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100 questions with answersProvisional keyAssistant Grade

Assistant Professor Practice of Medicine - Government Homoeopathic Medical Colleges question paper 2023

Date of test
05-06-2023
Question paper code
62/2023/OL
Questions
100
Answer key
Provisional Answer Key
Exam mode
Online (computer based)

Provisional key. Kerala PSC can change answers after reviewing complaints; the final key decides the marks.

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Source: Kerala PSC (keralapsc.gov.in) · official document· Last updated 25 Sept 2026· How we check content

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As published by the Kerala Public Service Commission.

All 100 questions with answers

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  1. 1.
    Consider one of the following statements for diagnosis of proteus infection
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Most strains are lactose negative, produce hydrogen sulphide and motile on agar plates
    Proteus species are typically lactose non-fermenters, produce hydrogen sulfide (H2SH_2S), and are highly motile.
    Report a mistake
  2. 2.
    Risk factors of Legionnaire's disease are all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Malnutrition
    Smoking, COPD, and Diabetes Mellitus (DM) are established risk factors for Legionnaires' disease, whereas malnutrition is not a primary risk factor.
    Report a mistake
  3. 3.
    All are true about Rocky mountain spotted fever, except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    interstitial pneumonia develop in 30-65% of cases
    Interstitial pneumonia is not a characteristic feature occurring in 30-65% of cases of Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
    Report a mistake
  4. 4.
    Which of the following statement is not true ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Planter warts are smooth, flat, slightly elevated, greyish brown in colour
    Plantar warts are typically endophytic, rough, and hyperkeratotic, not smooth and flat.
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  5. 5.
    In diagnosis of viral gastroenteritis which is true ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    for rotavirus stool for enzyme immunoassay or latex particle agglutination is done
    Rotavirus is commonly diagnosed using stool enzyme immunoassay (EIA) or latex particle agglutination tests.
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  6. 6.
    Most common cause of traveller's diarrhoea are all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Bacillus cereus
    Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) is the most common cause of traveler's diarrhea; Bacillus cereus is less common in this context.
    Report a mistake
  7. 7.
    Which of the following is true about filarial infections ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    The microfilarae of Wuchereria bancrofti are mostly found in pulmonary capillaries
    Wuchereria bancrofti microfilariae exhibit nocturnal periodicity and are sequestered in pulmonary capillaries during the day.
    Report a mistake
  8. 8.
    Chlamydial infection causes all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Vaginitis
    Chlamydia trachomatis causes cervicitis and urethritis, but is not a primary cause of vaginitis.
    Report a mistake
  9. 9.
    True about plasmodium malaria infection is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Causes nephrotic syndrome in children
    Plasmodium malariae is well-documented to cause nephrotic syndrome due to chronic immune complex deposition.
    Report a mistake
  10. 10.
    Pastia's sign is seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Streptococcal scarlet fever
    Pastia's sign (accentuation of rash in skin folds) is a classic clinical finding in scarlet fever.
    Report a mistake
  11. 11.
    Common complication of infectious mononucleosis are all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    interstitial pneumonia
    Interstitial pneumonia is not a common or typical complication of infectious mononucleosis.
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  12. 12.
    All are true about pyrexia of unknown origin, except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    resolves spontaneously 40%
    PUO does not characteristically resolve spontaneously in 40% of cases without diagnosis.
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  13. 13.
    All of the following type 2DM are due to insulin resistance except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    MODY type 4
    MODY (Maturity-Onset Diabetes of the Young) is primarily caused by defects in beta-cell insulin secretion rather than insulin resistance.
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  14. 14.
    Viral infections related to pathogenesis of T ype 1DM are all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Respiratory syntial virus
    Respiratory syncytial virus is not classically implicated in the viral pathogenesis of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus.
    Report a mistake
  15. 15.
    Causes of fasting hypoglycaemia are all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Pneumonia
    Pneumonia is an acute infection and is not a direct cause of fasting hypoglycemia.
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  16. 16.
    Renal pathologies in T ype 1DM are all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    tubulointerstitial lesion
    Primary tubulointerstitial lesions are less characteristic compared to the hallmark glomerular and vascular pathologies in diabetic nephropathy.
    Report a mistake
  17. 17.
    Earliest sign of Vitamin A deficiency
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Impairment of dark adaptation process
    Night blindness (impairment of dark adaptation) is the earliest clinical manifestation of Vitamin A deficiency.
    Report a mistake
  18. 18.
    In developing countries thiamin deficiency is common due to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    diet on polished rice
    Diet consisting predominantly of polished rice lacks thiamine, making deficiency common in developing regions.
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  19. 19.
    In chronic tophaceous gout the usual site of MSUM crystal deposit are
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    OA effected joints
    Monosodium urate monohydrate (MSUM) crystals frequently deposit in joints already affected by osteoarthritis.
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  20. 20.
    All are causes of secondary hypertriglyceridaemia, except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Cholestasis
    Cholestasis primarily causes hypercholesterolemia rather than secondary hypertriglyceridemia.
    Report a mistake
  21. 21.
    IBS is characterized by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Pseudodiarrhea
    Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS) often features pseudodiarrhea (normal daily stool volume with frequent loose passages or urgency).
    Report a mistake
  22. 22.
    Constipation refers to persistent problem
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All the above
    Constipation encompasses difficult, incomplete, or infrequent defecation.
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  23. 23.
    Which of the following is/are correct regarding the cause of increased hepatic resistance in portal hypertension ?\ni. Hepatic fibrosis,\nii. Activation of hepatic stellate cells mediating fibrogenesis,\niii. Decrease in endothelial nitric oxide synthetase,\niv. Hepatomegaly.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Only (i, ii and iii)
    Hepatic fibrosis, activation of stellate cells, and decreased eNOS contribute to increased intrahepatic vascular resistance, while hepatomegaly alone does not define resistance.
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  24. 24.
    The correct statement about types of gastrointestinal bleeding is/are\ni. Hematemesis\nii. Melena\niii. Hematochezia\niv. Occult.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    All the above (i, ii, iii and iv)
    All listed conditions (hematemesis, melena, hematochezia, and occult bleeding) are recognized types of gastrointestinal bleeding.
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  25. 25.
    Which is not a cause of everted umbilicus ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Obesity
    Obesity typically leads to a deep or inverted umbilicus rather than an everted one.
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  26. 26.
    Estimation of Serum-Ascites Albumin Gradient (SAAG) is useful for detecting
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Portal hypertension
    SAAG is specifically used to differentiate portal hypertensive causes of ascites from non-portal hypertensive causes.
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  27. 27.
    Combination of diarrhea, steatorrhea, weight loss, migratory large joint arthropathy, fever, eye symptoms, dementia, chest pain and murmurs is found in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Whipple's disease
    Whipple's disease is a multisystem systemic infection featuring malabsorption, arthropathy, and central nervous/cardiovascular manifestations.
    Report a mistake
  28. 28.
    Persistence of HBsAg signifies
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Chronic infection/carrier state
    Persistence of Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) for more than 6 months signifies chronic infection or carrier state.
    Report a mistake
  29. 29.
    Hallmark of Acute Kidney Injury (AKI) is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Elevated BUN
    Elevated BUN and nitrogenous waste products (azotemia) characterize the functional hallmark of AKI.
    Report a mistake
  30. 30.
    AGN or acute nephritic syndrome is not comprised of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Massive proteinuria
    Massive proteinuria is a hallmark of nephrotic syndrome, whereas nephritic syndrome features hematuria, hypertension, mild proteinuria, and edema.
    Report a mistake
  31. 31.
    HELLP syndrome, a dangerous complication of pregnancy associated with microvascular injury of kidney, consists of\ni. Hemolysis\nii. Hepatitis\niii. Elevated liver enzymes\niv. Electrolyte imbalance\nv. Low platelets\nvi. Lymphocytosis.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Only (i, iii and v)
    HELLP stands for Hemolysis (i), Elevated Liver enzymes (iii), and Low Platelet count (v).
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  32. 32.
    Cause/s of pigmentary skin changes in CRF\ni. Increased cortisol\nii. Elevated level of β-MSH\niii. Increased urochromes and carotene levels\niv. Increased hemosiderin deposition due to blood cell destruction.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Only (ii, iii and iv)
    Chronic renal failure skin hyperpigmentation is caused by elevated β-MSH, retained urochromes/carotenes, and increased hemosiderin deposition.
    Report a mistake
  33. 33.
    Which of the following is not true about Kallmann Syndrome ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Precocious menarche
    Kallmann syndrome presents with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, delayed puberty, and anosmia, not precocious menarche.
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  34. 34.
    Hyperphagia is caused by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Damage by ventromedial hypothalamic nuclei
    Damage to the ventromedial hypothalamus ('satiety center') results in hyperphagia and obesity.
    Report a mistake
  35. 35.
    Galactorrhea is associated with the following except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Increased TSH
    Increased TSH itself is not a direct cause of galactorrhea, whereas hyperprolactinemia, growth hormone excess states, or reduced prolactin-inhibiting hormone (PIH) are associated.
    Report a mistake
  36. 36.
    Match the correct findings :\nI. Primary hypothyroidism i. \downarrow TRH, \downarrow TSH, \uparrow T_3, \uparrow T_4\nII. Secondary hypothyroidism ii. \uparrow TRH, \uparrow TSH, \downarrow T_3, \downarrow T_4\nIII. Thyroid hyperfunction iii. \downarrow TRH, \uparrow TSH, \uparrow T_3, \uparrow T_4\nIV. Pituitary adenoma iv. \uparrow/\downarrow TRH, \downarrow TSH, \downarrow T_3, \downarrow T_4
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    I and ii, II and iv, III and i, IV and iii
    Primary hypothyroidism shows increased TRH/TSH and low thyroid hormones; secondary shows low/normal tropic hormones and low peripheral hormones.
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  37. 37.
    Serum TG (Thyroglobulin) is increased in the following conditions, except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Thyrotoxicosis factitia
    In thyrotoxicosis factitia (ingestion of exogenous thyroid hormone), endogenous thyroglobulin production is suppressed, leading to low serum thyroglobulin levels.
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  38. 38.
    Hypertension is a feature of all the following conditions, except
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    Answer: A —
    Addison's disease
    Addison's disease is characterized by primary adrenal insufficiency, leading to hypotension, not hypertension.
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  39. 39.
    RARE cause of gynaecomastia in men is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Hyperprolactinaemia
    Hyperprolactinemia is a rare cause of gynecomastia compared to liver failure, Klinefelter's, or hCG-secreting tumors.
    Report a mistake
  40. 40.
    The earliest sign of diabetic retinopathy is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Microaneurysms
    Microaneurysms are the earliest ophthalmoscopically visible sign of non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy.
    Report a mistake
  41. 41.
    Match the following :\nI. Gout i. Calcium pyrophosphate\nII. Osteoarthritis ii. Pannus\nIII. Rheumatoid arthritis iii. Sterile synovitis\nIV. Chondrocalcinosis iv. T ophi
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    I and iv; II and iii; III and ii; IV and i
    Gout features tophi, Osteoarthritis is associated with sterile non-inflammatory or mild synovitis, Rheumatoid arthritis features pannus, and Chondrocalcinosis features calcium pyrophosphate crystals.
    Report a mistake
  42. 42.
    Choose the correct answer.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    T ests for synovial fluid appearance, viscosity, cell count have important diagnostic value
    Synovial fluid analysis for appearance, viscosity, and cell count provides rapid and essential diagnostic classification of joint effusions.
    Report a mistake
  43. 43.
    Which is not associated with systemic sclerosis ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    HLA-B27 +ve
    HLA-B27 is characteristically associated with seronegative spondyloarthropathies, not systemic sclerosis.
    Report a mistake
  44. 44.
    Morning stiffness does persist for less (<) than one (1) hour in\ni. Rheumatoid arthritis\nii. Ankylosing spondylitis\niii. Psoriatic arthritis\niv. Osteoarthritis.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Only (iv)
    Osteoarthritis features brief morning stiffness lasting less than 30 minutes, whereas RA, AS, and psoriatic arthritis have prolonged morning stiffness (>1 hour).
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  45. 45.
    All of the following are sero-positive conditions, except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Psoriasis
    Psoriatic arthritis is classically seronegative for rheumatoid factor.
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  46. 46.
    Rheumatoid arthritis has the following deformity/s
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    Answer: A —
    Flat feet
    Flat feet (pes planus) resulting from midfoot and hindfoot involvement can occur in rheumatoid arthritis.
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  47. 47.
    Complaint of ''pain all over persisting most of the day on most days for at least 3 months'', is found in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Fibromyalgia
    Widespread chronic musculoskeletal pain for ≥3\ge 3 months is the hallmark criterion for fibromyalgia.
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  48. 48.
    HLA-B27 is associated with\ni. Reactive arthritis\nii. Irritable bowel syndrome\niii. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy\niv. Ankylosing spondylitis.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Only (i and iv)
    HLA-B27 is strongly associated with seronegative spondyloarthropathies including ankylosing spondylitis and reactive arthritis.
    Report a mistake
  49. 49.
    Which wave in Jugular Venous Pulse is characterized by a negative deflection ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    y
    The y descent in JVP represents the rapid emptying of the right atrium into the right ventricle, showing as a downward negative deflection.
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  50. 50.
    In what category does automaticity belong as a property ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Automaticity is an inherent property present in the SA node, His-Purkinje system, and specialized regions like pulmonary veins and coronary sinus.
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  51. 51.
    Which of the following statements is not correct ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Repolarization occurs first on endocardium then proceeds to epicardium
    In the heart, repolarization normally proceeds from epicardium to endocardium, making statement A incorrect.
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  52. 52.
    Mitral valve prolapse may occur as a sequel to\ni. Ischemic heart disease\nii. Various cardiomyopathies\niii. Acute rheumatic fever\niv. All of the above
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    i, ii and iii
    MVP can be secondary to ischemic heart disease (papillary muscle dysfunction), cardiomyopathies, and rheumatic fever.
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  53. 53.
    What is the most significant symptom of aortic stenosis ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Angina, syncope, and exertional dyspnoea are the classic triad of significant symptoms in aortic stenosis.
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  54. 54.
    Among these heart valves, which one is the least susceptible to infective endocarditis ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Pulmonary
    The pulmonary valve is the least common site for infective endocarditis due to lower pressure and oxygen saturation dynamics.
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  55. 55.
    What value of pulmonary artery systolic pressure indicates severe pulmonary artery hypertension as per the definition ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    > 55 mm Hg
    Pulmonary artery systolic pressure >55>55 mm Hg on echocardiography generally defines severe pulmonary hypertension.
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  56. 56.
    In ''Holiday heart syndrome,'' which arrhythmia occurs most commonly ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Atrial fibrillation
    Holiday heart syndrome typically presents with acute-onset atrial fibrillation following binge alcohol consumption.
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  57. 57.
    Fabry's disease results from a deficiency of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Alpha-galactosidase A
    Fabry disease is an X-linked lysosomal storage disorder caused by a deficiency of alpha-galactosidase A.
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  58. 58.
    Pulsus paradoxus is defined as a decrease in systolic arterial pressure of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    >10 mm Hg with inspiration
    Pulsus paradoxus is defined as an exaggerated drop in systolic blood pressure of >10>10 mm Hg during inspiration.
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  59. 59.
    LAMB syndrome includes all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Melanoma
    LAMB syndrome stands for Lentigines, Atrial Myxoma, and Blue nevi; melanoma is not part of the acronym.
    Report a mistake
  60. 60.
    What is the most frequently involved area in focal spasm in Prinzmetal's variant angina ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Right coronary artery
    Coronary vasospasm in Prinzmetal variant angina most frequently involves the right coronary artery.
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  61. 61.
    Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) can be caused by which of the following ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Systemic insults, toxins, prolonged anoxia, and drug overdoses (like opioids) can precipitate ARDS.
    Report a mistake
  62. 62.
    What is the minimum duration of apneas that is considered significant ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    At least 10 second
    An apnea event in adults is clinically defined as cessation of airflow lasting for at least 10 seconds.
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  63. 63.
    What is the underlying factor responsible for bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Bilateral diaphragmatic weakness/paralysis can stem from motor neuron disease, muscular dystrophies, and central nervous system disorders like multiple sclerosis.
    Report a mistake
  64. 64.
    In ''T ension pneumothorax'' a large bore needle is inserted into plural space through
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Second anterior innercostal space
    Needle decompression for tension pneumothorax is performed in the second intercostal space at the mid-clavicular line.
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  65. 65.
    What is the primary imaging test used to diagnose PE ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    chest computed tomography
    CT pulmonary angiography (chest computed tomography) is the primary diagnostic imaging modality for pulmonary embolism.
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  66. 66.
    Distal intestinal obstruction syndrome consists of all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    left lower quadrant pain
    Distal intestinal obstruction syndrome (DIOS) in cystic fibrosis typically presents with right lower quadrant pain and a palpable mass, not left lower quadrant pain.
    Report a mistake
  67. 67.
    Which of the following is a congenital cause of bronchiectasis ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Williams Campbell syndrome
    Williams-Campbell syndrome is a congenital condition characterized by cartilage deficiency in the subsegmental bronchi leading to bronchiectasis.
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  68. 68.
    Which of the following is instrumental in clearing and killing pathogens at the alveolar level ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Surfactant proteins A and D along with resident alveolar macrophages play crucial roles in host defense and pathogen clearance in alveoli.
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  69. 69.
    In ''sensitization'' IgE gets attached to human mast cells and
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Basophils
    During type I hypersensitivity sensitization, IgE molecules bind to high-affinity Fc receptors on both mast cells and basophils.
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  70. 70.
    Which of the following is not a sign of COPD ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Clubbing of digits
    Digital clubbing is not a classic sign of uncomplicated COPD; its presence should prompt evaluation for lung cancer, bronchiectasis, or IPF.
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  71. 71.
    Bronchocentric granulomatosis is associated with which of the following pulmonary condition ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Asthma
    Bronchocentric granulomatosis is a clinicopathologic pattern frequently associated with asthma and allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis.
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  72. 72.
    Which of the following about organic dust toxic syndrome is false ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    None of the above
    All the listed statements regarding organic dust toxic syndrome are true, hence 'none of the above' is the correct answer.
    Report a mistake
  73. 73.
    Gower's sign is due to weakness of which group of muscles ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Hip muscles
    Gowers' sign reflects proximal lower limb weakness, specifically pelvic girdle and hip extensor muscles.
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  74. 74.
    In isolated Gerstmann's syndrome, the damage, is it
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Inferior parietel lobule in dominant hemisphere
    Gerstmann's syndrome results from a lesion in the inferior parietal lobule of the dominant hemisphere.
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  75. 75.
    ''Locked state'' like condition may be seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Any of the above
    A locked-in-like state with severe flaccid paralysis sparing consciousness can occur in critical illness neuropathy, severe GBS, or pharmacologic blockade.
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  76. 76.
    Hyperventilation and excessive sweating are a feature of which cerebrovascular disease ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    pontine haemorrhage
    Pontine hemorrhage often characteristically presents with hyperventilation, pinpoint pupils, and autonomic signs like hyperhidrosis.
    Report a mistake
  77. 77.
    Pronator drift is an indicator of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    upper motor neuron weakness
    Pronator drift is a sensitive neurological sign indicating subtle upper motor neuron weakness.
    Report a mistake
  78. 78.
    Which of the following is the common cause of stroke in children ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Sickle cell anaemia
    Sickle cell anemia is one of the most common systemic causes of ischemic stroke in children.
    Report a mistake
  79. 79.
    Anterior choroidal artery arises from
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Internal carotid artery
    The anterior choroidal artery is a direct branch of the internal carotid artery.
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  80. 80.
    Intracranial haemorrhage located usually in brain stem is due to which of the following ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Capillary telangiectasias
    Capillary telangiectasias are frequently located in the brainstem and can rarely cause localized hemorrhage.
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  81. 81.
    Neurofibrillary tangles in Alzheimer's disease is characterised by all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Gold staining
    Neurofibrillary tangles are visualized with silver impregnation stains (like Bielschowsky stain) rather than gold staining.
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  82. 82.
    Pathological hallmark feature of PD is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Parkinson's disease pathology is characterized by dopaminergic neuronal loss in the substantia nigra pars compacta (SNc), striatal dopamine depletion, and Lewy bodies.
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  83. 83.
    Which of the following is a cause of pure sensory neuropathy ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Friedreich ataxia, cisplatin toxicity, and megadose pyridoxine toxicity can all manifest as sensory neuropathies primarily affecting dorsal root ganglia.
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  84. 84.
    Which of the following is not a manifestation of sub-acute sclerosing panencephalitis ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Fever and headache
    SSPE typically presents insidiously with behavioral and intellectual decline, myoclonus, and seizures, without prominent acute fever and headache typical of acute encephalitis.
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  85. 85.
    Eosinophilia is not seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Rheumatoid arthritis
    Eosinophilia is typically absent in uncomplicated rheumatoid arthritis, whereas it can be seen in Hodgkin lymphoma, cutaneous T-cell lymphomas, and during certain phases of inflammatory conditions; conversely, systemic corticosteroid therapy causes eosinopenia.
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  86. 86.
    The most common inherited disorder of phagocytic function in neutrophil is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Myeoperoxidase deficiency
    Myeloperoxidase deficiency is the most common inherited neutrophil functional defect.
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  87. 87.
    Which of the following is key to initial classification of anaemia ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Reticulocyte count
    The reticulocyte count (distinguishing between hypoproliferative/hemolytic) is key to the initial physiological classification of anemia.
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  88. 88.
    Dohle bodies are inclusion bodies seen in neutrophil are found in condition
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    T oxic states
    Dohle bodies are light blue cytoplasmic inclusions in neutrophils found in toxic states, severe infections, and burns.
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  89. 89.
    Acute chest syndrome is a manifestation of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Sickle cell syndrome
    Acute chest syndrome is a well-known, life-threatening pulmonary complication of sickle cell disease.
    Report a mistake
  90. 90.
    AML is associated with the following inherited disease except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Dyskeratosis congenita
    Dyskeratosis congenita is classically associated with bone marrow failure and myelodysplastic syndrome/aplastic anemia rather than direct progression to AML compared to Fanconi or Kostmann.
    Report a mistake
  91. 91.
    Henoch-Schonlein purpura is associated with
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Increased IgA level
    Henoch-Schönlein purpura (IgA vasculitis) is characterized by elevated serum IgA levels and IgA immune complex deposition.
    Report a mistake
  92. 92.
    All are true about idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Prolonged clotting time
    In ITP, platelet count is low, but coagulation parameters like prothrombin time and clotting time remain normal.
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  93. 93.
    Hilar lymphadenopathy is seen in which type of Hodgkin's disease
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Nodular sclerosis
    Nodular sclerosis Hodgkin lymphoma frequently presents with mediastinal and hilar lymphadenopathy, especially in young women.
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  94. 94.
    True about is whole blood transfusion
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    2-3 biphosphoglycerate level falls over time
    During storage of blood, 2,3-BPG levels progressively fall, increasing hemoglobin's oxygen affinity.
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  95. 95.
    All are true about bipolar disorder except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Isolated episodes of hypomania or mania occurs
    Bipolar disorder involves episodes of both depression and mania (or hypomania), not isolated episodes of mania alone without depressive phases.
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  96. 96.
    Physical consequences of eating disorder are all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Menorrhagia
    Eating disorders like anorexia nervosa lead to amenorrhea rather than menorrhagia due to hypothalamic suppression.
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  97. 97.
    All are not true about acanthosis nigricans except
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    Answer: A —
    80% is associated with benign conditions
    The vast majority (>80%) of acanthosis nigricans cases are benign, associated with obesity, insulin resistance, or endocrine disorders.
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  98. 98.
    Nail changes consisting of yellow brown discolouration, pitting, dimpling, onycholysis, thickening is seen in
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    Answer: A —
    Psoriasis
    Pitting, oil-drop discoloration (yellow-brown), and onycholysis are classic nail changes of cutaneous psoriasis.
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  99. 99.
    All are true about childhood tuberculosis except
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    Answer: C —
    Healing by fibrosis in most of the cases
    Primary pulmonary tuberculosis in children typically heals by calcification rather than extensive fibrosis.
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  100. 100.
    Scrotal tongue is seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Down syndrome
    Fissured or scrotal tongue is a characteristic oral finding frequently seen in patients with Down syndrome.
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