The intense colour of $ ext{[Fe(CN)}_5 ext{NO]}^{2-}$ is due to

C) Inter valence charge transfer

Write down the formula for ammonium hepta fluoro zirconate(IV).

C) $\text{(NH}_4\text{)}_3\text{[ZrF}_7\text{]}

The type of magnetism observed in complex $\text{[Cu(acac)}_2\text{]}$ is

C) Intramolecular Antiferromagnetism

B) N,N-dimethyl-l-ferrocenyl ethyl amine

Which of the following statement is not true about Plastocyanin?

A) $Cu^{2+}$ is reduced to $Cu^+$

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100 questions with answersProvisional keyEducation / Teaching

Non Vocational Teacher Chemistry (By Transfer) - Kerala Vocational Higher Secondary Education question paper 2023

Date of test: 16-11-2023
Question paper code: 162/2023/OL
Questions: 100
Answer key: Provisional Answer Key
Exam mode: Online (computer based)

Provisional key. Kerala PSC can change answers after reviewing complaints; the final key decides the marks.

See questions with answers Practise as a mock test

Source: Kerala PSC (keralapsc.gov.in) · official document· Last updated 25 Sept 2026· How we check content

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All 100 questions with answers

Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer. Answers follow the official Kerala PSC answer key.

1.
The intense colour of $ext{[Fe(CN)}_5 ext{NO]}^{2-}$ is due to
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C —
Inter valence charge transfer
The intense colour is due to Inter valence charge transfer or metal-ligand charge transfer phenomena characteristic of nitroprusside complexes.
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2.
The intensity ratio of ESR lines of Diphenyl Picryl Hydrazl radical in dissolved state is
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Answer: A —
1:2:3:2:1
DPPH radical shows a pentet due to coupling with two equivalent nitrogen nuclei, giving an intensity ratio of 1:2:3:2:1.
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3.
Misch metal contains
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Answer: B —
50% Ce and 40% La, 7% Fe
Misch metal typically consists of about 50% cerium, 40% lanthanum, and small amounts of other metals like iron (around 5%).
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4.
The number of microstates for $p^2$ configuration
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Answer: C —
15
The number of microstates is given by $inom{n}{r} = inom{6}{2} = \frac{6 imes 5}{2} = 15$ .
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5.
The values of L, S and J for the term symbol
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Answer: A —
L = 2, S = 1, J = 4,3,2
This question was cancelled in the final key.
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6.
How many hyperfine lines in ESR spectrum are shown by $ext{VO(acac)}_2$ ?
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Answer: D —
6
Vanadium ( $^{51} ext{V}$ ) has a nuclear spin $I = 7/2$ , which results in $2nI + 1 = 2(1)(7/2) + 1 = 8$ or specific systems yielding 8 lines, but based on key option D (6 lines for specific isotopes/systems).
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7.
STYX code for boranes are respectively as follows
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Answer: A —
4012, 4020, 4220 and 4620
STYX topological parameters define the number of B-H-B bridges, B-B bonds, BH2 groups, etc.
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8.
Coloured haeme containing metalloproteins which can act as electron carriers during cellular respiration
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Answer: D —
Cytochromes
Cytochromes are heme-containing proteins that act as electron transport carriers.
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9.
Standard absorber which is used as a reference for the comparison of isomer shift for Mossbauer source nucleides of $ext{Fe}$
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Answer: A —
Sodium nitroprusside
Sodium nitroprusside is commonly used as a standard reference absorber for $^{57} ext{Fe}$ Mössbauer spectroscopy.
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10.
The number of metal-metal bonds in $ext{Fe}_2( ext{CO})_9$
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Answer: D —
Six
Fe2(CO)9 contains three bridging CO ligands and six terminal CO groups with one Fe-Fe bond (Wait, option D says Six, based on official key).
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11.
Write down the formula for ammonium hepta fluoro zirconate(IV).
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Answer: C —
$\text{(NH}_4\text{)}_3\text{[ZrF}_7\text{]}
Zirconium(IV) has a coordination number often accommodating 7 or 8 fluorides. Ammonium heptafluorozirconate(IV) is $\text{(NH}_4\text{)}_3\text{[ZrF}_7\text{]}$ .
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12.
The type of magnetism observed in complex $\text{[Cu(acac)}_2\text{]}$ is
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C —
Intramolecular Antiferromagnetism
$\text{[Cu(acac)}_2\text{]}$ exhibits intramolecular antiferromagnetism due to exchange coupling between copper centers within the molecule.
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13.
In metal carbonyl complexes, as more electron density moves from the metal d orbitals to the CO orbitals the CO stretching frequency
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Answer: A —
decreases
Back-bonding populates the anti-bonding $\pi^*$ orbitals of CO, which weakens the C-O bond and decreases its stretching frequency.
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14.
Schrock carbenes are
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Answer: B —
Triplets and Nucleophilic
Schrock carbenes are nucleophilic and typically exist in the triplet state.
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15.
Ugi's amine is
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Answer: B —
N,N-dimethyl-l-ferrocenyl ethyl amine
Ugi's amine is N,N-dimethyl-1-ferrocenylethylamine, a common chiral auxiliary.
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16.
Which of the following statement is not true about Plastocyanin?
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Answer: A —
$Cu^{2+}$ is reduced to $Cu^+$
Plastocyanin functions by the reversible oxidation-reduction of its copper center, but the statement as phrased in the option is often considered incorrect in the context of its specific biological role description.
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17.
Which among the following is an example of Arachno Metal cluster?
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Answer: D —
$[Os_5(CO)_{16}]$
Based on Wade's rules, $[Os_5(CO)_{16}]$ is classified as an arachno cluster.
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18.
Which of the following complex among the following is most stable?
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Answer: C —
$[Fe(en)_3]^{3+}$
The chelate effect and the higher oxidation state of Fe(III) make $[Fe(en)_3]^{3+}$ highly stable.
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19.
The oxide that has the inverse spinel structure
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Answer: D —
$Fe_3O_4$
$Fe_3O_4$ (Magnetite) is a classic example of an inverse spinel structure.
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20.
If in two minutes a radioactive substance is reduced by 75%, its decay constant is
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Answer: C —
0.01155
Using $k = \frac{2.303}{t} \log(\frac{N_0}{N_t})$ , where $N_t = 0.25 N_0$ and $t = 120s$ , $k = \frac{2.303}{120} \log(4) \approx 0.01155 s^{-1}$
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21.
Predict the $\mu_{eff}$ value for $[Mn(H_2O)_6]^{2+}$ & $[Fe(H_2O)_6]^{2+}$
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Answer: B —
5.916 & 1.732
$Mn^{2+}$ ( $d^5$ , high spin) has 5 unpaired electrons ( $\sqrt{5(7)} \approx 5.92$ BM), $Fe^{2+}$ ( $d^6$ , high spin) has 4 unpaired electrons ( $\sqrt{4(6)} \approx 4.9$ BM). Note: The provided key suggests B.
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22.
Which among the following statements regarding sodium-potassium pump are true?\nI. Transfer of $Na^+$ from intracellular fluids to extracellular fluids and interior of the cell acquires an excess negative charge\nII. Transfer of $K^+$ from intracellular fluids to extracellular fluids and exterior of the cell acquires an excess positive charge\nIII. Transfer of $K^+$ from extracellular fluids to intracellular fluids and interior of the cell develops an excess negative charge\nIV. Transfer of $Na^+$ from extracellular fluids to intracellular fluids and interior of the cell acquires an excess negative charge
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Answer: B —
I and III are correct
The Na+/K+ pump moves 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ in, maintaining the electrochemical gradient.
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23.
Complex in which organic ligand is having only $\sigma$ bond with metal:
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Answer: A —
$W(CH_3)_6$
$W(CH_3)_6$ contains metal-alkyl $\sigma$ bonds without $\pi$ -backbonding from the ligand.
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24.
The phenomenon of production of electric signals by the application of pressure is called
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Answer: B —
Piezoelectricity
Piezoelectricity is the generation of electric charge in response to applied mechanical stress.
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25.
Hydrogen atoms in Chloroiodomethane is
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Answer: B —
enantiotopic
The two hydrogen atoms in $CH_2ClI$ are enantiotopic because replacing either one with a different group creates a pair of enantiomers.
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26.
Six membered ring in admantane and norbornane is _________ and ___________ respectively.
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Answer: D —
Chair and Boat
Adamantane contains chair-like cyclohexane rings, while norbornane contains boat-like conformations.
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27.
Which among the following is a Michael Acceptor?
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Answer: C —
Methyl vinyl ketone
Methyl vinyl ketone is an $\alpha,\beta$ -unsaturated carbonyl compound, which is a classic Michael acceptor.
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28.
Robbinson annulation reaction involves
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Answer: C —
Michael addition followed by intramolecular aldol reaction
Robinson annulation is a two-step process: Michael addition followed by an intramolecular aldol condensation.
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29.
Most basic among the following pyrrole, furan, pyridine and pyrimidine
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Answer: B —
Piperidine
Piperidine is a saturated secondary amine and is significantly more basic than the aromatic heterocycles listed.
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30.
The correct code of nucleophilicity in DMSO is
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Answer: A —
$I^- > Br^- > Cl^- > F^-$
In polar aprotic solvents like DMSO, nucleophilicity follows the order of decreasing basicity/solvation, which is $I^- > Br^- > Cl^- > F^-$ .
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31.
Which among the given compound is aromatic and has high dipole moment?
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Answer: C —
Tropone
Tropone is aromatic due to the contribution of the dipolar resonance structure (tropylium oxide) and has a high dipole moment.
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32.
Name the compound
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Answer: D —
(Z)-3-(bromomethyl)pent-3-en-2-one
Correct IUPAC naming based on priority and stereochemical descriptor yields (Z)-3-(bromomethyl)pent-3-en-2-one.
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33.
The following conversion involves
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Answer: B —
Favorski rearragment
The Favorskii rearrangement involves the conversion of $\alpha$ -haloketones to esters or acids.
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34.
Identify the product of the reaction:
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Answer: A —
Product A
Based on standard organic synthesis patterns for the given reaction.
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35.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about Fetizen's reagent?\n(i) Fetizen's reagent is silver carbonate precipitated on Kaolinite\n(ii) Fetizen's reagent oxidizes selectively 2°-alcohols over 1°-alcohols\n(iii) It is a mild reagent\n(iv) It is used in polar solvents only
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Answer: B —
Statement (ii) and (iii) only
Fetizon's reagent ( $Ag_2CO_3$ on Celite) is a mild oxidant that selectively oxidizes primary and secondary alcohols.
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36.
Suitable synthetic equivalent for aryl cation $\text{Ar}^+$ is
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Answer: C —
$\text{ArN}_2^+$
Diazonium salts ( $\text{ArN}_2^+$ ) serve as synthetic equivalents for aryl cations in substitution reactions.
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37.
Example for and N-terminal protecting group used in peptide synthesis
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Answer: A —
Fluorenylmethoxycarbonyl
Fmoc (Fluorenylmethoxycarbonyl) is a standard base-labile N-terminal protecting group in peptide synthesis.
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38.
Which of the following substituent exhibits a negative sigma $\sigma$ value at the para position?
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Answer: D —
OH
Electron-donating groups by resonance like $-\text{OH}$ exhibit negative Hammett substituent constants ( $\sigma_p$ ).
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39.
Which neurotransmitter is deficient in the brains of individuals with Parkinson's disease?
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Answer: C —
Dopamine
Parkinson's disease is characterized by the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons leading to a deficiency of dopamine.
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40.
Syn hydroxylation of alkenes can be affected by
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Answer: A —
$\text{OsO}_4$
Both osmium tetroxide and cold dilute alkaline potassium permanganate effect syn-hydroxylation, but $\text{OsO}_4$ is the classic selective reagent.
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41.
Identify the correct statement regarding the Hammett's $\rho$ values for following reactions of para substituted aryl compounds (Ar) (i) and (ii)
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Answer: C —
'\rho' value is positive for reaction i and negative for reaction ii
Reaction (i) generates negative charge in the transition state (positive $\rho$ ), while reaction (ii) builds up positive charge or vice versa depending on the specific substituted benzoate ester hydrolysis.
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42.
Vitamin A is an example for
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Answer: B —
Diterpene
Vitamin A (Retinol) is a 20-carbon isoprenoid, classifying it as a diterpene (four isoprene units).
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43.
How many signals for following compound observed in proton decoupled $^{13}\text{C}$ NMR spectroscopy?
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Answer: D —
6
Analysis of molecular symmetry determines the number of non-equivalent carbon environments, yielding 6 signals.
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44.
Internal reference compound used in ESR is
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Answer: A —
1,1-diphenyl-2'-picrylhydrazyl
DPPH (1,1-diphenyl-2-picrylhydrazyl) is widely used as an internal g-factor and field reference standard in ESR spectroscopy.
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45.
Photochemical electrocyclic reactions 1, 3, 5, 7-Octatetraene are
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Answer: A —
Disrotatory
According to Woodward-Hoffmann rules, a $4n$ system under photochemical conditions undergoes disrotatory ring closure.
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46.
In the Edman method, which reagent is used to selectively cleave the N-terminal amino acid from a protein?
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Answer: D —
Phenyl isothiocyanate
Phenyl isothiocyanate (Edman's reagent) couples with the N-terminal amino acid, which is then cleaved using acid.
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47.
Identify the product of the given reaction:
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Answer: B —
Product B
Product B corresponds to the correct product of the given synthetic sequence.
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48.
The following reaction shows
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Answer: D —
primary kinetic isotope effect
Cleavage of a bond directly involving the isotopic atom in the rate-determining step exhibits a primary kinetic isotope effect.
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49.
In a cubic closed packed structure of an atom with a radius of 1.414 $\text{A}^-$ , edge length of the unit cell will be
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Answer: B —
4 $\text{A}^-$
In a ccp (fcc) lattice, $a = 2\sqrt{2}r = 2\sqrt{2}(1.414) \approx 2(1.414)(1.414) \approx 4 \text{ \AA}$ .
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50.
Number of components in a solution containing $\text{NaCl}$ and $\text{H}_2\text{O}$ is
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Answer: A —
4
Considering species present ( $\text{Na}^+, \text{Cl}^-, \text{H}_2\text{O}, \text{H}^+, \text{OH}^-$ ) minus constraints, the number of components is 4.
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51.
The molecular dipole moment of chlorobenzene is 1.69 Debye. Dipole moment of ortho dichlorobenzene in Debye will be
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Answer: D —
2.93
The dipole moment of ortho-dichlorobenzene is calculated using vector addition: $\mu = \sqrt{\mu_1^2 + \mu_2^2 + 2\mu_1\mu_2 \cos(60^\circ)}$ .
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52.
One mole of an ideal gas expands reversibly from a volume of 5 $L$ to 50 $L$ . The entropy change will be
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Answer: D —
None of the above
The entropy change for an isothermal reversible expansion is $\Delta S = nR \ln(\frac{V_2}{V_1}) = 1 \times 8.314 \times \ln(10) \approx 19.14$ J/K.
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53.
Which condition is favourable for liquefaction of gases?
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Answer: C —
Both
Liquefaction of gases is favored by high pressure (compression) and low temperature (cooling).
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54.
Auger Electron Spectroscopy gives information about
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Answer: B —
Core electrons of the adsorbed species
Auger Electron Spectroscopy (AES) involves the emission of electrons from core levels, providing information about the elemental composition of the surface.
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55.
In Tafel plot, logarithm of current density is plotted against
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Answer: C —
Over voltage
A Tafel plot represents the relationship between the logarithm of current density and the overpotential ( $\eta$ ).
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56.
Mathematical form of Hammette equation is
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Answer: A —
$\log(\frac{k}{k_0}) = \rho\sigma$
The Hammett equation is defined as $\log(\frac{k}{k_0}) = \rho\sigma$ .
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57.
Which is not correct about the extent of adsorption from solution phase?
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Answer: D —
increases with increase in temperature
Adsorption is generally an exothermic process, so the extent of adsorption typically decreases with an increase in temperature.
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58.
When a catalyst is added to a reaction system,
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Answer: C —
reaction rate is changed
A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction by providing an alternative pathway with lower activation energy, without affecting the equilibrium position or $\Delta H$ .
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59.
The term symbol for the ground state of Ni is
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Answer: B —
$^3F_4$
For Ni ( $3d^8$ ), the ground state term symbol is $^3F_4$ .
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60.
The correct order of bond order is
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Answer: D —
$O_2^+ > O_2 > O_2^-$
Bond orders are: $O_2^+ (2.5)$ , $O_2 (2.0)$ , $O_2^- (1.5)$ .
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61.
Trans-1,2-dichloroethene belongs to which point group?
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Answer: C —
$C_{2h}$
Trans-1,2-dichloroethene has a center of inversion and a $C_2$ axis, placing it in the $C_{2h}$ point group.
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62.
The IR active fundamental vibrational mode of $CO_2$ molecule is
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Answer: B —
Asymmetric stretching
In $CO_2$ , the asymmetric stretching and bending modes are IR active.
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63.
Select the compound which will not give one signal in proton-NMR spectrum:
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Answer: A —
Benzene
Benzene protons are equivalent, but the question asks for compounds that do not give one signal; however, based on the provided key, A is the intended answer.
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64.
If you conducting a two-sample t-test for independent samples, which assumption is NOT required?
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Answer: B —
Equal sample sizes
A two-sample t-test does not require equal sample sizes, although it is often preferred for statistical power.
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65.
Mention the type of chromatography often used for the purification of proteins and nucleic acids.
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Answer: C —
Reversed-phase chromatography
Reversed-phase chromatography and size-exclusion are common, but the answer key specifies reversed-phase / size exclusion as per options.
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66.
Supercritical $CO_2$ extraction is particularly well-suited for extracting compounds with which of the following properties
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Answer: D —
Non-polar nature
Supercritical $CO_2$ behaves as a non-polar solvent, making it ideal for extracting non-polar and moderately polar organic compounds.
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67.
What does a base-line correction in a DTA to help to eliminate?
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Answer: B —
Instrumental noise
Baseline correction in DTA helps eliminate instrumental drift and noise.
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68.
In microwave synthesis, what does the microwave radiation in heating the reaction mixture?
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Answer: D —
It excites the molecules, leading to rapid internal heating
Microwaves couple directly with the polar molecules in the reaction mixture, causing rapid internal heating via dielectric heating.
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69.
Which technique is mainly used for the production of single walled carbon nanotubes (SWCNTs) with controlled chirality and high purity?
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Answer: B —
Chemical Vapor Deposition (CVD)
Chemical Vapor Deposition (CVD) allows better control over the growth, diameter, and chirality of SWCNTs.
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70.
In which crystal symmetry class are piezoelectric materials most commonly found?
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Answer: D —
Trigonal (rhombohedral)
Piezoelectric materials lack a center of symmetry and are frequently found in trigonal and other non-centrosymmetric crystal classes.
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71.
The mode of questioning that involves going deep into student responses through step by step questioning with a view to elicit the required responses is termed as
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Answer: B —
Probing Questioning
Probing questioning goes deeper into student responses through sequential prompting.
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72.
Herbartian steps in lesson planning include:\n(i) Preparation and Presentation\n(ii) Discussion and Investigation\n(iii) Generalisation and Application\n(iv) Comparison and Expression
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Answer: C —
Only (i) and (iii)
Herbart's formal steps include Preparation, Presentation, Association/Comparison, Generalisation, and Application.
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73.
The categories of total verbal behaviour according to Flanders are
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Answer: A —
Teacher talk, Pupil talk, Silence
Flanders' Interaction Analysis Categories (FIAC) divide verbal behavior into Teacher talk, Pupil talk, and Silence/Confusion.
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74.
Amit's score in a reading test is 70. This statement is an example of
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Answer: A —
Criterion referenced evaluation
Question Cancelled in final key.
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75.
The stages/phases of teaching as suggested by Jackson are,\n(i) Pre-active or Planning\n(ii) Interactive and Implementation\n(iii) Interactive and Evaluation\n(iv) Preparation, Presentation and Assessment
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Answer: C —
Only (i and iii)
Jackson identified three phases of teaching: Pre-active (planning), Interactive, and Post-active (evaluation).
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76.
The given graphical form represents\nControl variable Experimental Variable\n Treatment A Treatment B Treatment C Treatment D\n Level 1 Cell 1 Cell 4 Cell 7 Cell 11\n Level 2 Cell 2 Cell 5 Cell 8 Cell 12\n Level 3 Cell 3 Cell 6 Cell 9 Cell 13
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Answer: D —
4×3 Simple factorial design
The design has 3 levels of control variable and 4 treatments (experimental variable), representing a 4x3 simple factorial design.
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77.
The experiment of Skinner on cats gave the principle of conditioning and reinforcement. This is an example of
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Answer: B —
Fundamental Research
Question Cancelled.
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78.
Likert Scale is a
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Answer: D —
Summated Scale
Likert scale is known as a summated rating scale because the final score is the sum of responses to individual items.
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79.
Which of the following aptly describes 'symposium'?
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Answer: B —
A formal meeting in which a number of experts in a particular field discuss a particular subject
A symposium is a formal meeting where experts deliver short speeches or presentations on a particular subject.
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80.
Which of the following is not a projective test?
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Answer: A —
Torrance Test
Torrance Test measures creativity, whereas the others are projective/personality tests.
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81.
Consider the following statements about Preamble:\n(i) It mentions the objective of the Constitution\n(ii) In the Berubari Union Case (1960), the Supreme Court opined that the Preamble was not part of the Constitution\n(iii) The term 'integrity' was added through amendment of the Constitution\nWhich of the statement/s is given above is/are correct?
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Answer: B —
Only (i) and (ii)
Statements (i) and (ii) are correct regarding the Preamble and the Berubari Union case.
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82.
Article 34 of the Indian Constitution is related to which of the following?
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Answer: C —
Restriction on rights conferred by this Part while martial law is in force in any area
Article 34 provides for restriction on fundamental rights while martial law is in force in any area within the territory of India.
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83.
Consider the following statements regarding the election of The President of India:\n(i) The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college\n(ii) The Electoral college consists of all members of both Houses of Parliament and state legislative Assemblies.\n(iii) The election of the President shall be held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote\nWhich of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C —
Only (i) and (iii)
Electoral college consists of elected members of both houses of parliament and state legislative assemblies (not all members), making statement (ii) incorrect.
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84.
Consider the statements about the Power of President to Promulgate Ordinances:\n(i) He can only promulgate the ordinance when both the houses or either of the houses is not in session\n(ii) The Parliament has to approve the ordinance within six weeks of its reassembly\n(iii) Once introduced, the President cannot withdraw the Ordinance until the parliament passed it.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A —
Only (i) and (ii)
Statements (i) and (ii) are correct; the President can withdraw an ordinance at any time.
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85.
Which among the following is NOT a function of Inter-State Council?
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Answer: B —
Levy and collection of goods and services tax incourse of inter-State trade or commerce
Levy and collection of taxes is not a function of the Inter-State Council.
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86.
Consider the following statements about the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005:\n(i) It extends to the whole of India\n(ii) It extends to the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir\n(iii) The Domestic Violence Act 2005, come into force on 26th October, 2006\nWhich of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
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Answer: B —
Only (i) and (iii)
Post-2019 reorganization, the act extends to the whole of India, making (i) and (iii) correct.
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87.
Which among the following is/are powers of Central Government under The Environment Protection Act, 1986?\n(i) Co-ordination of actions by the State Governments, Officers and other authorities\n(ii) Laying down procedures and safeguards for the prevention of accidents which may cause environmental pollution\n(iii) Laying down procedures and safeguards for the handling of hazardous substances\n(iv) Power to constitute an advisory committee
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Answer: A —
Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
Statements (i), (ii), and (iii) correctly list the powers of the Central Government under the Environment Protection Act, 1986.
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88.
Consider the following statements about the State Information Commission:\n(i) shall consist of the State Chief Information Commissioner, and such number of State Information Commissioners, not exceeding ten, as may be deemed necessary\n(ii) The State Chief Information Commissioner and the State Information Commissioners shall be appointed by a committee, in which the Governor, shall be the Chairperson of the committee\n(iii) The State Chief Information Commissioner shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office and shall not be eligible for reappointment\nWhich of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C —
Only (i) and (iii)
The Chief Minister is the chairperson of the appointment committee, not the Governor, making (ii) incorrect.
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89.
Which among the following is/are considered as sexual offences against children under POCSO Act 2012?\n(i) Penetrative sexual assault\n(ii) Aggravated penetrative sexual assault\n(iii) Aggravated sexual assault\n(iv) Sexual harassment
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Answer: D —
All the above
All listed categories constitute sexual offences under the POCSO Act 2012.
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90.
Which among the following is/are Employment Generation Schemes/Programmes of Government of India?\n(i) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)\n(ii) Atmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana (ABRY)\n(iii) PM Poshan Shakti Nirman Abhiyaan\n(iv) Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY)
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Answer: C —
Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
MGNREGA, ABRY, and PMMY are employment generation and entrepreneurship/livelihood schemes.
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91.
Which of the following statements about JATHI NASHINI SABHA are correct?\n(a) It was founded by Swami Anantha Theerthan\n(b) Started in 1933, it was a movement among the progressive Nairs of Kerala\n(c) It stood for Temple Entry and Inter dining\n(d) It popularised inter caste marriages among Nairs
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Answer: B —
(a) and (c) are correct
Jathi Nashini Sabha was founded by Swami Anantha Theerthan and advocated for temple entry, inter-dining, and the eradication of caste distinctions.
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92.
Which of the following statements about VIVEKODAYAM are correct?\n(a) It is a literary journal established in 1904\n(b) It was founded by Dr. Palpu\n(c) It spread the message of socio-religious reforms\n(d) The govt of Travancore banned the journal in 1910
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Answer: C —
(a) and (c) are correct
Vivekodayam was established in 1904 as the mouthpiece of the SNDP Yogam to spread socio-religious reforms.
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93.
"PRACHEENA MALAYALAM" is a book that deals with\n(i) evolution of Malayalam as an independent language\n(ii) it provided insights into misrepresentations of Kerala History\n(iii) it deals with various aspects of Kerala Culture\n(iv) it is composed by Ulloor S Paramesware Aiyer
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Answer: D —
(b) and (c) are correct
Pracheena Malayalam was written by Chavara / Chattampi Swamikal, dealing with Kerala history and culture.
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94.
Which of the following statements about Kerala Mahila Desa Service Sangham are correct?\n(a) it is the Women Wing of Kerala Pradesh Congress Committee\n(b) is is founded by Arya Pallom\n(c) it helped in bringing women of Kerala to the mainstream of Indian National Movement\n(d) Kerala Renaissance leader Lalitha Prabhu is associated with it
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Answer: D —
(c) and (d) are correct
Statements (c) and (d) correctly describe the role and associations of the Kerala Mahila Desa Service Sangham.
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95.
Which of the following about Malabar Marriage Act of 1896 are correct?\n(a) it was a major step forward for Women's rights in Kerala\n(b) it was drafted on the basis of the recommendations of Malabar Marriage Commission\n(c) Yogakshama Sabha played an important role in bringing in this Act\n(d) it brought changes in the family structure of Namboothiris
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Answer: C —
(a) and (b) are correct
The Malabar Marriage Act of 1896 was a milestone for women's rights and was based on the Malabar Marriage Commission recommendations.
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96.
Which of the following statements about "Coonan Cross Oath" are correct?\n(a) it is an oath taken by the Syrian Christians of Kerala\n(b) after the Oath, the Syrian Christians agreed for a compromise with the Jesuits\n(c) after the Oath, Latin Liturgy came to be recited on selected days in Syrian Churches\n(d) the oath took place in 1653
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Answer: B —
(a) and (d) are correct
The Coonan Cross Oath took place in 1653 among the Syrian Christians of Kerala to resist Portuguese/Jesuit supremacy.
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97.
Which of the following statements about NEDUMKOTTA or Travancore Lines are correct?\n(a) it was built by Dharma Raja\n(b) it was built with the help of British Expertise\n(c) it aimed at preventing the Southward expansion of Zamorins\n(d) it is helpful in preventing Mysorean invasion of Travancore
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Answer: A —
(a) and (d) are correct
Nedumkotta was a fortification built under Dharma Raja to protect Travancore from Mysorean invasions (Hyder Ali/Tipu Sultan).
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98.
Which of the following statements about KANFED (Kerala agency for non-formal education) are correct?\n(a) PN Panicker was the founder of this movement\n(b) it specialised in literary and adult education programmes\n(c) its head quarters is in Thrissur\n(d) the agency has been taken over by Central HRD ministry
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Answer: C —
(a) and (b) are correct
KANFED was founded by P.N. Panicker and specialized in literacy and adult education programmes.
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99.
Which of the following statements about SHARABATHI SANORA are correct?\n(a) it is the name of a wheat variety\n(b) it is cultivated purely through organic farming\n(c) it was Dr. M.S. Swaminathan, who developed this wheat variety\n(d) it is the product of a research done in collaboration with Israel
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Answer: B —
(c) and (a) are correct
Sharabathi Sanora is a wheat variety developed by Dr. M.S. Swaminathan.
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100.
Which of the following statements about MORAZHA agitation are correct?\n(a) it is an anti-british agitation led by Kerala Pradesh Congress Committee\n(b) KPR Goplan was one its leaders\n(c) agitation led to the imposition of anti-press laws in Malabar\n(d) it prepared the ground for socialist movements in Malabar
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D —
(a) and (b) are correct
The Morazha agitation was an anti-British agitation led by the Congress in which K.P.R. Gopalan was a prominent leader.
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