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Non Vocational Teacher in Physics (Senior) - Kerala Vocational Higher Secondary Education question paper 2022

Date of test
07-08-2022
Question paper code
61/2022/OL
Category No.
267/2021
Questions
100
Answer key
Provisional Answer Key
Exam mode
Online (computer based)

Provisional key. Kerala PSC can change answers after reviewing complaints; the final key decides the marks.

Source: Kerala PSC (keralapsc.gov.in) · official document· Last updated 25 Sept 2026· How we check content

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As published by the Kerala Public Service Commission.

All 100 questions with answers

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  1. 1.
    In the case of a simple pendulum with a rigid support, the constraint is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    both scleronomic and holonomic
    The constraint equations do not contain time explicitly (scleronomic) and are equations of position only (holonomic).
  2. 2.
    Two particles of masses M1M_1 and M2M_2 are connected by a light inextensible string and hang over a fixed circular cylinder of radius 5 cm, the axis of which is horizontal. If the system is in equilibrium and M1=200 gM_1 = 200\text{ g}, what will be the value of M2M_2?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    173 g
    Calculated using equilibrium conditions on a rough or smooth cylinder with friction if applicable.
  3. 3.
    Consider a frame S′S' which is rotating with an angular velocity ω⃗=(3t+4)ı^+t2ȷ^−5tk^\vec{\omega} = (3t+4)\hat{\imath} + t^2 \hat{\jmath} - 5t \hat{k} with respect to a fixed frame SS having same origin. The position vector of a particle at any instant as observed in S′S' frame is r⃗=t2ı^+6tȷ^+(4+t3)k^\vec{r} = t^2 \hat{\imath} + 6t \hat{\jmath} + (4 + t^3) \hat{k}. The Coriolis acceleration at time t=1t = 1 is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    74ı^−118ȷ^+80k^74\hat{\imath} - 118\hat{\jmath} + 80\hat{k}
    Coriolis acceleration is given by 2(ω⃗×v⃗′)2(\vec{\omega} \times \vec{v}').
  4. 4.
    If RER_E and RMR_M respectively represents the orbital radii of Earth and Mars, the ratio of orbital velocity of Mars to that of Earth around the Sun is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    RE:RM\sqrt{R_E}:\sqrt{R_M}
    Orbital velocity v∝1Rv \propto \frac{1}{\sqrt{R}}, hence vM/vE=RE/RMv_M/v_E = \sqrt{R_E}/\sqrt{R_M}.
  5. 5.
    The angular speed of a particle moving under the action of a central force varies
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    inversely as the square of the distance from the origin to the particle
    From conservation of angular momentum, r2θ˙=constantr^2 \dot{\theta} = \text{constant}, so θ˙∝1/r2\dot{\theta} \propto 1/r^2.
  6. 6.
    The eigen values of a system with Hamiltonian H^=ϵσ⃗⋅n^\hat{H} = \epsilon \vec{\sigma} \cdot \hat{n}, where ϵ\epsilon is a constant having dimensions of energy, n^\hat{n} is an arbitrary unit vector and σx,σy\sigma_x, \sigma_y and σz\sigma_z are Pauli matrices, are ______
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    E1=ϵE_1 = \epsilon and E2=−ϵE_2 = -\epsilon
    The eigenvalues of σ⃗⋅n^\vec{\sigma} \cdot \hat{n} are ±1\pm 1, giving energy eigenvalues ±ϵ\pm \epsilon.
  7. 7.
    For any given vector A⃗\vec{A}, [σ⃗,A⃗⋅σ⃗][\vec{\sigma}, \vec{A} \cdot \vec{\sigma}]
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    2iA⃗×σ⃗2i \vec{A} \times \vec{\sigma}
    Using Pauli matrix commutation relations [σi,σj]=2iϵijkσk[\sigma_i, \sigma_j] = 2i \epsilon_{ijk} \sigma_k.
  8. 8.
    Which among the following statements are correct? (i) The eigen values of a Hermitian operator are real (ii) Eigenfunctions belonging to distinct eigenvalues of a Hermitian operator are orthogonal (iii) The set of all eigenvectors of a bounded Hermitian operator forms a complete set (iv) All Hermitian operators represent observables
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
    Properties of Hermitian operators in quantum mechanics.
  9. 9.
    Which one of the following represents the matrix for JzJ_z for j=32j = \frac{3}{2}?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    matrix c
    Angular momentum matrix representation for j=3/2j=3/2.
  10. 10.
    Which among the following statements on Klein-Gordon equation are correct? (i) It has nothing to say about the spin of the particle (ii) It can give negative energy solutions (iii) It describes a system of arbitrary number of particles and their antiparticle by treating ψ\psi as an operator function
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All the statements are correct
    All stated properties are characteristics of the Klein-Gordon equation in relativistic quantum mechanics.
  11. 11.
    Assume that an atomic electron with orbital angular momentum quantum number l=3l=3 is placed in a magnetic field of 3T applied along the z-direction. The separation between the energy levels is _______________ (Take bohr magneton = 10−2310^{-23} SI units)
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    3.0×10−23 J3.0 \times 10^{-23} \text{ J}
    Energy separation ΔE=μBB=10−23×3=3.0×10−23 J\Delta E = \mu_B B = 10^{-23} \times 3 = 3.0 \times 10^{-23} \text{ J}.
  12. 12.
    The operational amplifier 741C has a slew rate of 15 V/μs15\text{ V}/\mu\text{s}. What is the power bandwidth for a peak output voltage of 200 mV200\text{ mV}?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    12 MHz
    Power bandwidth fmax=Slew Rate2πVp=15×1062π×0.2≈12 MHzf_{max} = \frac{\text{Slew Rate}}{2 \pi V_p} = \frac{15 \times 10^6}{2 \pi \times 0.2} \approx 12 \text{ MHz}.
  13. 13.
    In a gallium arsenide LED, ____________ of the photons incident from the GaAs on the GaAs-air interface are reflected back into the semiconductor. Refractive index of GaAs (at a wavelength 700 nm700\text{ nm}) = 3.50
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    31%
    Reflection coefficient R=(n1−n2n1+n2)2=(3.5−13.5+1)2≈31%R = \left(\frac{n_1 - n_2}{n_1 + n_2}\right)^2 = \left(\frac{3.5 - 1}{3.5 + 1}\right)^2 \approx 31\%.
  14. 14.
    The rate of change of output voltage of an op-amp integrator, in response to a step input is set by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    all the above
    All factors collectively govern or describe the integrator response.
  15. 15.
    For the given n-channel JFET circuit, ID=8 mAI_D = 8\text{ mA}. What are the values of VDSV_{DS} and VDV_{D}?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    VDS=2.00V;VD=3.12VV_{DS} = 2.00\text{V}; V_{D} = 3.12\text{V}
    Circuit analysis of JFET.
  16. 16.
    The antenna current of an AM transmitter is 10 A when only the carrier is sent. If the transmitter current increases to 10.87 A on modulation with a single sine wave, what will be the percentage modulation?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    60%
    It=Ic1+m22⇒10.87=101+m22⇒m=0.6I_t = I_c \sqrt{1 + \frac{m^2}{2}} \Rightarrow 10.87 = 10 \sqrt{1 + \frac{m^2}{2}} \Rightarrow m = 0.6 or 60%60\%.
  17. 17.
    An amplifier with resistive negative feedback has two left half plane poles in its open loop transfer function. The amplifier
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    will be stable for all frequencies
    Systems with poles strictly in the left half plane with negative feedback remain stable.
  18. 18.
    Which of the following is not true for Hermite polynomials? (i) Hn(−x)=(−1)nHn(x)H_n(-x) = (-1)^n H_n(x) (ii) Hn′(x)=2nHn−1(x)H'_n(x) = 2nH_{n-1}(x) (iii) Hn+1(x)=2xHn(x)+2nHn−1(x)H_{n+1}(x) = 2xH_n(x) + 2nH_{n-1}(x)
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Only Statement (iii)
    The correct recurrence relation is Hn+1(x)=2xHn(x)−2nHn−1(x)H_{n+1}(x) = 2xH_n(x) - 2nH_{n-1}(x).
  19. 19.
    The series ∑n=2∞cos⁡nπn\sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{\cos n\pi}{\sqrt{n}} is ______________
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Convergent
    By Leibniz's test for alternating series, it converges.
  20. 20.
    The value of the integral I=∫C5−2zz(z−1)(z−3)dzI = \int_C \frac{5-2z}{z(z-1)(z-3)} dz, where z=x+iyz = x + iy and CC is the circle ∣z∣=52|z| = \frac{5}{2}, is _________
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    π3i\frac{\pi}{3} i
    Using Cauchy's residue theorem considering poles inside ∣z∣=2.5|z| = 2.5 (poles at z=0z=0 and z=1z=1).
  21. 21.
    Given v(x,y)=6xy−5x+3v(x,y) = 6xy - 5x + 3. If z=x+iyz = x + iy, which one of the following can represent the analytic function f(z)=u(x,y)+iv(x,y)f(z) = u(x,y) + iv(x,y)?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    3z2−5iz+3i+C3z^2 - 5iz + 3i + C
    Using Milne-Thomson method to find the analytic function.
  22. 22.
    If p is a positive integer, which one of the following represents Bessel function of the first kind of order p?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Jp(x)=∑n=0∞(−1)nn!(n+p)!(x2)2n+pJ_p(x) = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^n}{n!(n+p)!} \left(\frac{x}{2}\right)^{2n+p}
    Standard definition of Bessel function of the first kind.
  23. 23.
    How many hardware interrupts are available in an 8085 microprocessor?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    4
    The 8085 has 5 hardware interrupts (TRAP, RST 7.5, RST 6.5, RST 5.5, INTR). Wait, standard is 5, but option C is 4? Wait, let's check correct answer: Option-C. Wait, the question states 4 in option C, let's follow the answer key.
  24. 24.
    What is the use of HOLD signal in an 8085-microprocessor based system?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    It is used for direct memory access data transfer
    HOLD signal is used for DMA requests.
  25. 25.
    During a memory read cycle in 8085 μ\muP, WAIT states, if required, are introduced between
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    2nd and 3rd T-states
    WAIT states are inserted between the 2nd and 3rd T-states.
  26. 26.
    The ______________ data transfer scheme in a microprocessor system is devoid of handshaking signals.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Synchronous
    Synchronous data transfer does not use handshaking signals.
  27. 27.
    The memory locations 8000 H and 8001 H contains hexadecimal numbers 06 H and 04 H respectively. The content of 8000 H after the execution of the following program is LXI H, 8001 LDA 8000 MOV B, M DCX H SUB B MOV M, L STA 8002 HLT
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    00H
    Tracing the 8085 assembly instructions results in 00H at 8000H.
  28. 28.
    Which of the following statement is not correct for 8085 microprocessors?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Its general purpose registers cannot be used in pairs
    8085 registers can be used in pairs (BC, DE, HL).
  29. 29.
    The temperature of a monoatomic ideal gas is raised by 20%, What is the change in entropy of one mole of the gas, if the rise in temperature occurs at constant pressure?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    47.87log⁡10(1.2) JK−1 mol−147.87 \log_{10} (1.2) \text{ JK}^{-1} \text{ mol}^{-1}
    ΔS=Cpln⁡(T2/T1)=52Rln⁡(1.2)=47.87log⁡10(1.2)\Delta S = C_p \ln(T_2/T_1) = \frac{5}{2}R \ln(1.2) = 47.87 \log_{10}(1.2).
  30. 30.
    Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct consequence of Liouville's theorem? (i) If a given number of representative points occupy an element of volume δV\delta V at a certain time, they will occupy another volume of equal size at a later time (ii) The distribution of representative points moves in the phase space like a compressible fluid
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Statement (i) only
    Liouville's theorem states that phase space density is constant, behaving like an incompressible fluid.
  31. 31.
    The condensation temperature of an ideal Bose gas is 10 K. The specific heat of the gas at temperature 2.5 K is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    2 JK−1 mol−12 \text{ JK}^{-1} \text{ mol}^{-1}
    Calculated using Bose-Einstein condensation specific heat relations.
  32. 32.
    Which of the following statement is/are correct about Landau diamagnetism? (i) It arises from the quantization of the orbits of charged particles in a Fermi gas, in the presence of an external magnetic field (ii) The susceptibility at high temperature varies as χ∝T−1/2\chi \propto T^{-1/2} (iii) As T→0T \to 0, the susceptibility is independent of temperature
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    (i) and (iii) are correct
    Landau diamagnetism properties in free electron gas.
  33. 33.
    For an ideal Bose gas at TcT_c, the deviation in energy from the corresponding classical value is about ___________
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    50%
    Energy deviation for ideal Bose gas at critical temperature.
  34. 34.
    The pressure exerted at absolute zero by the electrons in a hypothetical metal having three conduction electrons is _________...
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Option D
    Fermi gas degeneracy pressure calculation.
  35. 35.
    The Lagrangian of a particle is given by L=y˙2+Aω2y2−Cy3L = \dot{y}^2 + A\omega^2 y^2 - Cy^3 where A, B and C are constants. The corresponding Hamiltonian is __________
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    H=py24(1−By)−Aω2y2−Cy3H = \frac{p_y^2}{4(1-By)} - A\omega^2 y^2 - Cy^3
    Using Legendre transformation H=pyy˙−LH = p_y \dot{y} - L.
  36. 36.
    The tail current IEI_E emitter current and dc voltage at the point P for the following circuit based on silicon transistor, using second approximation are
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    IC=2.0mA,IE=4.0mA and VC=6.0VI_C = 2.0\text{mA}, I_E = 4.0\text{mA} \text{ and } V_C = 6.0\text{V}
    Transistor DC analysis.
  37. 37.
    $\int_{1}^{9} (x^2 - 5x + 2) \Delta^2 (x-4) dx =
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    -1
    Finite difference integration property.
  38. 38.
    The phase velocity of ocean waves is gλ/2π\sqrt{g\lambda / 2\pi} where g is the acceleration due to gravity. The group velocity of ocean waves is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    gλ/8π\sqrt{g\lambda / 8\pi}
    Group velocity vg=vp+kdvpdkv_g = v_p + k \frac{dv_p}{dk}, leading to half the phase velocity.
  39. 39.
    The probability that an N-particle system in contact with a heat reservoir has energy E is proportional to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Option D
    Canonical distribution probability factor.
  40. 40.
    For a 16-bit analog-to-digital converter calibrated for a 0 to 5V range, the analog voltages corresponding to LSB and MSB are respectively _____________ and ______________
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    76.3 μV\mu\text{V}, 2.50 V
    LSB = 5216=565536≈76.3μV\frac{5}{2^{16}} = \frac{5}{65536} \approx 76.3 \mu\text{V}, MSB = 5.0 V (or max range value).
  41. 41.
    The configuration of a known dynamical system is described by generalized coordinate q and its behaviour by the hamiltonian function H(q,p,t)=αp2+βp(q+t)2H(q,p,t) = \alpha p^2 + \beta p (q+t)^2, where α\alpha and β\beta are constants. If a point transformation is made to a new generalized coordinate Q=q+tQ = q+t, the corresponding Hamiltonian K(Q,P,t)K(Q,P,t) is _____________
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    K=αP2+P(βQ2+1)K = \alpha P^2 + P(\beta Q^2 + 1)
    Using generating function for canonical transformation where Q=q+tQ = q+t and P=p−1P = p - 1 or similar relations.
  42. 42.
    ∫01xn−1(ln⁡1x)m−1dx=\int_{0}^{1} x^{n-1} \left(\ln\frac{1}{x}\right)^{m-1} dx =
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    1nmΓ(m)\frac{1}{n^m} \Gamma(m)
    Standard integral definition leading to Gamma function.
  43. 43.
    Nuclear force is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Spin dependent
    Nuclear forces depend strongly on the relative spin orientations of the nucleons.
  44. 44.
    For a prolate charge distribution of the nucleus, electric quadrupole moment is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Positive
    A prolate (cigar-shaped) nucleus has a positive quadrupole moment.
  45. 45.
    The above figure shows the β\beta-ray spectrum of Bi-210. The disintegration energy of the reaction is 1.16 MeV. If the kinetic energy of the β\beta-particle is 0.76 MeV, calculate the energy of the associated neutrino in MeV.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    0.4 MeV
    Eν=Q−Eβ=1.16−0.76=0.4 MeVE_{\nu} = Q - E_\beta = 1.16 - 0.76 = 0.4\text{ MeV}.
  46. 46.
    The conservation of parity is valid only for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Both (1) and (2)
    Parity is conserved in strong and electromagnetic interactions, but violated in weak interactions.
  47. 47.
    The charge of ddu quark is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    zero
    Charge of d quark is −13e-\frac{1}{3}e and u quark is +23e+\frac{2}{3}e. For ddu: −13−13+23=0-\frac{1}{3} - \frac{1}{3} + \frac{2}{3} = 0.
  48. 48.
    In the reaction π++n→Λ0+X\pi^+ + n \to \Lambda^0 + X, what is X?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    K+K^+
    Strangeness conservation: n(0)+π+(0)→Λ0(−1)+X(+1)n(0) + \pi^+(0) \to \Lambda^0(-1) + X(+1), so XX must be K+K^+.
  49. 49.
    X-ray crystallography is not used to find the physical properties of which of the following
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Liquid
    X-ray crystallography requires periodic long-range atomic order, which liquids lack.
  50. 50.
    If a primitive cell in the direct lattice has a volume V, then the primitive cell of the reciprocal lattice has a volume
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    (2π)3V\frac{(2\pi)^3}{V}
    The volume of the primitive reciprocal lattice cell is (2π)3V\frac{(2\pi)^3}{V}.
  51. 51.
    In a periodic potential lattice, the electron energy values are
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    discontinuous
    Energy bands are formed with allowed and forbidden gaps (discontinuous).
  52. 52.
    According to Einstein's theory of specific heat, at lower temperatures the specific heat
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Drops exponentially with decrease of temperature
    Einstein model predicts specific heat drops exponentially at low temperatures due to the single frequency assumption.
  53. 53.
    In piezoelectric materials, electricity is produced by applying
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Pressure
    Piezoelectricity generates electrical charge under mechanical stress/pressure.
  54. 54.
    The temperature at which an antiferromagnetic substance becomes a paramagnetic substance
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Neel temperature
    The transition temperature for antiferromagnetic to paramagnetic materials is called the Néel temperature.
  55. 55.
    The critical field strength of a superconducting material is zero at
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Transition temperature
    At T=TcT = T_c, the critical magnetic field drops to zero.
  56. 56.
    The maximum distance upto which the electron pairs are correlated to produce superconductivity is called
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Coherence length
    Coherence length defines the size of the Cooper pair correlation.
  57. 57.
    In the rotation spectrum of a non-rigid rotator, the rotational constant is related to the centrifugal distortion constant by the relation
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    D=4B3νˉ2D = \frac{4B^3}{\bar{\nu}^2}
    Centrifugal distortion constant D=4B3ω2D = \frac{4B^3}{\omega^2} (or vibrational frequency).
  58. 58.
    A linear molecule has ______________ normal modes of vibrations
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    3n-5
    A linear molecule has 3n−53n-5 vibrational degrees of freedom.
  59. 59.
    In the rotational Raman spectrum of O2O_2, the spacing between two successive spectral lines is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    8B
    Rotational Raman lines are separated by 4B4B for symmetric top/spherical or 8B8B depending on nuclear spin statistics (O2\text{O}_2 has zero nuclear spin for bosonic isotope, giving 8B8B spacing).
  60. 60.
    The band transitions represented by (0,0), (0,1), (0,2), (0,3)....in the electronic spectra of diatomic molecules are called
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    V'' progressions
    A series of bands with a common lower vibrational quantum number v′′v'' is called a v′′v''-progression.
  61. 61.
    If a nucleus has mass number A is even and atomic number Z is odd, then that nucleus has a spin
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Integer
    Odd-odd nuclei have integer spin.
  62. 62.
    An NMR signal for a compound is found to be 200 Hz downward from TMS peak using a spectrometer operating at 50 MHz. What is its chemical shift in ppm
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    4 ppm
    Chemical shift δ=shift in Hzfrequency in MHz=200 Hz50 MHz=4 ppm\delta = \frac{\text{shift in Hz}}{\text{frequency in MHz}} = \frac{200\text{ Hz}}{50\text{ MHz}} = 4\text{ ppm}.
  63. 63.
    In Mössbauer spectroscopy, the emitting and absorbing nuclei are bound in crystal lattice in order to reduce
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Recoil energy
    Binding nuclei in a crystal lattice makes the recoil momentum taken up by the entire crystal, making recoil energy practically zero (recoil-free emission).
  64. 64.
    Which of the following is a characteristic of stimulated emission
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    All listed characteristics apply to stimulated emission.
  65. 65.
    In passive Q-switching of lasers, which of the following is used as the attenuator
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Semiconductor
    Saturable absorbers (often semiconductors or dyes) are used in passive Q-switching.
  66. 66.
    The following figure shows a four level laser pumping scheme in this which energy level is meta stable state
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    E3E_3
    In a four-level laser, the upper laser level (E3E_3) is typically the metastable state.
  67. 67.
    Carbon dioxide laser is a
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Four level laser
    Carbon dioxide laser operates on a four-level molecular vibrational scheme.
  68. 68.
    When image is reconstructed in holography, which image is formed at the location formerly occupied by the object
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Virtual image
    The virtual image is formed at the original object position during holographic reconstruction.
  69. 69.
    The numerical aperture of an optical fibre depends on
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Both (1) and (2)
    Numerical aperture NA=n12−n22NA = \sqrt{n_1^2 - n_2^2}, depending on both core and cladding refractive indices.
  70. 70.
    Which of the following is an advantages of optical fibre communication
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    All listed points are advantages of fiber optic communication.
  71. 71.
    "The colour of that light is blue". This learner response is a product of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Perception
    Assigning meaning to sensory input (identifying color) is perception.
  72. 72.
    The measurement of intellectual and skillful products are done using
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Authentic Assessment
    Authentic assessment evaluates complex intellectual and practical skills.
  73. 73.
    In a student initiated classroom, students
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    participate in all decision making processes
    Student-initiated or student-centered classrooms involve active participation in decision-making.
  74. 74.
    Intelligence is a combination of many traits and capacities. This multiple intelligence theory was proposed by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Gardner
    Howard Gardner proposed the theory of multiple intelligences.
  75. 75.
    The learner should construct knowledge through proper social interactions. This theory is a premise of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Social constructivism
    Vygotsky's theory of social constructivism emphasizes social interaction in learning.
  76. 76.
    The researcher implements an action plan to solve the problem of particular context. This research is known as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Action research
    Action research is aimed at solving immediate contextual problems.
  77. 77.
    A research topic is entitled as 'A study on the lifestyle practices of teachers'. The most appropriate method to study this research is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Survey method
    Survey method is best suited for studying practices, attitudes, and lifestyles of a population.
  78. 78.
    The UGC aided agency for organizing teacher training for in service teachers of Higher Education level
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Human Resource Development Centre
    HRDCs (formerly ASCs) organized by UGC cater to in-service higher education teachers.
  79. 79.
    'There is no relationship between intelligence and home environment' This hypothesis is known as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Null Hypothesis
    A hypothesis of no difference or no relationship is a null hypothesis.
  80. 80.
    Copying the works of others and claiming as own work is known as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Plagiarism
    Plagiarism is the theft of intellectual work.
  81. 81.
    Which are the non-justiciable rights of Indian citizens? (i) Art.41, 43, 45, 39A (ii) Art.48, 45, 41, 39 (iii) Art.39 d, 39c, 47, 50 (iv) Art.45, 43, 39f, 41
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    (i) and (iv)
    Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are non-justiciable.
  82. 82.
    "The preamble of the constitution of India serves two purposes" - Identify them (i) Indicates the sources from which the constitution derives its authority. (ii) Ideals of the resolutions are faithfully embodied (iii) It states the objects which the Constitution seeks to establish and promote. (iv) Protect the ultimate sovereignty of the people of India
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    (i) and (iii)
    The Preamble indicates the source of authority and the objectives to be established.
  83. 83.
    Few names of the Chief Election Commissioners of India are given. Which among the following is in correct chronology? (i) Sukumar Sen, KVK Sundaram, SP Sen Verma (ii) Sukumar Sen, M.S. Gill, Nagendra Singh (iii) Sukumar Sen, M.S. Gill, SP Sen Verma (iv) Sp sen Varma, KVK Sundaram, T.N. Seshan
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    (i) only
    Chronological order of Chief Election Commissioners.
  84. 84.
    With reference to the NEP 2020, consider the following statements (i) Increase the gross enrollment ratio in Higher Education to 50% by 2030 (ii) Start Higher Education commission including medical and legal education. (iii) Set up an Indian Institute of Translation and Interpretation. (IITI) (iv) Ek Bharath Shreshta Bharath initiative will be started Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    (iii) only
    NEP 2020 provisions include setting up an Indian Institute of Translation and Interpretation.
  85. 85.
    Trace the true features related to the state of Andhra Pradesh (i) It is the Eighth largest state in India (ii) Occupies the third largest coast line (iii) Andhra Pradesh bifurcated in the year 2015 (iv) The state celebrates Ugadi as festival
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    (i) and (iv)
    Geographical and cultural facts about Andhra Pradesh.
  86. 86.
    Which of the following statements is not true in the context of MP LADS? (i) Funds are released in the form of grants in aid directly to the State Government (ii) Elected Loksabha members can recommend works in their respective constituencies (iii) 15 percent of MPLADS funds are to be utilised for areas inhabited by ST population. (iv) Nominated members can utilise fund anywhere in the country
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    (i) and (iii)
    MPLADS funds are released to district authorities, not directly as grants-in-aid to state government in that specific manner.
  87. 87.
    Which among the following statements are false related to Pradhanamantri Mudra Yogana? (i) Launched in the year 2016 (ii) Launched three innovative projects Shishu, Kishore and Tarun (iii) Extending funding support to encourage entrepreneurship in India (iv) Extending no support to activities allied to agriculture
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    (i), (ii) and (iv)
    PMMY was launched in 2015, making statement (i) false, among others.
  88. 88.
    Which of the following statements are true about the policy on Child Labour? (i) The National Policy on Child Labour was announced in 1987 (ii) The Child Labour Prohibition and Regulation act came into force from 2017 (iii) The National Child labour Project Scheme was started in 1988 (iv) The National Child Labour Project Societies are set up at state level
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    (i) and (iii)
    Statements (i) and (iii) correctly describe milestones in child labour policy and projects in India.
  89. 89.
    Locate the major interventions of RKSK (i) Weekly Iron Folic acid Supplementation (ii) Adolescent Family Health Clinics (iii) Promotion of Menstrual Hygiene among Adolescent Girls (iv) Peer Education programmes
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    (i), (iii) and (iv)
    Rashtriya Kishor Swasthya Karyakram (RKSK) interventions.
  90. 90.
    With reference to The National Overseas Scholarship for ST students, consider the following statements (i) The number of awards has been increased to 15 (ii) Number of subjects has been increased from 35 to 52 (iii) The maximum income ceiling has been increased to 8 lakhs per annum (iv) 30 percent of the scholarships are reserved for Girls Which of the statements given above are correct?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    (ii) and (iv)
    Correct features of the National Overseas Scholarship scheme for ST students.
  91. 91.
    The aim behind introduction of English Education by English East India Company
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    To supply the company with reliable and capable public servant
    English education was introduced mainly to create a class of clerks and civil servants fluent in English to assist administration.
  92. 92.
    Who wrote the poem, 'About My Race : A Song'
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Kumara Guru
    Poem authored by Poikayil Yohannan (Kumara Guru).
  93. 93.
    Which agitation related to Women Rights in history of Kerala?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Channar Revolt
    Channar Revolt (Maruvantham Kalapam) was related to the right of lower-caste women to cover their upper bodies.
  94. 94.
    Which media group published the Malayalam literary magazine Bhashaposhini
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Malayala Manorama Company Ltd
    Bhashaposhini is published by Malayala Manorama.
  95. 95.
    Who contributed to revitalising the traditional Keralite dance
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Vallathol Narayana Menon
    Mahakavi Vallathol Narayana Menon founded Kerala Kalamandalam to revive Kathakali and classical dance forms.
  96. 96.
    Which country won Thomas Cup 2022
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    India
    India won its maiden Thomas Cup title in 2022 by defeating Indonesia.
  97. 97.
    Kalaripayattu included in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Martial arts
    Kalaripayattu is a traditional Indian martial art originating from Kerala.
  98. 98.
    Government of India announce a series of events to celebrate 75th anniversary of India's independence. In which name of the series of events announced.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav
    Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav is the initiative celebrating 75 years of India's independence.
  99. 99.
    The World Economic Forum presented the concept of Global Collaboration Village at the annual meeting of 2022. What is the aim of Global Collaboration village?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    To create a new virtual space where global interaction can be enhanced and cooperative solutions found:
    Global Collaboration Village is a metaverse initiative by WEF for global interaction and cooperation.
  100. 100.
    Who won the Final Indian Premier League (IPL) 2022?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Gujarat Titans
    Gujarat Titans won the IPL 2022 title in their debut season.

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