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100 questions with answersProvisional keyKerala PSC Exam

Veterinary Surgeon Grade II (NCA- ST) - Animal Husbandry question paper 2023

Date of test
07-06-2023
Question paper code
71/2023/OL
Questions
100
Answer key
Provisional Answer Key
Exam mode
Online (computer based)

Provisional key. Kerala PSC can change answers after reviewing complaints; the final key decides the marks.

See questions with answersPractise as a mock test

Source: Kerala PSC (keralapsc.gov.in) · official document· Last updated 25 Sept 2026· How we check content

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As published by the Kerala Public Service Commission.

All 100 questions with answers

Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer. Answers follow the official Kerala PSC answer key.

  1. 1.
    Consider the following statements: (i) The total body water content in lean animals is lower than fat animals (ii) The water content is higher in young animals than adult animals (iii) The fat has lower water content
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    (ii) and (iii) are correct
    Body water content is higher in lean animals and young animals, while fat has low water content.
    Report a mistake
  2. 2.
    Cardiac output in animals is measured by (i) Indicator dilution technique (ii) Echocardiography (iii) Electromagnetic flowmeter (iv) Fick principle
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
    All listed methods are used to measure cardiac output in animals.
    Report a mistake
  3. 3.
    The oxygen affinity of hemoglobin in the fetal blood is higher than that of the adult except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Cat
    Cat fetus does not show higher oxygen affinity of hemoglobin compared to the adult.
    Report a mistake
  4. 4.
    Before the first estrous cycle, bovine mammary gland begin to grow at faster rate than whole body growth is called as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Allometric growth
    Growth at a faster rate than the whole body is known as allometric growth.
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  5. 5.
    The number of sternal and asternal ribs in ruminant are
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    8 and 5 respectively
    Ruminants typically have 8 sternal and 5 asternal ribs.
    Report a mistake
  6. 6.
    The vocal organ in birds is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Syrinx
    Syrinx is the vocal organ of birds.
    Report a mistake
  7. 7.
    The smallest cranial nerve in the body is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Trochlear nerve
    Trochlear nerve (Cranial Nerve IV) is the smallest cranial nerve.
    Report a mistake
  8. 8.
    Which one of the following statement is incorrect with respect to Lactic acidosis?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    L-lactic acid can not be metabolized by the liver and contributes for the acid load
    L-lactic acid can be readily metabolized by the liver, whereas D-lactic acid is poorly metabolized.
    Report a mistake
  9. 9.
    Multiple defects in the absorption of glucose, amino acid, calcium, phosphate, sodium, potassium and water by renal tubule are noticed in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Fanconi like syndrome
    Fanconi-like syndrome involves generalized proximal renal tubular dysfunction.
    Report a mistake
  10. 10.
    Ketosis occurs when cattle have been fed with spoiled silage which contains excessive amount of butyric acid is called
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Alimentary ketosis
    Alimentary ketosis is typically caused by feeding butyric acid-rich spoiled silage.
    Report a mistake
  11. 11.
    Scientific name of fodder Berseem is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Trifolium alexandrinum
    Trifolium alexandrinum is the scientific name for Berseem clover.
    Report a mistake
  12. 12.
    Choose one which is different from other (odd one out)
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Ongole
    Ongole is distinct among the given options based on breed characteristics and origin context.
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  13. 13.
    Act of matting in ewe is known as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Tupping
    Mating in sheep/ewes is termed tupping.
    Report a mistake
  14. 14.
    Which breed of swine is used to produce highest quality bacon in the World?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Landrace
    Landrace is renowned for producing high-quality bacon.
    Report a mistake
  15. 15.
    Formation of shell, shell pigment and cuticles in egg, takes place in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Uterus
    The uterus (shell gland) is where egg shell, pigment, and cuticle formation occur.
    Report a mistake
  16. 16.
    Removal of wool around perineal region and base of tail in sheep in known as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Crutching
    Crutching is the process of shearing wool from around the tail and perineal area.
    Report a mistake
  17. 17.
    Site for recording pulse in horse is -
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    External maxillary artery
    The external maxillary (facial) artery is the standard site to record pulse in horses.
    Report a mistake
  18. 18.
    In poultry farms, to avoid heat stress during summer 1. Provide fresh and plenty of water with electrolytes. 2. Provide thatched roof in housing. 3. Provide high energy feed.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    1 and 2 are correct
    Providing water with electrolytes and thatched roofing helps reduce heat stress, whereas high energy feed increases metabolic heat production.
    Report a mistake
  19. 19.
    The male ass is known as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Jack
    A male ass is called a jack.
    Report a mistake
  20. 20.
    Chinchilla Gigantica is breed of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Rabbit
    Chinchilla Gigantica is a rabbit breed.
    Report a mistake
  21. 21.
    The basic concept of extension which referred sometimes as "KASA" does not involve
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Aptitude
    KASA stands for Knowledge, Attitude, Skills, and Aspirations/Action; aptitude is not part of it.
    Report a mistake
  22. 22.
    Father of university extension is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    James Stuart
    James Stuart is considered the father of university extension.
    Report a mistake
  23. 23.
    COFAL test is used for diagnosis of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Avian leucosis complex
    Complement Fixation for Avian Leukosis (COFAL) test diagnoses avian leucosis complex.
    Report a mistake
  24. 24.
    Which is not the mass contact extension teaching method?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Work shops
    Workshops are participatory/group methods, not mass contact methods.
    Report a mistake
  25. 25.
    Faecal sample suspected for Coccidia should be preserved in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Both (1) and (2)
    Potassium dichromate or formalin can be used for preserving coccidian oocysts.
    Report a mistake
  26. 26.
    Statements: (1) Wools of below 24.5 micron fiber diameter are known as fine/apparel wool. (2) Wools of 25-32 micron fiber diameter are classified as coarse wool which is generally used for felts and durries etc. (3) Wools of fiber diameter more than 35 micron are known as carpet wool.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Only (1) is correct
    Only statement 1 is accurate regarding fine wool classification.
    Report a mistake
  27. 27.
    Hissardale breed of sheep is a cross of -
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Australian merino (ram) and Bikaneri (magra) ewes
    Hissardale was developed by crossing Australian Merino rams with Bikaneri ewes.
    Report a mistake
  28. 28.
    Fishy odour in milk is due to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Kephalin
    Kephalin breakdown contributes to fishy off-flavour in milk.
    Report a mistake
  29. 29.
    Statements: (1) Milk is excellent source of calcium and phosphorus. (2) Linolenic acid and arachidonic acid found in milk. (3) Milk is deficient in vitamin C. (4) Milk protein has a biological value of 90%.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All are correct
    All listed statements about milk composition and nutritional value are true.
    Report a mistake
  30. 30.
    Lard is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Pork fat
    Lard is rendered pig fat.
    Report a mistake
  31. 31.
    A calf with colic, mud coloured evil smelling feces, emaciation and later death can be suspected for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Toxocara vitulorum
    Toxocara vitulorum infection in calves presents with digestive disturbances and unthriftiness.
    Report a mistake
  32. 32.
    A cow with foul smelling watery diarrhoea, submandibular oedema, polydipsia, listlessness and weight loss can be diagnosed for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Immature amphistomosis
    Immature amphistomosis causes severe enteritis, profuse diarrhea, and submandibular edema.
    Report a mistake
  33. 33.
    Drug of choice for Echinococcus granulosus in dogs is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Praziquantel
    Praziquantel is highly effective against tapeworms like Echinococcus granulosus.
    Report a mistake
  34. 34.
    Mechanism of activity of amitraz is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Alpha-adrenergic agonist activity
    Amitraz acts as an alpha-adrenergic agonist in the nervous system of ectoparasites.
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  35. 35.
    Toxovaxan vaccine against Toxoplasma gondii infection is available for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Sheep
    Toxovax is used in sheep to prevent toxoplasmosis-induced abortion.
    Report a mistake
  36. 36.
    A dog presented with heavy breathing, wobbly legs, heavy salivation, vomiting, coughing and collapse can be suspected for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Tick paralysis
    Tick paralysis causes ascending motor paralysis, respiratory distress, and collapse.
    Report a mistake
  37. 37.
    Mosquito transmitting bird malaria is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Culex
    Culex mosquitoes are vectors for avian malaria (Plasmodium spp.).
    Report a mistake
  38. 38.
    The two major micronutrients required for bacterial growth are
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Microsporum and Tricuphyton
    Note: The question text repeats option text contextually; option C corresponds to the designated key.
    Report a mistake
  39. 39.
    The two major micronutrients required for bacterial growth are
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Nitrogen and Carbon
    Carbon and Nitrogen are primary macronutrients/nutrients for bacterial growth.
    Report a mistake
  40. 40.
    Sangers nucleotide sequencing method works on the principle of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Dideosy chain termination
    Sanger sequencing relies on dideoxy chain termination.
    Report a mistake
  41. 41.
    The following population of cells down regulates immune responses against self antigen
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    T regulatory cells
    Regulatory T cells maintain immunological tolerance and downregulate self-reactive immune responses.
    Report a mistake
  42. 42.
    The following class of immunoglobulins are produced in response to infectious agents affecting mucosal surface
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Ig A
    Secretory IgA is the primary antibody protecting mucosal surfaces.
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  43. 43.
    The etiological agent of the first animal/livestock disease to be eradicated belongs to family
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Paramyxoviridae
    Rinderpest virus (family Paramyxoviridae) was the first animal disease eradicated globally.
    Report a mistake
  44. 44.
    The RNA viruses with at least one step of replication occurring within the nucleus of the infected cell
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All the above
    Borna disease virus, Influenza virus, and Retroviruses involve nuclear replication steps.
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  45. 45.
    The powerful inhibitor of platelet aggregation is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Prostacyclin
    Prostacyclin (PGI2PGI_2) synthesized by vascular endothelial cells is a potent inhibitor of platelet aggregation.
    Report a mistake
  46. 46.
    Inter follicular infiltration of tumor cells in bursa is seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    M.D.
    Marek's Disease (MD) exhibits characteristic interfollicular infiltration.
    Report a mistake
  47. 47.
    Very soft and friable tumors are described as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Encephaloid tumors
    Encephaloid (medullary) tumors are soft, fleshy, and brain-like in consistency.
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  48. 48.
    Incoarctation of aorta, there will be hypertrophy of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Left ventricle
    Coarctation/incoarctation of the aorta increases afterload, leading to left ventricular hypertrophy.
    Report a mistake
  49. 49.
    Roaring in horses is caused by paralysis of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
    Equine laryngeal hemiplegia ('roaring') results from paralysis of the left recurrent laryngeal nerve.
    Report a mistake
  50. 50.
    A condition characterized by lack of segmentation of nuclei of mature granulocytes
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Pelger-Huet anomaly
    Pelger-Huet anomaly is a benign inherited defect featuring hyposegmentation of granulocyte nuclei.
    Report a mistake
  51. 51.
    Meat food products are governed by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Meat food product order, 1973
    Meat Food Products Order (MFPO) was promulgated in 1973.
    Report a mistake
  52. 52.
    Capons means
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Castrated male birds, usually larger than broiler, with live weight 3 kg and upwards
    Capons are castrated male chickens grown to larger sizes.
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  53. 53.
    Pluck means in pig, sheep and calf consists of following organ
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Larynx, Trachea, Lungs, Heart, Liver
    The 'pluck' comprises the trachea, lungs, heart, and sometimes larynx/associated structures.
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  54. 54.
    Conventional separators used in cream during separation process involves the following Temperature
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    35-45°C
    Conventional milk separation is typically performed at 35-45°C.
    Report a mistake
  55. 55.
    Shunk like flavor in butter is caused by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Pseudomonas mephitica
    Pseudomonas mephitica causes a putrid or skunk-like odor in butter.
    Report a mistake
  56. 56.
    HACCP concepts was developed by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    H.E. Bauman
    H.E. Bauman and colleagues at the Pillsbury Company developed HACCP.
    Report a mistake
  57. 57.
    In India, Food Safety and Standards Act (FSSA) was established in the year
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    2006
    The Food Safety and Standards Act was enacted in 2006.
    Report a mistake
  58. 58.
    Establishment of standards, guidelines and recommendations pertaining to animal health are the activities of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    WOAH
    WOAH (World Organisation for Animal Health, formerly OIE) sets international standards for animal health.
    Report a mistake
  59. 59.
    The most commonly used test for rabies diagnosis in animals is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Direct Fluorescent Anti body test
    The Direct Fluorescent Antibody (DFA) test is the gold standard and most commonly used diagnostic test for rabies.
    Report a mistake
  60. 60.
    A type of epidemiological investigations where a group of individual animals are observed to determine frequency of a particular outcome/character
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Cohort
    Cohort studies follow groups of individuals over time to assess outcomes.
    Report a mistake
  61. 61.
    The dry matter requirement for cattle per 100 kg body weight is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    2.0 - 2.5 kg
    Standard dry matter requirement for cattle is roughly 2.0 to 2.5 kg per 100 kg body weight.
    Report a mistake
  62. 62.
    The end product of protein metabolism in mammals is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Urea
    Urea is the primary nitrogenous end product of protein metabolism in ureotelic mammals.
    Report a mistake
  63. 63.
    Ruminal acetic acid is utilized for the synthesis of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Protein
    Note: As per official key mapping, correct answer corresponds to option C.
    Report a mistake
  64. 64.
    Fatty liver hemorrhage syndrome (FLHS) in layers is due to (A) High protein with high energy diet (B) Diets with amino acid imbalance or deficiency (C) Diets with low choline (D) Diets with low vitamin Choose the correct sequence given below:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    (B), (C) and (D) only
    FLHS in layers is associated with amino acid imbalances, low choline, and nutritional deficiencies.
    Report a mistake
  65. 65.
    The stages involved in processing of animal feed include: (A) Receiving and cleansing of the raw materials (B) Pelleting and crumbling (C) Grinding and mixing of the ingredients (D) Steaming and cooking of ingredients Choose the correct sequence given below:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    (A), (C), (D), (B)
    Feed manufacturing sequence: Receive/clean -> Grind/mix -> Steam/cook -> Pellet/crumble.
    Report a mistake
  66. 66.
    Hip dysplasia in German Shepherd dogs is due to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Multifactorial inheritance
    Canine hip dysplasia is a complex, polygenic (multifactorial) inherited trait.
    Report a mistake
  67. 67.
    Robertsonian Translocation in cattle is due to the fusion of the following chromosome.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    1/29 acrocentric
    The most common Robertsonian translocation in cattle involves centric fusion of chromosomes 1 and 29 (acrocentric).
    Report a mistake
  68. 68.
    Osborne index is normally done for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Parity evaluation
    Note: As per official key mapping, correct answer corresponds to option D.
    Report a mistake
  69. 69.
    Maximum Production from livestock can be obtained from
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Superior genotype with best environment
    Phenotype is a product of genotype and environment (P=G×EP = G \times E); maximum production requires both superior genetics and optimal environment.
    Report a mistake
  70. 70.
    Hybrid vigour will result form
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All the above
    Heterosis (hybrid vigor) is explained by dominance, overdominance, and epistasis models.
    Report a mistake
  71. 71.
    Ovulation takes place in cows at
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    12-18 hours after end of estrum
    Ovulation in cattle typically occurs 10-14 hours after the end of standing estrus.
    Report a mistake
  72. 72.
    The precursor for PGF2alpha is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Arachidonic acid
    Prostaglandins are synthesized from arachidonic acid.
    Report a mistake
  73. 73.
    The relation of the extremities or the head, neck, limbs to the body of the fetus is called as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Posture
    Posture refers to the disposition of the extremities (head, neck, limbs) relative to the fetus itself.
    Report a mistake
  74. 74.
    Immobile stance is a characteristic signs of estrus in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Sow
    Sows exhibit the immobility reflex (standing reflex) when in estrus.
    Report a mistake
  75. 75.
    In mare the ovulation takes place in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Ovulation fossa
    Equine ovaries have an inverted cortex and medulla, and ovulation occurs exclusively through the ovulation fossa.
    Report a mistake
  76. 76.
    In dogs vaginal prolapse occurs during
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Proestrus and estrus
    Vaginal prolapse in bitches is estrogen-dependent, occurring during proestrus and estrus.
    Report a mistake
  77. 77.
    The method may be used to correct uterine torsion
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Schaffer/s method
    Schaffer's method (rolling the dam) is a classic nonsurgical technique for correcting uterine torsion.
    Report a mistake
  78. 78.
    Drug of choice for the treatment of cystic ovarian degeneration irrespective of its type
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    GnRH
    GnRH or GnRH analogues are used to treat both follicular and luteal ovarian cysts by inducing LH release/luteinization.
    Report a mistake
  79. 79.
    Read the following statements and select the correct statements: (i) The fetotomy is performed when caesarean section is failed to relieve dystocia. (ii) Cephalotomy can be used in fetal hydrocephalus. (iii) Evisceration can be used in fetal ascites. (iv) Pelvic bisection can be used breech presentation.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    (iii) and (iv) are correct
    Statements (iii) and (iv) accurately match fetotomy indications for fluid accumulation and breech presentations respectively.
    Report a mistake
  80. 80.
    Read the following statements carefully and select the correct sequence: (i) In a semen sample the live sperm concentration is directly related with the fertility. (ii) In a semen sample the live sperm concentration is also directly related with motility. (iii) The live sperm percentage will give indication about progressively motile sperms. (iv) Semen samples with lower motility will also have normal live sperm percentage. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    (i), (ii) and (iv) only
    Note: As per official key mapping, option D is the correct combination.
    Report a mistake
  81. 81.
    In hypothyroidic alopecia of dogs, which of the following statements are true: 1. Dog may have a dull hair coat composed of mature hairs that are not replaced following shedding or shaving. 2. Hair loss commonly first develops over the bridge of the nose, ear pinnae, tail and elbows. 3. The skin may become thickened due to an accumulation of hyaluronic acid in the dermis. 4. Secondary bacterial infections are rare.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Statement 1, 2 and 3 are true but 4 is false
    Secondary bacterial infections (pyoderma) are actually common in canine hypothyroidism, making statement 4 false.
    Report a mistake
  82. 82.
    Slow and painful discharge of urine produced by spasmodic muscular contraction of the urethra and bladder is known as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Stranguria
    Stranguria refers to slow, painful urination.
    Report a mistake
  83. 83.
    Which of the following is not an osteomedullary cause of non-regenerative anaemia in cats?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Chronic kidney diseases
    Chronic kidney disease causes non-regenerative anemia primarily via decreased erythropoietin production, not as a primary bone marrow (osteomedullary) disorder.
    Report a mistake
  84. 84.
    Subpoena is defined as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Right of a court compelling the attendance of a witness in a legal trial
    A subpoena is a writ ordering a person to attend court as a witness.
    Report a mistake
  85. 85.
    Which of the following statement is false with respect to the disease Rabies?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Bites at the extremities of body make it more prone for development of rabies compared to the bites at head and neck
    Bites closer to the head and neck are more dangerous with shorter incubation periods due to rich nerve supply, making statement B false.
    Report a mistake
  86. 86.
    Which of the following drugs are examples of a parasympathomimetic drug? (i) Pilocarpine (ii) Bethanechol (iii) Acetylcholine (iv) Atropine
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    (i), (ii) and (iii)
    Pilocarpine, bethanechol, and acetylcholine are parasympathomimetics; atropine is an anticholinergic (parasympatholytic).
    Report a mistake
  87. 87.
    Which of the following antibiotic act by binding to 50 s subunit of ribosome?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Clarithromycin
    Macrolides like clarithromycin bind to the 50S ribosomal subunit.
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  88. 88.
    Which of the following drugs are Not gastro intestinal prokinetic agent? (i) Metochlopromide (ii) Droperidol (iii) Domperidone (iv) Loperamide
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    (ii) and (iv)
    Note: As per official key mapping, correct answer corresponds to option B.
    Report a mistake
  89. 89.
    Which of the following anticancer drug will produce specifically the cardiotoxicity?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Doxorubicin
    Doxorubicin is well known for causing cumulative, dose-dependent cardiotoxicity.
    Report a mistake
  90. 90.
    Which of the following snake venom have neurotoxic potential? (i) Krait (ii) Cobra (iii) Viper (iv) Rattle snakes
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    (i) and (ii)
    Elapids such as cobras and kraits possess prominent neurotoxic venoms.
    Report a mistake
  91. 91.
    Which of the following is a possible complication of wound in horses? (i) Haemorrhage (ii) Septicaemia (iii) Adhesion (iv) Erisipales
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    All of the above
    All listed conditions can potentially complicate wound healing or arise secondary to wounds in horses.
    Report a mistake
  92. 92.
    Which of the following is Not true about obturator paralysis?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Paralysis of this nerve produce adduction of the limb
    Obturator nerve paralysis results in the *inability* to adduct the limb (abduction/splay-legged stance), making option C false.
    Report a mistake
  93. 93.
    Which of the following is not true about Volvulus?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    It occurs by long axis if intestine
    Volvulus involves twisting around the mesenteric axis, not the long axis of the intestine.
    Report a mistake
  94. 94.
    Which of the following are the positions in which the radiograph of thorasic region is taken? (i) Dorso ventral (ii) Lateral (iii) Standing lateral (iv) Anterio-posterior
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    (i), (ii) and (iii)
    Standard thoracic radiographs include dorsoventral, lateral, and standing lateral views.
    Report a mistake
  95. 95.
    Inflammation of hair follicle of the eyelashes is known as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Hordeolum
    Hordeolum (stye) is an infection/inflammation of the sebaceous gland or hair follicle of the eyelashes.
    Report a mistake
  96. 96.
    Which of the following is False about the regional nerve blocks with local anaesthetics?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    In Epidural anaesthesia the needle will pass through duramater
    In epidural anesthesia, the needle enters the epidural space and does *not* puncture the dura mater.
    Report a mistake
  97. 97.
    Which of the following is an opioid analgesic?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Etorphine
    Etorphine is a potent opioid analgesic.
    Report a mistake
  98. 98.
    Which of the following statements are true regarding inhalant aneasthetic machine systems?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    In closed system, chances of fire hazards are more, especially with flammable gases
    Closed circle systems conserve gases, increasing anesthetic concentrations and potential fire/explosion risks when flammable agents are used.
    Report a mistake
  99. 99.
    Which of the following is True about termination of an inflammation? (i) Mild inflammations terminate as delitescence (ii) More severe cases end up in resolution (iii) Inflammations complicated by pyogenic organisms end up in suppuration (iv) Massive tissue destruction associated with inflammation will end up in a gangrene
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    All of the above
    All listed pathways describe various recognized outcomes/terminations of inflammatory processes.
    Report a mistake
  100. 100.
    Metallic surgical equipments can be disinfected using
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Metallic instruments can be subjected to chemical disinfection, autoclaving, or UV exposure depending on the setup.
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