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All 100 questions with answers

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  1. 1.
    All the following are mediators of inflammation derived from Arachidonic acid through Cyclo oxygenase pathway Except:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Lipoxin A4
    Lipoxins are derived from arachidonic acid via the lipoxygenase pathway, not the cyclooxygenase pathway.
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  2. 2.
    Which of the following is not a component of Granulation tissue?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Epithelioid cell
    Epithelioid cells are characteristic of granulomatous inflammation, not granulation tissue.
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  3. 3.
    Pain associated with acute inflammation is due to the action of:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Bradykinin
    Bradykinin and prostaglandins are the primary mediators responsible for inducing pain during acute inflammation.
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  4. 4.
    Libman Sack's endocarditis is seen in:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
    Libman-Sacks endocarditis (non-bacterial verrucous endocarditis) is a classic cardiac manifestation of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE).
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  5. 5.
    Which of the following hypersensitivity reaction is associated with Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Type II
    Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is mediated by antibodies directed against cell surface antigens, representing a Type II hypersensitivity reaction.
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  6. 6.
    Brown induration of Lung is seen in:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    CVC Lung
    Chronic venous congestion (CVC) of the lung leads to heart failure cells (hemosiderin-laden macrophages) and fibrosis, resulting in brown induration.
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  7. 7.
    Haemorrhagic infarct is seen in the following organ:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Lung
    Hemorrhagic infarcts typically occur in tissues with dual blood supplies or loose tissue, such as the lung and small intestine.
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  8. 8.
    Lines of Zahn are seen in:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Thrombus
    Lines of Zahn are alternating pale layers of platelets and fibrin with darker layers of red blood cells formed in flowing blood, characteristic of a thrombus.
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  9. 9.
    The mechanism of Oedema in cardiac failure is:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Increased hydrostatic pressure of circulating blood
    Congestive heart failure causes increased capillary hydrostatic pressure due to venous congestion, leading to edema.
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  10. 10.
    Nutmeg Liver is a condition associated with:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Chronic Venous Congestion
    Chronic passive congestion of the liver results in a mottled appearance resembling a nutmeg, known as nutmeg liver.
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  11. 11.
    The special stain used to demonstrate fat embolism is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Sudan III
    Sudan III (or Oil Red O) is a fat-soluble dye used to demonstrate neutral lipids and fat emboli in frozen sections.
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  12. 12.
    Which of the free radical species is generated from hydrolysis of water?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Hydroxyl radical
    Radiolysis or homolytic fission/hydrolysis of water generates highly reactive hydroxyl radicals.
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  13. 13.
    The pattern of tissue necrosis seen in focus of tuberculous infection is:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Caseous
    Tuberculosis characteristically produces caseous necrosis, appearing as a soft, cheese-like white mass.
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  14. 14.
    The cellular adaptation characterised by increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue in response to a stimulus is:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Hyperplasia
    Hyperplasia is defined as an increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue in response to a stimulus.
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  15. 15.
    All the following are examples of dystrophic calcification Except:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Vitamin D intoxication
    Vitamin D intoxication causes hypercalcemia leading to metastatic calcification, whereas the others are examples of dystrophic calcification.
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  16. 16.
    The pigment deposited in different organs and tissues in Ochronosis is:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Homogentisic acid
    Ochronosis is caused by the accumulation of homogentisic acid in connective tissues due to alkaptonuria.
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  17. 17.
    Glycogen accumulation in tissue can be demonstrated by the following staining:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Best Carmine
    Best Carmine and PAS stains are commonly used to demonstrate glycogen accumulation in tissues.
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  18. 18.
    Formation of epithelioid cells from activation of macrophages in Tuberculosis is by the action of:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Interferon gamma
    Interferon-gamma secreted by T-lymphocytes is the principal macrophage-activating cytokine that drives the formation of epithelioid cells.
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  19. 19.
    Morphologic pattern of Hansen's disease is determined by:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Helper T Lymphocyte
    The clinical and morphological spectrum of leprosy (Hansen's disease) is determined by the patient's cell-mediated immune response, primarily driven by helper T lymphocytes.
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  20. 20.
    Which of the following is an example of X linked Recessive disorder?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Duchenne muscular dystrophy
    Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a classic example of an X-linked recessive disorder.
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  21. 21.
    Serum level of alpha feto protein is elevated in the following tumour
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Hepato cellular carcinoma
    Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a well-known tumor marker for hepatocellular carcinoma.
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  22. 22.
    Lack of differentiation of cells to the tissue of origin is termed as:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Anaplasia
    Anaplasia is defined as the lack of differentiation, a hallmark of malignancy.
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  23. 23.
    Retrograde spread by hematogenous route is common for the following tumour
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Carcinoma Prostate
    Prostate carcinoma often spreads to the vertebral column via the Batson's venous plexus, which is a form of retrograde hematogenous spread.
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  24. 24.
    Which of the following tumour is due to transcoelomic spread
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Krukenberg tumour
    Krukenberg tumor is a metastatic signet-ring cell carcinoma of the ovary, typically arising from the stomach via transcoelomic spread.
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  25. 25.
    Grading of cancer is based on the following features Except:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Spread to regional Lymph node
    Grading is based on histological features (differentiation, mitosis), whereas staging is based on the extent of spread (lymph nodes, metastasis).
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  26. 26.
    Li-Fraumeni Syndrome is associated with all, except -
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    High risk for Renal cell carcinoma
    Li-Fraumeni syndrome is associated with breast cancer, soft tissue sarcomas, brain tumors, and adrenal cortical carcinomas, but not specifically renal cell carcinoma.
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  27. 27.
    Divergent differentiation in Urothelial carcinoma are all, except -
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Chondroid differentiation
    Urothelial carcinoma can show squamous, glandular, or small cell differentiation, but chondroid differentiation is not a recognized pattern.
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  28. 28.
    All are true regarding basal - like molecular subtype of Breast carcinoma, except -
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Seen in Micropapillary carcinoma
    Basal-like breast carcinomas are typically high-grade, triple-negative, and do not specifically correlate with micropapillary carcinoma.
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  29. 29.
    Weiss Criteria for Malignancy in Adrenal Cortical T umours includes all, except -
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    <50% clear cells
    Weiss criteria for malignancy includes >25% clear cells, not <50%.
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  30. 30.
    According to Internal National Society of Urological Pathology, most specific marker for Urothelial differentiation with relative low sensitivity is -
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Uroplakin III
    Uroplakin III is considered a highly specific marker for urothelial differentiation.
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  31. 31.
    Papillary Thyroid Carcinoma cells are immunoreactive for all, except -
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    CK - 20
    Papillary thyroid carcinoma is typically CK7 positive and CK20 negative.
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  32. 32.
    All are features of Ulcerative colitis, except -
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Stricture
    Strictures are more characteristic of Crohn's disease than ulcerative colitis.
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  33. 33.
    Schaumann bodies are seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Sarcoidosis
    Schaumann bodies are laminated calcified structures found in the granulomas of sarcoidosis.
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  34. 34.
    Systemic manifestation of Lung Carcinoma include -
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All
    Lung carcinoma can present with various paraneoplastic syndromes, including Lambert-Eaton, neuropathy, and acanthosis nigricans.
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  35. 35.
    All are true regarding Immature T eratoma of Ovary except -
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Graded on number of high-power field with immature neural tissue
    Immature teratoma grading is based on the amount of immature neuroepithelium, not just the number of high-power fields.
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  36. 36.
    Adult granulose cell tumours are immunophenotypically positive for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    FOXL 2
    FOXL2 mutation/expression is a highly specific marker for adult granulosa cell tumors.
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  37. 37.
    Mutations/Genetic abnormalities seen in Type II Endometrial Carcinoma are all except -
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    PTEN
    PTEN mutations are characteristic of Type I (endometrioid) endometrial carcinoma, not Type II.
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  38. 38.
    "Tram track appearance" of glomerular basement membrane is seen in -
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    MPGN
    Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN) is classically associated with the tram-track appearance due to mesangial interposition.
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  39. 39.
    All are true regarding Autosomal Dominant polycystic Kidney Disease, except -
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Associated with hepatic fibrosis
    Hepatic fibrosis is typically associated with Autosomal Recessive Polycystic Kidney Disease (ARPKD), whereas ADPKD is associated with hepatic cysts.
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  40. 40.
    Following Hematological criteria for the accelerated phase of Chronic Myeloid Leukemia are correct, except -
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    >10% Basophils in Peripheral blood
    The criteria for accelerated phase CML includes >20% basophils in peripheral blood, not >10%.
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  41. 41.
    Common cytogenetic abnormality seen in Essential Thrombocythemia are all, except -
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    BCR-ABL 1
    BCR-ABL1 is the hallmark of CML, not Essential Thrombocythemia.
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  42. 42.
    Most important genetic indicator of high-risk Myeloma are all, except -
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Del 13
    Deletion 13 is a common cytogenetic abnormality in myeloma but is no longer considered an independent high-risk factor compared to 17p deletion or specific translocations.
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  43. 43.
    Lacunar cells are seen in,
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Nodular sclerosing classic HL
    Lacunar cells are the characteristic variant of Reed-Sternberg cells found in Nodular Sclerosing Hodgkin Lymphoma.
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  44. 44.
    Warm Antibody Type immune hemolytic anemia are associated with all, except -
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Viral infections
    Cold agglutinin disease is typically associated with viral infections, whereas warm AIHA is associated with autoimmune disorders, drugs, and lymphoid neoplasms.
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  45. 45.
    Deficiency of Gp llb-llla complex cause -
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Glanzmann thrombasthenia
    Glanzmann thrombasthenia is caused by a deficiency or dysfunction of the Gp IIb/IIIa receptor.
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  46. 46.
    In Glioblastoma, molecular aberration associated with longer survival is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    IDH
    IDH mutation is a well-established favorable prognostic marker in gliomas.
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  47. 47.
    Grade II meningioma are all, except -
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Metaplastic meningioma
    Metaplastic meningioma is typically a Grade I tumor.
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  48. 48.
    Most common gene mutation in Osteosarcoma is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    RB
    RB gene mutations are highly frequent in osteosarcoma.
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  49. 49.
    According to French Federation of Cancer Centres Sarcoma group, Soft tissue sarcomas are graded on the basis of following factors except -
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Tumour size
    The FNCLCC grading system uses tumor differentiation, mitotic count, and tumor necrosis, not tumor size.
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  50. 50.
    All are premalignant lesions, except -
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Large cell acanthoma
    Large cell acanthoma is a benign lesion, not premalignant.
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  51. 51.
    Find out the aerotolerant anaerobe?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Clostridium perfringens
    Clostridium perfringens is known to be an aerotolerant anaerobe.
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  52. 52.
    Which among the following possess genetic configuration of double stranded linear DNA?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    T 7 bacteriophage
    T7 bacteriophage has a double-stranded linear DNA genome.
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  53. 53.
    Brevundimonas diminuta is used as a sterilization control of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Membrane filters
    Brevundimonas diminuta is the standard biological indicator for validating membrane filtration sterilization.
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  54. 54.
    Name the group of bacteria which obtain reducing equivalents (electrons) from inorganic compounds?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Lithotrophs
    Lithotrophs obtain their electrons from inorganic reduced compounds.
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  55. 55.
    All the given diseases are transmitted by Hard Tick except?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Endemic relapsing fever
    Endemic relapsing fever is typically transmitted by soft ticks (Ornithodoros), whereas the others are associated with hard ticks.
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  56. 56.
    The National Collection of T ype cultures is situated at?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    England
    The National Collection of Type Cultures (NCTC) is located in the UK (England).
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  57. 57.
    Which antibiotic among the following is time dependent antibiotic?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Carbapenems
    Carbapenems exhibit time-dependent killing action against bacteria.
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  58. 58.
    Name the scientist who had attempted to demonstrate a physical reality to the transmission of infection in the case of syphilis and gonorrhea by inoculating a subject with pus from sores of a person with gonorrhea and syphilis.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    John Hunter
    John Hunter famously (and mistakenly) inoculated himself with pus from a patient believed to have gonorrhea, resulting in the transmission of syphilis.
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  59. 59.
    Which modification of gram staining is useful for Meningococci and Gonococci?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Jensen's modification
    Jensen's modification of the Gram stain is particularly useful for staining delicate gram-negative organisms like Meningococci and Gonococci.
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  60. 60.
    Polymyxins act against the microbes by carrying out which of the following actions?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Damage to the cytoplasmic membrane
    Polymyxins act as detergents, disrupting and damaging the bacterial cytoplasmic membrane.
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  61. 61.
    Which is the monoclonal antibody that act against VEGF (Vascular endothelial growth factor) and is used in the treatment of colorectal cancers?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Bevacizumab
    Bevacizumab is a recombinant humanized monoclonal antibody that blocks angiogenesis by binding to VEGF-A.
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  62. 62.
    Which of the following Immunodeficiency disorder/disorders are due to combined B and T cell defects? (I) Digeorge Syndrome (II) Ataxia telangiectasia (III) Nezelof Syndrome (IV) Chronic granulomatous diseases
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    (II) and (III)
    Ataxia-telangiectasia and Nezelof syndrome involve both B and T cell defects (combined immunodeficiencies). DiGeorge is primarily a T-cell defect, and CGD is a phagocytic defect.
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  63. 63.
    Nagler reaction is example of ________?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Neutralization test
    The Nagler reaction tests for the lecithinase activity of Clostridium perfringens and is a type of neutralization test using antitoxin.
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  64. 64.
    Which of the following statements are wrong regarding T oll like receptors (TLRs)? (I) TLR-2 binds to lipoteichoic acid of gram positive bacterial cell wall (II) TLR-9 binds to bacterial DNA (III) TLR-3 binds to flagella of bacteria (IV) TLR-5 binds to ss RNA of viruses
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    (III) and (IV)
    TLR-3 binds to dsRNA (not flagella), and TLR-5 binds to flagellin (not ssRNA). Thus statements (III) and (IV) are incorrect.
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  65. 65.
    Find out the correct statement regarding Affinity and Avidity?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    IgM has a low affinity than IgG
    Individual binding sites of IgM have lower affinity compared to IgG, although its high valency gives it high overall avidity.
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  66. 66.
    Which of the following represents the T cell area of the lymph node?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Para cortical area
    The paracortex (paracortical area) of the lymph node is primarily populated by T lymphocytes and dendritic cells.
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  67. 67.
    Which among the following statements are true regarding antigen processing pathways? (I) In cytosolic pathway, exogenous antigens are processed (II) In endocytic pathway, exogenous antigens are processed (III) In cytosolic pathway, antigen is presented to CD8 T cells (IV) In endocytic pathway, antigen is complexed with MHC Class II Molecules
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    (II), (III) and (IV)
    Endocytic pathway processes exogenous antigens presented via MHC class II, while cytosolic pathway processes endogenous antigens presented to CD8+ T cells via MHC class I.
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  68. 68.
    The most common class of antibody involved in type II hypersensitivity?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Ig G
    IgG (and IgM) are the most common classes involved in cytotoxic Type II hypersensitivity reactions.
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  69. 69.
    C5 Convertase in classical complement pathway is _______.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    C4b2a3bC4b2a3b
    In the classical pathway, the C5 convertase is formed by the complex C4b2a3bC4b2a3b.
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  70. 70.
    Find out the live vaccines among the following? (I) Sabin polio vaccine (II) MMR vaccine (III) Rota virus vaccine (IV) Rabies vaccine
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    (I), (II) and (III)
    Sabin polio, MMR, and Rotavirus vaccines are live attenuated vaccines, whereas the standard Rabies vaccine is typically inactivated.
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  71. 71.
    All the statements are true regarding Widal test except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    H antibody titre more than 1/100 and O antibody titre more than 1/200 is significant
    The significance of Widal titres varies by region, but generally, an O titre of ≥1:100\ge 1:100 and H titre of ≥1:200\ge 1:200 is considered significant, making option B incorrect.
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  72. 72.
    Which statement is false regarding pathogenesis of Shigellosis?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Minimum infective dose 10-1000 bacilli
    Shigella has a very low infective dose, typically 10-100 organisms, making option A the false statement.
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  73. 73.
    All are true regarding Leprosy except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Leionine facies appearance is typically seen in Tuberculoid leprosy
    Leonine facies is a characteristic feature of Lepromatous leprosy, not Tuberculoid leprosy.
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  74. 74.
    All are true regarding MRSA except,
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    All generations of Cephalosporins should be avoided including generation
    While MRSA is resistant to most beta-lactams, certain advanced generation cephalosporins (like ceftaroline) have activity against MRSA.
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  75. 75.
    Choose the Invitro tests available for the diagnosis of Diphtheria.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    All listed methods are valid in vitro diagnostic techniques for Diphtheria.
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  76. 76.
    Which of the following Atypical mycobacteria produce Buruli ulcer
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Mycobacterium ulcerans
    Mycobacterium ulcerans is the causative agent of Buruli ulcer.
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  77. 77.
    Which Clostridial species is responsible for necrotizing fasciitis?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Clostridium perfringens
    Clostridium perfringens is a primary cause of gas gangrene and necrotizing fasciitis.
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  78. 78.
    Which statement is true regarding caseous necrosis in Pulmonary tuberculosis?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    All listed mechanisms are recognized pathways for the progression and dissemination of pulmonary tuberculosis.
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  79. 79.
    Disadvantages of Non Treponemal tests include the following:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Non-treponemal tests (like VDRL/RPR) are prone to false positives, the prozone effect, and lower sensitivity in late-stage syphilis.
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  80. 80.
    Which statement is true regarding Non Gonococcal Urethritis
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    All statements accurately describe the etiology and epidemiology of Non-Gonococcal Urethritis.
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  81. 81.
    Smallest cestode infecting man
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Hymenolepis nana
    Hymenolepis nana, also known as the dwarf tapeworm, is the smallest cestode infecting humans.
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  82. 82.
    Maltese cross appearance seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Babesiosis
    The intraerythrocytic forms of Babesia often appear as a tetrad, known as the Maltese cross.
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  83. 83.
    All the following nematodes are viviparous except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Enterobious vermicularis
    Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm) is oviparous, laying eggs, whereas the others listed are viviparous or ovoviviparous.
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  84. 84.
    Which of the following is true regarding Trichomonas vaginalis?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Trichomonas vaginalis is a common STI, associated with elevated vaginal pH and characteristic clinical findings like strawberry cervix.
    Report a mistake
  85. 85.
    Giardia lamblia inhabits in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Duodenum
    Giardia lamblia is a protozoan parasite that colonizes the small intestine, specifically the duodenum and jejunum.
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  86. 86.
    Barrel shaped arthroconidia with alternate distorted cells are seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Coccidioidomycosis
    Coccidioides immitis produces characteristic barrel-shaped arthroconidia with alternating empty disjunctor cells.
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  87. 87.
    South American Trypanosomiasis is caused by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Trypanosoma cruzi
    Trypanosoma cruzi is the causative agent of Chagas disease, also known as South American trypanosomiasis.
    Report a mistake
  88. 88.
    Medlar bodies are characteristic of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Chromoblastomycosis
    Medlar bodies (sclerotic bodies) are thick-walled, copper-colored structures characteristic of chromoblastomycosis.
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  89. 89.
    Spaghetti and meatball appearance are characteristic of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Malassezia furfur
    Malassezia furfur in skin scrapings shows short hyphae and clusters of yeast cells, described as 'spaghetti and meatballs'.
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  90. 90.
    The probable aetiological agent of Mycetoma, sinus with discharging red granules
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Actinomadura pelletieri
    Actinomadura pelletieri is known for producing red granules in mycetoma infections.
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  91. 91.
    The earliest Antibody marker appears to be seen in blood of Hepatitis B patients
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Anti HBc antibody
    Anti-HBc (IgM) is the first antibody to appear during the course of acute Hepatitis B infection.
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  92. 92.
    Herpetic whitlow indicates
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Localised infection seen in finger tips of health care workers, doctors and nurses
    Herpetic whitlow is a painful infection of the finger caused by the Herpes Simplex virus, often seen in healthcare professionals.
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  93. 93.
    The following are true regarding Bacteriophages
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Bacteriophages can carry toxin genes, facilitate horizontal gene transfer (transduction), and are explored for therapeutic use.
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  94. 94.
    The staining technique used for demonstration of Negri bodies
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Seller's stain
    Seller's stain is a specific rapid staining technique used to demonstrate Negri bodies in rabies diagnosis.
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  95. 95.
    All are true regarding Antigenic drift except,
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    It produces abrupt, drastic and discontinuous variation in antigenic structure of the virus
    Antigenic drift involves minor, gradual changes due to point mutations, whereas antigenic shift involves abrupt, drastic changes.
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  96. 96.
    All the following are clinical conditions produced by Parvo virus B-19 except,
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Genital tumours
    Parvovirus B19 is associated with erythema infectiosum, aplastic crisis, and pure red cell aplasia, but not genital tumors.
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  97. 97.
    All are regarding NACO (National AIDS Control Organisation) except,
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Strategy 1 is used for Surveillance purposes
    Strategy I is typically used for blood safety/surveillance, but the specific classification of strategies in NACO guidelines makes B the incorrect statement in this context.
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  98. 98.
    All are human prion diseases except,
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Scrapie
    Scrapie is a prion disease that affects sheep and goats, not humans.
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  99. 99.
    Which virus possess the shape of space vehicle?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Adeno virus
    Adenoviruses have a characteristic icosahedral structure often described as resembling a space vehicle or satellite.
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  100. 100.
    All are true regarding Measles except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Koplik spots develop 1 to 2 days after the appearance of rash.
    Koplik spots are pathognomonic for measles and typically appear 1-2 days *before* the rash, not after.
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