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All 100 questions with answers

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  1. 1.
    A person with posterior interosseous nerve palsy
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    On active dorsiflexion the wrist goes into radial deviation
    Posterior interosseous nerve palsy paralyzes the extensor carpi radialis brevis and extensor carpi ulnaris, leading to radial deviation during active dorsiflexion due to the intact extensor carpi radialis longus.
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  2. 2.
    Using Hertel's criteria the humeral head has a bad prognosis when the
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    medial hinge is displaced 3 mm
    Displacement of the medial hinge by more than 2 mm is one of Hertel's radiographic predictors of humeral head ischemia.
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  3. 3.
    Vickers ligament is seen in almost all operated cases of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Madelung deformity
    Vickers ligament is an abnormal volar radiolunate ligament characteristic of Madelung deformity.
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  4. 4.
    The muscle that is acting when there is a positive Froment's sign is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Flexor pollicis longus
    Froment's sign tests for ulnar nerve palsy, where compensation is achieved by flexing the thumb IP joint using the flexor pollicis longus.
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  5. 5.
    Bubbles and strips appearance in the X-ray is seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    monostotic fibrous dysplasia
    Monostotic fibrous dysplasia characteristically presents with a 'bubbles and strips' or 'ground glass' appearance on radiographs.
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  6. 6.
    Except for the pattern of inheritance homocystinuria closely mimics
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    Answer: C —
    Marfan syndrome
    Homocystinuria is an autosomal recessive disorder that clinically mimics Marfan syndrome (which is autosomal dominant).
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  7. 7.
    Ludloff sign is positive in avulsion of
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    Answer: D —
    lesser trochanter
    Ludloff sign (inability to lift the heel from the bed in sitting position) is characteristic of lesser trochanter avulsion fracture.
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  8. 8.
    The length of the arm segment during a clinical examination is measured from
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    angle of acromion to lateral epicondyle
    The arm length is clinically measured from the angle of the acromion to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus.
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  9. 9.
    Radiocarpal subluxation is a salient feature of which of these fractures ?
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    Answer: B —
    Barton's fracture
    Barton's fracture is an intra-articular fracture-dislocation of the distal radius with radiocarpal subluxation.
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  10. 10.
    Which of the following joints are together called Chopart's joint ?
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    Answer: C —
    talonavicular and calcaneocuboid
    Chopart's joint (transverse tarsal joint) is formed by the talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints.
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  11. 11.
    Muscle of the posterior compartment of leg most prone for Volkmans ischaemic contracture is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    flexor hallucis longus
    Flexor hallucis longus is deeply situated and most prone to ischemia in Volkmann's ischemic contracture of the leg.
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  12. 12.
    In a long standing case of compound palmar ganglion one can get all the following except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    ulnar nerve symptoms
    Compound palmar ganglion typically causes median nerve compression (carpal tunnel syndrome), not ulnar nerve symptoms.
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  13. 13.
    While fixing a subtrochanteric fracture with a DCS the entry point of the guide wire for the DCS screw should be
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    At the junction of the anterior one third and posterior two thirds of the greater trochanter
    The proper entry point for a dynamic condylar screw (DCS) guide wire is at the junction of the anterior one-third and posterior two-thirds of the greater trochanter.
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  14. 14.
    Subchondral compression of the bone at the angle between the tibial plafond and the base of the medial malleolus is seen in medial malleolar fractures involved in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    adduction injury
    An adduction injury to the ankle typically produces a transverse medial malleolar fracture with a subchondral impacted compression area.
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  15. 15.
    Cole's method is used to fix
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    Answer: B —
    tendon to bone
    Cole's method is a technique used for tendon-to-bone fixation.
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  16. 16.
    While exposing the proximal fourth of radius through the Henry's approach the supinator can be safely
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    incised medially and retracted laterally
    In Henry's approach, the supinator is incised medially along its insertion and retracted laterally to protect the posterior interosseous nerve.
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  17. 17.
    Functional position of the wrist is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    twenty degree dorsiflexion
    The functional position of the wrist is 20 to 30 degrees of dorsiflexion (extension) with slight ulnar deviation.
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  18. 18.
    T o expose the radial nerve in a posterior approach to the humerus one has to dissect
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    Answer: D —
    between the long and lateral head of triceps
    In the posterior approach to the humerus, the radial nerve is found in the spiral groove by developing the interval between the long and lateral heads of the triceps.
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  19. 19.
    Pulvertaft technique is used for suturing a tendon of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Small diameter to one of large diameter
    The Pulvertaft weave technique is specifically designed for tendon transfers where a smaller diameter tendon is sutured to a larger one.
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  20. 20.
    In Axer osteotomy to get containment of the anterolateral segment we should do
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    a subtrochanteric osteotomy with adduction and external rotation of the distal fragment
    Axer osteotomy involves a subtrochanteric osteotomy with adduction and external rotation to improve femoral head containment.
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  21. 21.
    Milch type 1 fracture is Salter Harris
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    Answer: C —
    type 4
    Milch type 1 fracture of the lateral condyle of the humerus corresponds to a Salter-Harris type 4 injury.
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  22. 22.
    Regarding excision of carpal bones i. lunate may be excised by itself. ii. when triquetrum is excised both lunate and scaphoid are also excised. iii. when scaphoid is excised both triquetrum and lunate are also excised. iv. excising pisiform is unnecessary.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    all the statements are correct
    All listed statements regarding carpal bone excision patterns are clinically accepted in orthopedic literature.
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  23. 23.
    In Enneking's staging, Stage 2B is
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    Answer: A —
    high grade extracompartmental
    In the Enneking staging system, 2 refers to high grade and B refers to extracompartmental involvement.
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  24. 24.
    If the MESS ischaemia score is doubled, then the time of ischaemia is more than
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    6 hours
    The Mangled Extremity Severity Score (MESS) assigns points for ischemia duration, with 6 hours being a critical threshold.
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  25. 25.
    Multiple enchondromatosis when associated with haemangiomas of the overlying soft tissues is called
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Maffucci's syndrome
    Maffucci syndrome is characterized by multiple enchondromas and soft tissue hemangiomas.
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  26. 26.
    Heuter schede approach is used for draining the
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    Answer: A —
    hip joint
    The Hueter approach (anterior approach) is commonly used for hip joint procedures and drainage.
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  27. 27.
    Fallen fragment sign is pathognomonic of
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    Answer: C —
    unicameral bone cyst
    The fallen fragment sign is a classic radiographic sign seen in unicameral (simple) bone cysts.
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  28. 28.
    Clutton's joint is classically,
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    asymptomatic symmetrical synovitis
    Clutton's joint is a manifestation of congenital syphilis, typically presenting as painless, symmetrical synovitis of the knees.
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  29. 29.
    Which of the following is intertrochanteric medial displacement osteotomy ?
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    Answer: B —
    Mc Murray's Osteotomy
    McMurray's osteotomy is a classic intertrochanteric medial displacement osteotomy used for non-union of femoral neck fractures.
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  30. 30.
    Squaring of the patella and widening of the intercondylar notch are classically seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Haemophilic arthritis
    These radiographic features are characteristic of chronic hemophilic arthropathy.
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  31. 31.
    Cozen's test is positive in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Tennis elbow
    Cozen's test is a provocative test used to diagnose lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow.
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  32. 32.
    Regarding atraumatic shoulder instability which of the following is false
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    Answer: C —
    unilateral
    Atraumatic shoulder instability is typically multidirectional and bilateral, making 'unilateral' the false statement.
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  33. 33.
    Radial dysplasia is associated with
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    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Radial dysplasia (radial club hand) is a known association in Holt-Oram, TAR syndrome, and various muscular anomalies.
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  34. 34.
    Siffert-Katz sign is primarily due to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Posteromedial defect in the medial tibial condyle
    The Siffert-Katz sign is associated with a posteromedial defect in the medial tibial condyle, often seen in Blount's disease.
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  35. 35.
    Which is a cancellous insert graft ?
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    Answer: B —
    Nicoll graft
    The Nicoll graft is a well-known technique involving the use of cancellous bone inserts.
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  36. 36.
    Fairbank's triangle is typically described in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Congenital coxa vara
    Fairbank's triangle (a triangular bone fragment inferior to the femoral neck) is characteristic of congenital coxa vara.
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  37. 37.
    In which of the following the hip is dislocated in stage 1 of the test
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    Answer: A —
    Barlow's test
    In Barlow's provocative test, an unstable hip is dislocated out of the acetabulum (stage 1 of the maneuver).
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  38. 38.
    When tibialis anterior and posterior are weak and the peronei are strong in the orthosis we should give ?
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    Answer: A —
    outside iron and inner T strap
    When evertors (peronei) overpower the invertors, an orthosis with an outside upright (iron) and an inner T-strap is used to correct valgus deformity.
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  39. 39.
    Gallows traction without posterior gutter splint can be given upto the age of _____ years.
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    Answer: B —
    2
    Gallows (Bryant's) traction is generally indicated for children under 2 years of age and weighing less than 12-14 kg.
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  40. 40.
    In congenital pseudarthrosis tibia march fracture is seen in Boyd type
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    Answer: A —
    4
    Boyd Type IV congenital pseudarthrosis of the tibia typically presents as a simple 'march' fracture or cyst prior to complete pseudarthrosis.
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  41. 41.
    Chicken wire calcification is seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Chondroblastoma
    Chondroblastoma histologically displays characteristic 'chicken-wire' pattern of intercellular calcification.
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  42. 42.
    In compression arthrodesis of the ankle, the relation of the distal pin to the transverse axis of the body of talus should be
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    anterior to the axis
    In Charnley compression arthrodesis of the ankle, the distal pin through the talus should be placed anterior to the transverse axis.
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  43. 43.
    The amputation in which the calcaneum is rotated and fused with the tibia is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Pirogoff's
    Pirogoff amputation is an ankle/hindfoot amputation involving osteotomy and fusion of the calcaneus to the distal tibia.
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  44. 44.
    Regarding Wallerian degeneration which of the following is false ?
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    Answer: D —
    Chromatolysis occurs
    Chromatolysis occurs in the cell body of the injured neuron (reaction of the cell body), not as a direct component of Wallerian degeneration of the distal axon itself.
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  45. 45.
    When the ulnar nerve is totally divided at the wrist the interossei can act through
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Richi-Cannieu anastomosis
    Richie-Cannieu anastomosis is a neural connection in the palm between the deep branch of the ulnar nerve and the recurrent branch of the median nerve, explaining retained interosseous function in ulnar nerve lesions.
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  46. 46.
    When heel cord advancement is done ?\ni. Equinus is reduced\nii. Push off is greatly weakened\niii. T endoachillis is weakened.\nOf these statements
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    i and iii are correct
    Heel cord advancement reduces equinus and weakens the tendo Achillis, but push-off may not necessarily be 'greatly weakened' in all contexts or was considered flawed by KPSC (Question Cancelled in final key).
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  47. 47.
    Lambrinudi's triple arthrodesis was originally described for which foot deformity
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    Answer: C —
    equinus
    Lambrinudi triple arthrodesis was originally designed to correct fixed equinus deformity (often secondary to infantile paralysis).
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  48. 48.
    Which muscular dystrophy is autosomal dominant ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Facioscapulohumeral
    Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy (FSHD) is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, whereas Duchenne and Becker are X-linked recessive.
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  49. 49.
    In Anderson and D'Alonzo classification highest rate of non-union is seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    T ype 2
    Type II odontoid fractures have the highest rate of non-union due to tenuous blood supply at the fracture base.
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  50. 50.
    Soft tissue calcification in the X-ray is seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Synovial sarcoma
    Faint, punctate or characteristic calcifications within the soft tissue mass are radiographically visible in up to 30% of synovial sarcomas.
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  51. 51.
    Which of the following is false with respect to villonodular synovitis ?
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    Answer: D —
    Aspirated fluid is clear
    The aspirated fluid in pigmented villonodular synovitis (PVNS) is characteristically blood-stained or dark brownish-red, not clear.
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  52. 52.
    _________ is an osteotomy done at the base of the neck of femur.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Kramer and Barmada
    Kramer and Barmada described an osteotomy at the base of the femoral neck.
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  53. 53.
    Coplanar test is a measure of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Sum of acetabular and femoral anteversion
    The coplanar test clinically evaluates the sum of femoral and acetabular anteversion.
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  54. 54.
    Intercostobrachial nerve is the cutaneous branch of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    T2
    The intercostobrachial nerve is the lateral cutaneous branch of the second intercostal nerve (T2).
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  55. 55.
    Cervical sympathetic ganglion associated with ciliospinal reflex is
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    Answer: A —
    Superior
    The superior cervical ganglion is part of the sympathetic pathway involved in pupillary dilation and the ciliospinal reflex.
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  56. 56.
    The bone commonly involved in Caffey's disease
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    Answer: C —
    Mandible
    Infantile cortical hyperostosis (Caffey disease) most frequently involves the mandible, along with the clavicles and ulnae.
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  57. 57.
    In a case of left sided slipped capital femoral epiphysis in the frog leg lateral view the epiphyseal-diaphyseal angle on the right side is ten degree, then the minimum angle of the same on the left side beyond which the slip is not considered mild is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    40
    Mild SCFE is generally defined as an epiphyseal-diaphyseal slip angle less than 30 degrees (or 40 degrees depending on reference standards; here 40 degrees is the key).
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  58. 58.
    While doing a replacement in a valgus knee, the distal femoral cut is better done in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    3 degree valgus
    In a valgus knee, to compensate for lateral femoral hypoplasia/anatomy, the distal femoral valgus cut is often reduced (e.g., 3 degrees instead of standard 5-6 degrees).
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  59. 59.
    1) PCL release from femur 2) Removal of lateral osteophytes 3) Pie crusting of the ITB 4) Popliteus release 5) Posterolateral capsular release\nThe correct sequential order of release for correcting valgus in a tkr is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    2 1 5 3 4
    The sequential soft tissue release for valgus deformity in TKR starts with removal of lateral osteophytes, followed by PCL release, posterolateral capsular release, IT band pie-crusting, and popliteus release.
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  60. 60.
    Motion similar to that in a cow's hip is obtained in Stulberg type
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    4
    Stulberg Class IV (coxa magna or aspherical incongruency) results in restricted range of movement often likened descriptively to a 'cow's hip'.
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  61. 61.
    For safely releasing the origin of peroneus longus from the fibular head, the blade should be directed
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Upwards and anteriorly
    To protect the common peroneal nerve winding around the fibular neck, the knife blade should be directed upwards and anteriorly when releasing peroneus longus.
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  62. 62.
    For introducing a 4.5 mm non self tapping cortical screw the drill bit for the pilot hole should be
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    Answer: B —
    3.2 mm
    A 3.2 mm drill bit is used to create the pilot hole for a 4.5 mm AO cortical screw.
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  63. 63.
    During operations for the proximal femur if the anteversion guide wire is placed along the upper half of the anterior surface of the femoral neck and then if you pass the definitive guidewire parallel to it, the resultant anteversion will
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    increase
    Placing the guide wire along the anterior surface rather than the center shifts the vector such that anteversion increases.
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  64. 64.
    Pellagrini-Steida disease affects
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    Answer: C —
    medial collateral ligament
    Pellegrini-Stieda disease is post-traumatic calcification or ossification of the proximal origin of the tibial (medial) collateral ligament of the knee.
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  65. 65.
    Regarding the knee joint the popliteus muscle is functionally ____ and its tendon is ______
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    Answer: D —
    unlocking and intra articular
    Popliteus unlocks the knee joint (external rotation of femur on tibia in closed chain), and its tendon lies intra-articularly (though extrasynovial).
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  66. 66.
    Which is the false statement ?
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    Answer: C —
    Step length is more than stride length
    Stride length consists of two step lengths (left and right), so step length is always less than stride length, making option C false.
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  67. 67.
    Holstein-Lewis lesion presents as a
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    post reduction lesion and is managed surgically
    Holstein-Lewis fracture is a distal third humeral shaft fracture associated with radial nerve entrapment (often occurring or persisting post-reduction) and is an indication for surgical exploration.
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  68. 68.
    Oblique popliteal ligament of the knee is pierced by which artery ?
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    Answer: C —
    middle geniculate
    The middle geniculate artery pierces the oblique popliteal ligament to supply the cruciate ligaments inside the knee joint.
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  69. 69.
    Regarding T urrett exostosis what is true ?
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    Answer: B —
    traumatic
    Turret exostosis (bursal exostosis of the phalanges of the hand) is typically post-traumatic in etiology.
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  70. 70.
    While doing a release of the carpal tunnel it is cut in line with the
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    ring finger
    To avoid injury to the motor branch of the median nerve (thenar branch), the transverse carpal ligament is incised along its ulnar border, in line with the ring finger.
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  71. 71.
    Positive Volkmann's sign is due to contracture of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    flexor digitorum profundus
    Passive extension of the fingers causing pain in Volkmann's ischemic contracture (Volkmann's sign) primarily reflects ischemia and shortening of the flexor digitorum profundus and flexor pollicis longus.
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  72. 72.
    The gliding hole for a 3.5 mm cortical screw when used as a lag screw should be
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    3.5 mm
    When using a 3.5 mm cortical screw as a lag screw, the near cortex hole (gliding hole) must match the outer diameter, which is 3.5 mm.
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  73. 73.
    During a normal gait the muscles that are active with the first, second and third rockers are respectively
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Tibialis anterior, tibialis posterior with intrinsics and triceps surae
    First rocker (heel strike): tibialis anterior; Second rocker (midstance): tibialis posterior and intrinsics stabilize the foot; Third rocker (heel off): triceps surae.
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  74. 74.
    Sprouting granulations at the mouth of a sinus in a case of chronic osteomyelitis indicate
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    underlying sequestrum
    Persistent exuberant granulation tissue (pouty sinus) at the opening of a chronic osteomyelitis sinus tract classically points to an underlying unabsorbed sequestrum.
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  75. 75.
    In Ober transfer
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    tibialis posterior is passed over the shin of tibia
    In Ober's procedure for foot drop, the tibialis posterior tendon is detached and routed subcutaneously around the medial border (over the shin of tibia) to the dorsum to act as a dorsiflexor.
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  76. 76.
    Regarding Felon which is wrong ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    if untreated it will always lead to sequestration of the entire phalanx
    While felon can cause bone necrosis via periarterial ischemia, it does not 'always' lead to sequestration of the entire phalanx if untreated.
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  77. 77.
    Vascular type of Ehler-Danlos syndrome is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    T ype 4
    Ehlers-Danlos syndrome Type IV is the vascular type, associated with mutations in COL3A1 and severe arterial/organ fragility.
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  78. 78.
    While doing dcp for a diaphyseal transverse fracture opening of the far cortex is prevented by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    prebending the plate
    Prebending (or over-contouring) the Dynamic Compression Plate (DCP) ensures even compression across both the near and far cortices.
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  79. 79.
    In Ratliff classification in type 3
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    involvement is from the fracture line to the epiphyseal plate
    In Ratliff's classification of avascular necrosis following femoral neck fractures in children, Type 3 involves the metaphyseal/epiphyseal region between fracture line and physis.
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  80. 80.
    In scapholunate dissociation
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Scapholunate space is 4 mm
    A scapholunate gap of ≥3−4\ge 3-4 mm ('Terry Thomas sign') on radiographs indicates scapholunate dissociation.
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  81. 81.
    Rugger jersey spine is seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Both 1 and 3
    Rugger-jersey spine appearance is characteristic of secondary hyperparathyroidism in renal osteodystrophy and also osteopetrosis (bone-in-bone appearance resembling it).
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  82. 82.
    In radial nerve palsy when palmaris longus is sutured to the rerouted extensor pollicis longus which movements of the thumb are regained
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    abduction and extension
    Transfer of palmaris longus to extensor pollicis longus restores thumb extension and abduction (part of standard tendon transfer for radial nerve palsy like the Jones procedure).
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  83. 83.
    In a child of eight years which of the following epiphyseal centres around the elbow will be absent ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    olecranon
    Mnemonic CRITOE: Capitellum (1-2y), Radial head (3-4y), Internal (medial) epicondyle (5-6y), Trochlea (7-8y), Olecranon (9-10y), External (lateral) epicondyle (11-12y). At 8 years, olecranon ossification center might just be appearing or absent depending on exact timing, but medial epicondyle, capitellum, and radial head are well present.
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  84. 84.
    If the second half of the POLO test is positive it means that
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    both statements are true
    The POLO (Posterior Laxity Observation) test in TKR helps assess PCL tightness and flexion gap constriction.
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  85. 85.
    While doing a shuck test, if the hip is adequately tight how much of the femoral head is permitted to disengage from the liner
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    1/4
    Question cancelled by KPSC in final key.
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  86. 86.
    What is false regarding pseudoachondroplasia ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    epiphysis alone is affected
    Pseudoachondroplasia affects both epiphyses and physes (growth plates), making statement C false as it is not confined to epiphysis alone.
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  87. 87.
    In which among the following dwarfs the spine alone is involved without limb involvement ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Morquio's syndrome
    Morquio syndrome (Mucopolysaccharidosis IV) primarily manifests with severe spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia and prominent spinal changes (platyspondyly, odontoid hypoplasia).
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  88. 88.
    In rickets, non union of osteotomy is sure to occur, if it is done before which stage of Lovett
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    3
    Osteotomies performed in active rickets before adequate healing stages (Lovett stage 3) result in non-union.
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  89. 89.
    Which is not a feature of sabre tibia ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    sharp curve
    Sabre tibia (congenital syphilis or late rickets) typically presents with a smooth, gentle anterior bowing rather than a sharp curve.
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  90. 90.
    In a case of brachial plexus injury, if you get all the modalities of triple response to histamine over an insensitive dermatome the lesion is then
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Preganglionic
    In preganglionic root avulsions, the peripheral sensory axon remains connected to its dorsal root ganglion cell body, maintaining the axon reflex (triple response to histamine) despite anesthesia in the dermatome.
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  91. 91.
    In the early stages of a case of syringomyelia, over the affected area the patient will be able to appreciate
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    light touch
    Syringomyelia typically causes dissociated sensory loss—loss of pain and temperature (spinothalamic) with preservation of light touch and proprioception (posterior columns).
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  92. 92.
    In protrusion acetabuli the CE angle of Weiberg will be greater than
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    Answer: D —
    40 degree
    In protrusio acetabuli, the femoral head is excessively deep, resulting in an increased Wiberg center-edge (CE) angle, typically greater than 40 degrees.
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  93. 93.
    The normal measurements of volar tilt of radius, radial inclination and radial height are respectively
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    11 degree, 23 degree and 11 mm
    Normal distal radius anatomy: volar tilt ∼11∘\sim 11^\circ (range 11−14∘11-14^\circ), radial inclination ∼23∘\sim 23^\circ, and radial height ∼11\sim 11 mm.
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  94. 94.
    Applying Mirel's criteria, a peritrochanteric blastic lesion with moderate pain will need prophylactic internal fixation when the lesion involves
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    1/3 − 2/3 diameter of the bone
    Mirels' scoring system for impending pathological fracture assigns score components based on site, pain, lesion nature (blastic/lytic), and size (<1/3<1/3, 1/3−2/31/3-2/3, >2/3>2/3).
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  95. 95.
    The three fragment triplane fracture is a combination of Salter-Harris type
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    Answer: A —
    2 and 3
    A three-fragment triplane fracture of the distal tibia incorporates components of Salter-Harris type II (metaphyseal-epiphyseal) and type III (intra-articular epiphyseal).
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  96. 96.
    Geographical skull is seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Eosinophilic granuloma
    Eosinophilic granuloma (Langerhans cell histiocytosis) classically presents with 'geographical skull' lytic bone lesions.
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  97. 97.
    In a supracondylar fracture of the humerus anterior spike and crescent sign in the X-ray respectively represent
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    rotation and tilt
    In supracondylar humerus fractures, the 'anterior spike' indicates rotation, and the 'crescent sign' represents tilt.
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  98. 98.
    Harmon approach is valuable for exposure of which part of tibia ?
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    Answer: C —
    Middle two third
    The Harmon posterior approach is valuable for exposing the middle two-thirds of the tibia shaft.
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  99. 99.
    Osteoid osteoma does not affect
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    Answer: C —
    Skull
    Osteoid osteomas can occur in almost any bone of the skeleton but extremely rarely affect the skull bones.
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  100. 100.
    In a pelvis X-ray only the principal compressive trabeculae stand out prominently and the remaining trabeculae have been essentially absorbed, then the Singh's index is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Grade 2
    Singh's index Grade 2 is characterized by prominence of only the principal compressive trabeculae with resorption of secondary and other groups.
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