the facial nerve.
    Report a mistake
  60. 60.
    Chance of lymphatic metastasis is least in carcinoma of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Glottis
    The glottis has a sparse lymphatic supply, making lymphatic metastasis least likely in glottic laryngeal cancer.
    Report a mistake
  61. 61.
    Idiopathic interstitial pneumonia include all Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Sarcoidosis
    Sarcoidosis is a granulomatous disease of known or unknown etiology, classified separately from idiopathic interstitial pneumonias.
    Report a mistake
  62. 62.
    Square root sign in cardiac catheterization is seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Constrictive pericarditis
    The 'dip-and-plateau' or square root sign is characteristic of constrictive pericarditis.
    Report a mistake
  63. 63.
    The mechanisms of Left ventricular dysfunction in Core pulmonale are all Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Bernheim effect
    Bernheim effect relates to rightward septal shift affecting left ventricular filling in RV hypertrophy/dilation, but option A was designated as the answer in the official key.
    Report a mistake
  64. 64.
    All are true about ARDS Berlin definition Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Severe ARDS is defined by Pao2/Fio2 ratio of <150 mm of Hg with PEEP >5 cm
    Severe ARDS is defined by a PaO2/FiO2PaO_2/FiO_2 ratio ≤100\le 100 mmHg with PEEP ≥5\ge 5 cm H2OH_2O.
    Report a mistake
  65. 65.
    Loosening of association is a disorder of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Thought
    Loosening of associations is a formal thought disorder.
    Report a mistake
  66. 66.
    All of the following are catatonic symptoms except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Flight of ideas
    Flight of ideas is a disorder of thought stream, seen in mania, not a catatonic sign.
    Report a mistake
  67. 67.
    A 30 years old, unmarried man working in a battery industry was brought to the emergency department with complaints of irritability, reduced sleep, excessive yawning, lacrimation and rhinorrhea. On examination, both pupils appear dilated but reactive. The most probable diagnosis is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Opioid withdrawal state
    Yawning, lacrimation, rhinorrhea, mydriasis, and irritability are classic signs of opioid withdrawal.
    Report a mistake
  68. 68.
    Rabbit syndrome can occur in patients with
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Antipsychotic drug treatment
    Rabbit syndrome is an extrapyramidal side effect of long-term neuroleptic (antipsychotic) treatment.
    Report a mistake
  69. 69.
    The drug of choice for the treatment of Eclampsia is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Magnesium Sulphate
    Magnesium sulfate is the standard drug of choice for preventing and treating eclamptic seizures.
    Report a mistake
  70. 70.
    What is the amount of drug released from LNG IUCD per day?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    20 Microgram
    Mirena (LNG-IUS) releases 20 micrograms of levonorgestrel per day initially.
    Report a mistake
  71. 71.
    Rate of involution of uterus after delivery
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    1 cm/day
    The uterus involutes at a rate of approximately 1 cm per day postpartum.
    Report a mistake
  72. 72.
    The daily requirement of Vit. B12 in Pregnancy is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    2.2 Microgram
    Recommended daily intake of vitamin B12 during pregnancy is around 2.2-2.6 micrograms.
    Report a mistake
  73. 73.
    The most relevant epidemiological measure of the burden of Leprosy is the
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Incidence of disease
    Wait, official answer is option A (Incidence of disease), though prevalence is also commonly cited; key says A.
    Report a mistake
  74. 74.
    "Iris Pearls" seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Hansen's disease
    Iris pearls (lepromas of the iris) can be seen in ocular leprosy (Hansen's disease).
    Report a mistake
  75. 75.
    Localization of immunoreactants IgG and `C3C_3` in immunofluorescence microscopy studies of 1 M NaCl salt-split skin favours the diagnosis of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Bullous Pemphigoid
    This question was cancelled.
    Report a mistake
  76. 76.
    Cyclosporine is isolated from
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Tolypocladium inflatum
    Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant produced by the fungus Tolypocladium inflatum.
    Report a mistake
  77. 77.
    Triple assessment of breast consists of the following evaluation except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Magnetic resonance imaging
    Triple assessment includes clinical examination, imaging (mammography/ultrasound), and pathology (FNAC/core biopsy). MRI is not part of the standard triple assessment.
    Report a mistake
  78. 78.
    Which of the following urinary calculus is radiolucent?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Uric acid
    Uric acid and xanthine stones are radiolucent on plain X-rays.
    Report a mistake
  79. 79.
    Paradoxial respiration is seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Flail chest
    Flail chest causes paradoxical inward movement of the chest wall during inspiration.
    Report a mistake
  80. 80.
    Most common site of peripheral arterial aneurism is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Popliteal
    The popliteal artery is the most common site for peripheral arterial aneurysms.
    Report a mistake
  81. 81.
    Which of the following is most rapidly expanding benign tumour?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Aneurysmal bone cyst
    Aneurysmal bone cysts (ABC) are locally aggressive, rapidly expanding benign bone lesions.
    Report a mistake
  82. 82.
    Illaramindi procedure of treatment is used for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Lunato malacia
    Illaramindi procedure is used for Kienböck's disease (lunate malacia).
    Report a mistake
  83. 83.
    Which of the following is not related to Perthe's disease?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Gibson classification
    Gibson classification is not associated with Perthes disease (Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease).
    Report a mistake
  84. 84.
    Induced membrane technique for the treatment of fracture gap non union is known as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Masquelet's technique
    Masquelet technique involves induced membrane formation for bone defect reconstruction.
    Report a mistake
  85. 85.
    According to Guidelines for Disability Assessment to quantify permanent physical impairment the dualility percentage for Syme's amputation is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    50%
    Syme's amputation is typically assessed around 50% permanent physical impairment of the lower limb.
    Report a mistake
  86. 86.
    Horner's syndrome is seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    `C8T1C_8 T_1` root lesion
    Klumpke's paralysis (C8−T1C_8-T_1 injury) can disrupt sympathetic fibers leading to Horner's syndrome.
    Report a mistake
  87. 87.
    Principle of Reverse Peizo electric effect is used in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Ultrasound
    Ultrasound therapy transducers use the reverse piezoelectric effect to convert electrical energy into mechanical sound waves.
    Report a mistake
  88. 88.
    'Saturday Night Palsy' is seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Radial Nerve Palsy
    Saturday night palsy results from compression of the radial nerve against the humerus.
    Report a mistake
  89. 89.
    All of the following are aromatase inhibitors used in the hormonal treatment of carcinoma breast, except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Tamoxifen
    Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), not an aromatase inhibitor.
    Report a mistake
  90. 90.
    Prophylactic cranial irradiation is considered in which of the following histology of carcinoma lung
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Small cell carcinoma
    Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) has a high propensity for brain metastases, hence prophylactic cranial irradiation (PCI) is used.
    Report a mistake
  91. 91.
    TTF-1 is the tumour marker used for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Carcinoma thyroid
    Question cancelled.
    Report a mistake
  92. 92.
    Most commonly used radioactive source in teletherapy unit is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Cobalt-60
    Cobalt-60 is widely used as a gamma-ray source in teletherapy units.
    Report a mistake
  93. 93.
    High quality chest compression in BLS include all the following except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Depth of compression more than 2.5 inches
    Recommended adult compression depth is at least 2 inches (5 cm) but not greater than 2.4 inches (6 cm).
    Report a mistake
  94. 94.
    Inhalational anaesthetic agent used in day care surgery is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Sevoflurane
    Sevoflurane has low blood-gas solubility, providing rapid induction and recovery suitable for day-care anesthesia.
    Report a mistake
  95. 95.
    Which is not an adverse effect of oral morphine for cancer pain?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Addiction
    True psychological addiction (addiction/substance use disorder) is extremely rare when opioids are properly used for cancer pain management.
    Report a mistake
  96. 96.
    Intravenous anaesthetic agent preferred in cardiac surgery
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Dtomidate
    Etomidate provides excellent hemodynamic stability, making it preferred in cardiac anesthesia.
    Report a mistake
  97. 97.
    The most common complication of mumps in childhood is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Meningoencephalitis
    Aseptic meningitis/meningoencephalitis is the most common CNS and overall common systemic complication of mumps in children.
    Report a mistake
  98. 98.
    All of the following statements regarding cyclic vomiting are true except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    It is associated with nystagmus
    Cyclic vomiting syndrome is not characteristically associated with nystagmus.
    Report a mistake
  99. 99.
    Pulmonary stenosis is associated with all of the following except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Rheumatic fever
    Rheumatic fever typically causes mitral and aortic valve disease, rarely pulmonary stenosis (which is usually congenital).
    Report a mistake
  100. 100.
    Manifestations of Chlamydia trachomatis pneumonia include all of the following except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Fever
    Chlamydia trachomatis pneumonia in infants typically presents with staccato cough and tachypnea, usually *afebrile*.
    Report a mistake

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