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100 questions with answersProvisional keyAssistant Grade

Assistant Insurance Medical Officer/ Assistant Surgeon/ Casuality Medical Officer-Insurance Medical Service, Health Services question paper 2021

Date of test
26.10.2021
Question paper code
12/2021/OL
Questions
100
Answer key
Provisional Answer Key
Exam mode
Online (computer based)

Provisional key. Kerala PSC can change answers after reviewing complaints; the final key decides the marks.

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Source: Kerala PSC (keralapsc.gov.in) · official document· Last updated 25 Sept 2026· How we check content

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As published by the Kerala Public Service Commission.

All 100 questions with answers

Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer. Answers follow the official Kerala PSC answer key.

  1. 1.
    How many pairs of spinal nerves are present ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    31
    There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves in the human body.
    Report a mistake
  2. 2.
    Which of the following disorder follows autosomal recessive inheritance ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Albinism
    Albinism follows an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern.
    Report a mistake
  3. 3.
    Which of the following is not a synovial joint ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Inferior tibiofibular
    The inferior tibiofibular joint is a fibrous joint (syndesmosis), not a synovial joint.
    Report a mistake
  4. 4.
    Which of the following nerves carry taste sensation from anterior rac23rac{2}{3} of tongue ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Chorda tympani
    Taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is carried by the chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve.
    Report a mistake
  5. 5.
    Active form of glucose involved in glycogen synthesis
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    UDP Glucose
    UDP-glucose (Uridine diphosphate glucose) is the active form of glucose used in glycogen synthesis.
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  6. 6.
    An enzyme composed of both protein and RNA
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    T elomerase
    Telomerase is a ribonucleoprotein enzyme that contains both protein and RNA components.
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  7. 7.
    Hyperuricemia not seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Xanthine oxidase deficiency
    Xanthine oxidase deficiency leads to hypouricemia and xanthinuria, unlike the other conditions which cause hyperuricemia.
    Report a mistake
  8. 8.
    Find out the mismatch.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Western blotting-Detection of RNA
    Western blotting is used for the detection of proteins, not RNA. Northern blotting is used for RNA detection.
    Report a mistake
  9. 9.
    Hormone concerned with reabsorption of water in the renal tubule
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    ADH
    Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or vasopressin regulates water reabsorption in the renal tubules, though option A is explicitly the key mapping.
    Report a mistake
  10. 10.
    Normal tidal volume
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    500 ml
    The normal tidal volume in a healthy adult human is approximately 500 ml.
    Report a mistake
  11. 11.
    Hemophilia is caused by deficiency of which factor ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Factor VIII
    Hemophilia A is caused by a deficiency of clotting Factor VIII.
    Report a mistake
  12. 12.
    Gigantism is caused by hyper secretion of which hormone ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Growth hormone
    Gigantism results from the hypersecretion of growth hormone in children before epiphyseal fusion.
    Report a mistake
  13. 13.
    Bluish black discolouration of a bruise is due to the presence of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    haemosiderin
    The breakdown of blood in a bruise leads to the formation of haemosiderin, contributing to its color changes.
    Report a mistake
  14. 14.
    The depth of a stab wound usually corresponds with the following dimension of the offending weapon
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    length of the blade
    The depth of a stab wound corresponds to the length of the blade or the depth to which the weapon penetrated.
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  15. 15.
    Which of the following snake is having myotoxic venom ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    sea snake
    Sea snake venom typically contains potent myotoxins that cause rhabdomyolysis.
    Report a mistake
  16. 16.
    Amanita phalloides is also known as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    destroying angel
    Amanita phalloides is famously known as the 'destroying angel' or death cap.
    Report a mistake
  17. 17.
    The type of hypersensitivity reaction in myasthenia gravis is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    T ype II
    Myasthenia gravis is a Type II (antibody-mediated cytotoxic) hypersensitivity reaction.
    Report a mistake
  18. 18.
    Causative agent of melioidosis
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Burkholderia pseudomallei
    Melioidosis is caused by the bacterium Burkholderia pseudomallei.
    Report a mistake
  19. 19.
    Mechanism of direct transfer of free DNA
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Transformation
    Transformation involves the direct uptake and incorporation of exogenous free DNA from the environment.
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  20. 20.
    Which of the following infect hair, skin and nails ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Trichophyton
    Trichophyton species can infect hair, skin, and nails.
    Report a mistake
  21. 21.
    Red infarct is seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Lung
    Red (hemorrhagic) infarcts typically occur in tissues with a dual blood supply, such as the lung.
    Report a mistake
  22. 22.
    All of the following are germ cell tumors of testis except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Leydig cell tumor
    Leydig cell tumor is a sex cord-stromal tumor, not a germ cell tumor.
    Report a mistake
  23. 23.
    Psammoma bodies are not found in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Leiomyoma
    Psammoma bodies are characteristic of papillary thyroid carcinoma, serous papillary cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary, and meningioma, but not leiomyoma.
    Report a mistake
  24. 24.
    Which of the following is true regarding Metaplasia ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Involves epithelial and mesenchymal tissues
    Metaplasia is a reversible change where one adult cell type is replaced by another adult cell type, and it can involve both epithelial and mesenchymal tissues.
    Report a mistake
  25. 25.
    Which NSAID among the following is a prodrug ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Nabumetone
    Nabumetone is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that acts as a prodrug, metabolized into its active form in vivo.
    Report a mistake
  26. 26.
    Monoclonal antibody used for the treatment of Bronchial asthma
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Omalizumab
    Omalizumab is an anti-IgE monoclonal antibody used in the treatment of moderate-to-severe persistent allergic asthma.
    Report a mistake
  27. 27.
    Sulfonylurea used for the treatment of Diabetes Mellitus having antiplatelet action
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Gliclazide
    Gliclazide is a sulfonylurea known to possess additional antiplatelet/hemorrheological properties.
    Report a mistake
  28. 28.
    Which among the following is a Noradrenergic and Specific Serotonergic Antidepressant (NaSSA) ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Mirtazapine
    Mirtazapine is classified as a Noradrenergic and Specific Serotonergic Antidepressant (NaSSA).
    Report a mistake
  29. 29.
    Sociogram is related to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Group discussion
    A sociogram is a tool used in group dynamics and group discussions to map social relationships.
    Report a mistake
  30. 30.
    The 3 tier structure of Panchayati Raj include all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Gram Panchayat
    Gram Panchayat is part of the 3-tier structure, but the question was cancelled in the final key.
    Report a mistake
  31. 31.
    All are headquarters of WHO region except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    South Africa
    South Africa is a country, not a WHO regional headquarters.
    Report a mistake
  32. 32.
    Handwashing is an example of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Precurrent disinfection
    Handwashing before patient contact or procedures is considered a precurrent or prophylactic measure.
    Report a mistake
  33. 33.
    Blue-Yellow colour vision anomalies tested by i) Homgren Wools ii) Ishiharas isochromatic charts iii) Handy-Rand-Ritler iv) Pickford Nicholson anomaloscope
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Only (iii and iv)
    Handy-Rand-Ritler (HRR) plates and the Pickford-Nicholson anomaloscope are tests used for detecting blue-yellow color vision deficiencies.
    Report a mistake
  34. 34.
    A patient complaining of defective vision and on fundoscopy shows bilateral disc oedema. What will do first ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Check BP
    Checking blood pressure is crucial first to rule out malignant hypertension as the cause of bilateral papilledema.
    Report a mistake
  35. 35.
    Economic Blindness - following which statement is correct ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Vision in better eye < 6/60 to 3/60
    Economic blindness is defined as visual acuity of less than 6/60 down to 3/60 in the better eye.
    Report a mistake
  36. 36.
    "Eye Banking" is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Collection, storage and distribution of cornea
    Eye banking involves the collection, processing, storage, and distribution of corneas for transplantation and research.
    Report a mistake
  37. 37.
    Waters view for paranasal I sinus is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Occipitomental view
    Waters view is an occipitomental radiographic projection used to view the paranasal sinuses.
    Report a mistake
  38. 38.
    Which is the odd one ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Osteomeatal complex
    Osteomeatal complex is an anatomical region of the middle meatus, whereas the others are related to pathologies, surgical procedures, or anatomical structures like pharyngeal pouches.
    Report a mistake
  39. 39.
    Objective tinnitus seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Palatal myoclonus
    Palatal myoclonus can cause objective tinnitus, which can be heard by an examiner using a stethoscope.
    Report a mistake
  40. 40.
    Clinical triads to diagnose Quinsy include all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Halitosis
    Halitosis is common in tonsillitis but not part of the primary diagnostic triad for peritonsillar abscess (Quinsy).
    Report a mistake
  41. 41.
    Investigations done in Plummer Vinson syndrome include all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Bone marrow
    Bone marrow biopsy is generally not a routine first-line investigation for Plummer-Vinson syndrome, unlike iron studies and swallow evaluations.
    Report a mistake
  42. 42.
    Definition of FUO (PUO) includes i) Fever >38.3° C on at least two occasions ii) Illness duration of ≥ 3 weeks iii) No known immunocompromised state iv) Diagnosis remain uncertain after a thorough history taking, physical examination and following obligatory investigations like ESR, CRP, LFT, ANA, Electrolytes, CXR, LDH etc.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above (i, ii, iii, iv)
    Classic PUO criteria encompass all these components including specific temperature thresholds, duration, immune status, and negative initial workup.
    Report a mistake
  43. 43.
    Raynaud's phenomenon is seen in Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome associated with the use of which of the following drug ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Bleomicin
    Bleomycin is associated with HUS and Raynaud's phenomenon.
    Report a mistake
  44. 44.
    MRI findings of mesial temporal lobe epilepsy syndrome includes i) Small temporal lobe ii) Enlarged temporal horn iii) Small hippocampus with increased signal on T2 weighted sequences
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above (i, ii, iii)
    Hippocampal sclerosis features include a small temporal lobe, enlarged temporal horns, and hippocampal atrophy with T2 hyperintensity.
    Report a mistake
  45. 45.
    Which of the following is not included in the classification criteria of newly presenting patients with symptoms of Rheumatoid Arthritis ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    X-ray of joints
    Joint erosions on X-ray are not required for classifying early rheumatoid arthritis under the 2010 ACR/EULAR criteria.
    Report a mistake
  46. 46.
    Thyroid Acropachy is strongly associated with all of the following except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Microcytic Anemia
    Thyroid acropachy is associated with Graves' ophthalmopathy and dermopathy, not microcytic anemia.
    Report a mistake
  47. 47.
    MODY 1 is due to genetic mutation in the following gene
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    HNF 4𝛼
    MODY 1 is caused by mutations in the HNF4A gene (Hepatocyte Nuclear Factor 4 alpha).
    Report a mistake
  48. 48.
    JAK inhibitor used in the treatment of Rheumatoid arthritis is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    T ofacitinib
    Tofacitinib is a Janus kinase (JAK) inhibitor used for rheumatoid arthritis.
    Report a mistake
  49. 49.
    Commonest cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in Childhood is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Minimal Change Disease
    Minimal Change Disease is the most frequent cause of nephrotic syndrome in children.
    Report a mistake
  50. 50.
    MELD Scoring system uses all the following variables except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Albumin
    The MELD score uses bilirubin, INR, and creatinine, but not albumin.
    Report a mistake
  51. 51.
    Anti GQ1b antibodies are strongly associated with
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Miller Fisher Syndrome
    Anti-GQ1b antibodies are strongly positive in Miller Fisher syndrome, a variant of Guillain-Barré syndrome.
    Report a mistake
  52. 52.
    The imaging investigation of choice for diagnosis of diffuse axonal injury is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
    MRI (specifically gradient echo or susceptibility-weighted imaging) is superior and the modality of choice for detecting diffuse axonal injury.
    Report a mistake
  53. 53.
    Which of the following statements is incorrect about fibromuscular dysplasia ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    The proximal third of the renal artery is the site generally involved
    Fibromuscular dysplasia typically affects the middle and distal thirds of the renal artery, not the proximal third.
    Report a mistake
  54. 54.
    The most characteristic sign of breast cancer on mammographic images
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Clustered microcalcification
    Clustered pleomorphic microcalcifications are a classic mammographic sign of malignancy such as ductal carcinoma in situ.
    Report a mistake
  55. 55.
    Regarding imaging of multiple myeloma lesions, which of the following statements are correct ? i) Skull radiographs show punched out lytic lesions ii) Characteristically involves pedicles of vertebrae iii) Mandible is more commonly involved in myeloma than in metastases iv) Skeletal survey is better investigation than scintigraphy to visualise the lesions in multiple myeloma
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Statements (i) and (iv)
    Myeloma characteristically spares pedicles (unlike metastases) and skeletal survey is superior to bone scintigraphy (which is often negative due to lack of osteoblastic reaction).
    Report a mistake
  56. 56.
    On CT scan images typical lesions of hepatocellular carcinoma show peak contrast enhancement in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Hepatic arterial phase
    Hepatocellular carcinoma typically shows hyperenhancement in the hepatic arterial phase (wash-in) followed by washout in the portal venous or delayed phase.
    Report a mistake
  57. 57.
    What percentage of nerve trunk damage is required to clinically manifest with features of nerve damage ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    30%
    Clinical symptoms or functional deficits generally become manifest when approximately 30% of nerve fibers are damaged.
    Report a mistake
  58. 58.
    CDC recommended regime of acute proctitis includes
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Ceftriaxone 500 mg im single does plus Doxycycline 100 mg orally 2 times/day for 7 days
    CDC guidelines for empiric treatment of acute proctitis include ceftriaxone plus doxycycline.
    Report a mistake
  59. 59.
    Which of the following is not a potential side effect of IVIG ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Bone marrow suppression
    Bone marrow suppression is not a recognized adverse effect of intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) therapy.
    Report a mistake
  60. 60.
    Arao Perkin bodies are seen in (1) Androgenetic alopecia (2) Normal hair cycle (3) Trichothiodystrophy
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Only (1) and (2)
    Arao-Perkin bodies are normally found during the catagen phase of the hair cycle and in conditions like androgenetic alopecia.
    Report a mistake
  61. 61.
    A patient sustained an injury to the oral cavity, as a result of road traffic accident. On examination, there was a lacerated wound of 5 × 2 centimeters, over the inner aspect of cheeck. Which type of needle would be ideal to suture such a wound.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Compound curvature needle
    Compound curvature needles are ideal for deep or confined spaces such as the oral cavity.
    Report a mistake
  62. 62.
    30 year old female diagnosed to have thymoma, underwent thymectomy and it was reported as stage 3 by Masoka thymoma Staging system. What does stage 3 of this staging mean ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Macroscopic invasion of neighboring organs
    Masaoka stage III thymoma indicates macroscopic invasion into neighboring organs.
    Report a mistake
  63. 63.
    A 28 year old male who was on treatment for acid peptic disease, underwent a follow up oesophagogastroduodenoscopy. During the procedure an iatrogenic perforation occurred in the cervical oesophagus. The best management option for this case would be
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Conservative management
    Small, contained cervical esophageal perforations discovered early can often be managed conservatively with nil per os, broad-spectrum antibiotics, and close monitoring.
    Report a mistake
  64. 64.
    A 68 year old hypertensive, diabetic male was bedridden following a cerebral vascular accident. He developed a pressure sore after two months. Which is the most frequent site for developing such an ulcer ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Ischium
    In seated or chronically positioned bedridden patients, the ischium and sacrum are common sites, with ischium being very frequent in wheelchair-bound patients.
    Report a mistake
  65. 65.
    A nineteen year old male presented to the emergency department with the history of low grade fever, right lower quadrant pain, nausea, vomiting and anorexia. On palpation, deep tenderness was present in loin. Abdominal rigidity was absent even on deep palpation, but rigidity to quadratus lumborum was present and a clinical diagnosis of acute appendicitis was made. What is the most probable position of the appendix according to the above clinical scenario ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Retrocaecal
    Retrocaecal appendicitis often presents with loin tenderness and irritation of the quadratus lumborum or psoas muscle rather than anterior abdominal rigidity.
    Report a mistake
  66. 66.
    Meralgia paresthetica is due to affection of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
    Meralgia paresthetica is caused by entrapment of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve of the thigh.
    Report a mistake
  67. 67.
    Most common site of origin of adamantinoma
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Mandible near molar teeth
    Adamantinoma of the jaw (ameloblastoma) most commonly arises in the mandible, particularly in the molar/ramus region.
    Report a mistake
  68. 68.
    MIC-2 mutation is associated with
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Ewing's sarcoma
    The MIC-2 gene product (CD99) is strongly expressed and associated with Ewing's sarcoma / primitive neuroectodermal tumors.
    Report a mistake
  69. 69.
    T ype VI Rang's injury include
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Perichondral ring injury
    Rang's classification of physeal injuries includes Type VI, which involves a crushing injury to the perichondral ring of the physis.
    Report a mistake
  70. 70.
    A child with Cerebral palsy, Walks with assistive mobility devices indoors and outdoors on level surfaces May be able to climb stairs using a railing May propel a manual wheelchair and need assistance for long distances on uneven surfaces. His percentage of permanent impairment in relation to whole body is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    51-60%
    Based on disability evaluation guidelines for cerebral palsy matching GMFCS level descriptions, this functional status corresponds to 51-60% impairment.
    Report a mistake
  71. 71.
    A person with head injury shows goal directed behavior with assistance. Inconsistent orientation to time and place. Retention span and recent memory are impaired. He consistently follows simple directions. Which stage of Rancho Los Amigos staging does he belongs to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Confused appropriate
    Rancho Los Amigos Level V is 'Confused-Appropriate', characterized by context-appropriate goal-directed behavior with assistance.
    Report a mistake
  72. 72.
    Statement 1 - Therapeutic Ultrasound waves of higher frequency 3 MHz is used for superficial tissues. Statement 2 - Penetration of Ultrasound is directly proportional to frequency.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Statement 1 is correct
    Higher frequency (3 MHz) ultrasound has lower depth of penetration and is used for superficial tissues (penetration is inversely proportional to frequency).
    Report a mistake
  73. 73.
    A Unilateral amputee of age 60 yrs. is a potential limited community ambulator and has the ability for ambulation and traverse environmental barriers such as curbs, stairs or uneven surfaces. What is the K level ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    K2
    K2 level defines a limited community ambulator with the ability to traverse low-level environmental barriers.
    Report a mistake
  74. 74.
    Which is not a component of Intraoperative RT ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    IO Proton RT
    Intraoperative proton radiation therapy is not a standard conventional component of intraoperative RT modalities compared to electrons, HDR, or orthovoltage X-rays.
    Report a mistake
  75. 75.
    Which is a II generation alkylating agent ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    T emozolomide
    Temozolomide is classified as a second-generation alkylating agent (imidazotetrazine derivative).
    Report a mistake
  76. 76.
    Reese Ellsworth classification is for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Retinoblastoma
    The Reese-Ellsworth classification is used for staging retinoblastoma.
    Report a mistake
  77. 77.
    The location of the GE junction can be accurately defined histologically as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    squamo columnar junction
    Histologically, the gastroesophageal junction is defined by the squamocolumnar junction (transition from stratified squamous epithelium of the esophagus to columnar epithelium of the stomach).
    Report a mistake
  78. 78.
    Patients with long standing severe reflux have how much risk of developing adeno carcinoma of esophagus
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    44 fold
    Chronic gastroesophageal reflux disease significantly increases the relative risk of esophageal adenocarcinoma (approx. 44-fold).
    Report a mistake
  79. 79.
    All of the following are oxidative cytochrome P450 enzymes that cause oxidative metabolism of volatile anaesthetics except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    CYP3A4
    CYP2E1 is the major isoform responsible for the metabolism of volatile anesthetics, while CYP3A4 has a lesser or non-primary role among the choices listed.
    Report a mistake
  80. 80.
    All of the following videolaryngoscopes given below is not based on macintosh blade design except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Macgrath laryngoscope
    McGrath videolaryngoscope incorporates a conventional Macintosh blade design option.
    Report a mistake
  81. 81.
    Among the following recommendations of discharge from post anaesthesia care room, identify the incorrect statement.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    A minimum mandatory stay is required
    A rigid minimum mandatory stay is not strictly required if the patient meets objective criteria for PACU discharge.
    Report a mistake
  82. 82.
    Identify the incorrect statement regarding local anaesthetics.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Ropivacaine differs in structure from bupivacaine in the substitution of a butyl group in place of a propyl group in the piperidine ring
    Ropivacaine is a propyl analogue (propylpipecolic acid derivative), whereas bupivacaine has a butyl group.
    Report a mistake
  83. 83.
    All the following conditions are risk factors for Leukemia except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Infantile Seborrheic Dermatitis
    Infantile seborrheic dermatitis is a common benign skin condition and not a risk factor for leukemia.
    Report a mistake
  84. 84.
    After initial steps of resuscitation of a term newborn (providing warmth, positioning airway, clearing secretions, dry and stimulating the baby) the heart rate of baby is 10 per minute and the baby is grasping. The next step of resuscitation is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Providing PPV and Monitor SPO2SPO_2
    If heart rate is severely depressed (< 60 bpm) after initial steps, positive pressure ventilation (PPV) and SpO2 monitoring should be initiated immediately.
    Report a mistake
  85. 85.
    All the following regarding Pertussis is correct except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    T est for IgA and IgM Pertussis antibodies are reliable methods for serologic diagnosis
    Serological diagnosis of pertussis via standard commercial IgA/IgM tests often lacks reliability and standardization compared to PCR or culture.
    Report a mistake
  86. 86.
    All the following are true regarding postoperative endocarditis except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Commonest organism causing early endocarditis S. viridans
    Early prosthetic valve endocarditis is most commonly caused by Staphylococci (e.g., S. epidermidis, S. aureus), not S. viridans.
    Report a mistake
  87. 87.
    All the following are goals of the program POSHAN abhiyan except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Reduce prevalence of Vitamin A deficiency of children 0 to 6 years @ 2% per annum
    Reduction of Vitamin A deficiency at 2% per annum is not one of the core specific targets tracked by POSHAN Abhiyaan.
    Report a mistake
  88. 88.
    Site of brain abscess due to otogenic source is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    T emporal lobe and cerebellum
    Otogenic brain abscesses typically spread from middle ear infections to the temporal lobe or cerebellum.
    Report a mistake
  89. 89.
    Normal thyroid volume is approximately 1 ml at birth and increases with _________ and ______
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    age and body surface area
    Thyroid volume correlates with age and body surface area.
    Report a mistake
  90. 90.
    Craniopharyngioma
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    arise from Rathke's pouch
    Craniopharyngiomas are benign epithelial tumors that arise from embryonic remnants of Rathke's pouch.
    Report a mistake
  91. 91.
    Antiphospholipid antibodies include all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    anti nuclear antibody
    Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) are markers for systemic lupus erythematosus and other connective tissue diseases, not specific antiphospholipid antibodies.
    Report a mistake
  92. 92.
    In a newborn preductal SpO2SpO_2 of 85-95% after birth is obtained at
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    10 minutes
    Normal target preductal oxygen saturation reaches 85-95% by 10 minutes after birth.
    Report a mistake
  93. 93.
    All are clinical features of ante partum haemorrhage due to placenta previa except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Uterus tense and tender on palpation
    A tense and tender uterus is characteristic of placental abruption, whereas placenta previa typically presents with painless bleeding and a relaxed uterus.
    Report a mistake
  94. 94.
    Overlapping of fetal skull bones seen in intra uterine fetal demise is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Spaldings sign
    Spalding's sign refers to the overlapping of fetal skull bones seen on ultrasound or X-ray in intrauterine fetal death.
    Report a mistake
  95. 95.
    Advantages of vasectomy are all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Sterility is immediate
    Sterility is not immediate following vasectomy; post-procedure contraceptive backup and sperm-free analysis (azoospermia) are required.
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  96. 96.
    Differential diagnosis is mass per vaginum are all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Sarcoma uterus
    Uterine sarcoma typically presents as an enlarged uterus or abnormal uterine bleeding rather than a mass per vaginum compared to prolapse, fibroid polyps, cystoceles, or inversion.
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  97. 97.
    Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of serotonin syndrome ?
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    Answer: C —
    Dry skin
    Serotonin syndrome typically causes diaphoresis (sweating), not dry skin, along with autonomic instability, neuromuscular hyperactivity, and altered mental status.
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  98. 98.
    Environmental risk factors for schizophrenia are all except
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    Answer: C —
    Sexual abuse
    While early life adversity is studied, sexual abuse is not a specific canonical environmental risk factor defining epidemiological schizophrenia models compared to cannabis use, obstetric complications, or urban migration.
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  99. 99.
    Hallucination is a disorder of
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    Answer: B —
    Perception
    A hallucination is defined as a sensory perception experienced in the absence of an external stimulus, making it a disorder of perception.
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  100. 100.
    Which is the correct instruction to be given for taking a serum lithium test ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    None of the above
    Serum lithium levels should be measured as trough levels (typically 12 hours post-dose) after steady state has been reached, usually 4-5 days after starting or changing the dose.
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