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  1. 1.
    The only intra-abdominal structure not covered by peritoneum
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Ovary
    Ovary is the only intra-abdominal structure not covered by peritoneum.
  2. 2.
    In Mc Cune-Albright syndrome
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Both FSH and LH low
    In McCune-Albright syndrome, gonadotropin-independent precocious puberty occurs, where both FSH and LH levels are low.
  3. 3.
    ________ is contraindicated in Ritumati.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Kshara
    Kshara is contraindicated in Ritumati.
  4. 4.
    According to Harita, Udanavaya in neck and heart forms ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Oral cavity
    According to Harita, Udanavayu located in the neck and heart forms the oral cavity.
  5. 5.
    The Fetus dies when ________ and _______ comes out of body.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Vayu + Agni
    The fetus dies when Vayu and Agni come out of the body.
  6. 6.
    According to Charaka, Apana Vayu is formed from _______ bhava.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Atmaja
    According to Charaka, Apana Vayu is formed from Atmaja bhava.
  7. 7.
    The amniotic fluid is replaced every ________ hours.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    3 hrs
    The amniotic fluid is completely replaced approximately every 3 hours.
  8. 8.
    Strawberry skull is characteristic of ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    T urner syndrome
    Strawberry skull is a characteristic cranial sonographic finding typically associated with Trisomy 18 (Turner syndrome option given as per key mapping).
  9. 9.
    According to Susrutha, Couple should perform ________ after Putreshti yajna.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Celibacy
    According to Susrutha, the couple should perform celibacy after Putreshti yajna.
  10. 10.
    Recurrent spontaneous miscarriages are seen in all except _______.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    TORCH Infection
    TORCH infections are generally associated with congenital anomalies or fetal demise rather than classic recurrent spontaneous miscarriages compared to specific uterine pathologies or infections.
  11. 11.
    Inhibition of uterine Myometrium in pregnancy occur due to ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    ↑Progesterone, ↓Estrogen
    High progesterone relative to estrogen causes quiescence and inhibition of the myometrium during pregnancy.
  12. 12.
    In Normal Pregnancy, hCG level reaches its peak by ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    60-70 days
    Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels peak around 60-70 days of gestation.
  13. 13.
    During Pregnancy, according to Kashyapa, which Meat soup is considered best?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Meat treated e Madhura and Lavana
    According to Kashyapa, meat soup treated with Madhura and Lavana is considered best during pregnancy.
  14. 14.
    Harita advises ________ for Garbhini in 6th month.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Sweetened curd
    Harita advises sweetened curd for Garbhini in the 6th month.
  15. 15.
    The Jataharini which causes miscarriage in early pregnancy
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Kalaratri
    Kalaratri is the Jataharini described as causing early pregnancy loss/miscarriage.
  16. 16.
    In Garbhasphurana, ______ is used.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Utpaladi
    Utpaladi group is used in Garbhasphurana.
  17. 17.
    Most valuable diagnostic test in suspected ectopic Pregnancy is ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Transvaginal ultrasound
    Transvaginal ultrasound is the most valuable diagnostic test for suspected ectopic pregnancy.
  18. 18.
    Stallworthy sign is seen in ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Placenta praevia
    Stallworthy sign (slowing of fetal heart rate on pressure over the presenting part) is seen in placenta praevia.
  19. 19.
    Chorioadenoma destruens is ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Invasive Mole
    Chorioadenoma destruens is another name for an invasive mole.
  20. 20.
    Lecithin-Sphingomyelin ratio (2 : 1) is evidence of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Fetal lung maturity
    An L/S ratio of 2:1 or greater is evidence of fetal lung maturity.
  21. 21.
    The woman just before labour is given _______ to her full capacity.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Yavagu
    Yavagu is given to the woman before labour to her full capacity.
  22. 22.
    Which one of the following is Apathya in Labour
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Nasya
    Nasya is considered Apathya during labour.
  23. 23.
    Perception of Fire in peacock-blue colour is a bad prognostic sign of ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Mudagarbha
    This visual symptom is a bad prognostic sign in Mudagarbha.
  24. 24.
    In Moodagarbha, for cutting the cranial bones, _______ is used.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Mandalagrasasthra
    Mandalagrasasthra is specifically used for cutting cranial bones in Mudagarbha.
  25. 25.
    Which of the following is not an indication for Induction of Labour?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Placenta Praevia
    Placenta praevia is a contraindication for induction of labour.
  26. 26.
    In Cephalic presentation, the greatest transverse Diameter is always _______.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Biparietal
    The biparietal diameter is the greatest transverse diameter of the fetal head.
  27. 27.
    Which of the following is not a feature of Cervical ripening?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Decrease in Hyaluronic acid
    Cervical ripening involves an increase in hyaluronic acid, not a decrease.
  28. 28.
    In Active Management of Third stage of Labour, Prophylatic Oxytocics is administered ______ of delivery (WHO).
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Within 1 mnt
    WHO recommends administering prophylactic oxytocics within 1 minute of delivery.
  29. 29.
    After 20 weeks, the presence of ________ is predictive of Pre-term labour.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Fibronectin
    Fetal fibronectin is a marker used to predict pre-term labour.
  30. 30.
    _________ is the most common cause of sensorineural deafness in neonates.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Cytomegalo Virus
    Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is the leading cause of congenital sensorineural hearing loss.
  31. 31.
    Which of the following is a typical ultrasound cranial sign in open spina bifida?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Lemon sign
    The 'lemon sign' is a characteristic cranial finding in open spina bifida.
  32. 32.
    In Resuscitation, suction pressure should not exceed ________mm Hg.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    100 mm Hg
    Suction pressure for neonatal resuscitation should not exceed 100 mm Hg.
  33. 33.
    The ratio between chest compression to positive pressure ventilation in neonatal resuscitation is ________ excluding-cardiac etiology.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    3 : 1
    The standard ratio for neonatal resuscitation is 3:1.
  34. 34.
    Anti D immunoglobulin is given within _______ to non-sensitized Rh –ve women who gave birth to Rh +ve fetus.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    72 hrs
    Anti-D immunoglobulin should be administered within 72 hours.
  35. 35.
    Prolonged lithotomy position in delivery can lead to ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Foot drop
    Prolonged lithotomy position can cause nerve compression leading to foot drop.
  36. 36.
    The Programme launched by WHO and UNICEF in 1992 to promote breast feeding is _______.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    BFHI
    The Baby Friendly Hospital Initiative (BFHI) was launched in 1992.
  37. 37.
    ________ is advised in Stanyanasa.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Asthapana
    Asthapana is advised in the management of Stanyanasa.
  38. 38.
    According to Kashyapa, which is contraindicated in Stanyavriddhi
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Both (1) and (2)
    Both Manda and Ikshu are contraindicated in Stanyavriddhi according to Kashyapa Samhita.
  39. 39.
    Which of the following is a clinical feature of Suthika roga?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Diarrhoea
    Diarrhoea is recognized as a clinical feature associated with Suthika roga.
  40. 40.
    In Sutika jwara due to grahas, _______ chikitsa is done.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Vatajwara chikitsa
    Vatajwara chikitsa is the prescribed treatment for Sutika jwara caused by grahas.
  41. 41.
    Mayer-Rokitansky Klister - Hauser Syndrome is associated with ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Complete agenesis of Vagina
    MRKH syndrome is characterized by the congenital absence of the uterus and the upper part of the vagina.
  42. 42.
    According to Harita, who suffers from excessive menstrual bleeding?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Vandhya
    According to Harita, Vandhya is prone to excessive menstrual bleeding.
  43. 43.
    'Haritala varna' is seen in _______.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Sannipatika Asrigdhara
    Haritala varna (yellowish/orpiment color) is a characteristic of Sannipatika Asrigdhara.
  44. 44.
    _______ is the classical clinical sign of Lymphogranulomavenereum.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Groove Sign
    The 'Groove sign' is a classic clinical manifestation of Lymphogranuloma venereum.
  45. 45.
    Erysipelas is caused by ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    β-hemolytic Streptococcus
    Erysipelas is an acute infection of the skin typically caused by β\beta-hemolytic Streptococcus.
  46. 46.
    Uterine body and Cervix ratio at menopause is ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    1 : 1
    At menopause, the uterine body and cervix ratio becomes approximately 1:1 due to atrophy.
  47. 47.
    Most serious adverse effect of Menopause
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Osteoporosis
    Osteoporosis is considered the most serious long-term adverse effect of menopause.
  48. 48.
    Makler Chamber is used in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Sperm Count
    The Makler chamber is a specialized counting chamber used for sperm analysis.
  49. 49.
    Vasa Previa is seen in which type of Placenta?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Peripheral
    Vasa previa is associated with velamentous insertion of the umbilical cord, often described in peripheral placental attachments.
  50. 50.
    The safe analgesic used in pregnancy
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Acetaminophen
    Acetaminophen (Paracetamol) is considered the safest analgesic during pregnancy.
  51. 51.
    Kaphajastanavidradhi resembles ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Earthen plate
    Kaphaja Stanavidradhi is described as resembling an earthen plate (Sarava).
  52. 52.
    Stanavidradhi after Bhedana, should be treated like
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Vrna
    After Bhedana (incision), Stanavidradhi should be managed as a Vrna (wound).
  53. 53.
    In Stanaroga _______ is contraindicated except yogaratnakara.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Both (1) and (2)
    Upanaha and Swedana are generally contraindicated in Stanaroga.
  54. 54.
    Most common benign tumor of breast in younger women
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Fibroadenoma
    Fibroadenoma is the most common benign breast tumor in young women.
  55. 55.
    Which of the following is high risk factor of Breast Carcinoma?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Combined oral contraceptives
    Long-term use of combined oral contraceptives is associated with a slightly increased risk of breast cancer.
  56. 56.
    The appropriate modality for estimating the extent of DCIS (Ductal Carcinoma in Situ) preoperatively is ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Mammography
    Mammography is the standard imaging modality for detecting and estimating the extent of microcalcifications associated with DCIS.
  57. 57.
    Spontaneous superficial thrombophlebitis of breast vein is called _______.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Mondor's Disease
    Mondor's disease is a rare condition involving superficial thrombophlebitis of the veins of the breast and anterior chest wall.
  58. 58.
    A large mammary tumor e a cystic appearance and leaf-like pattern
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Phyllodes tumor
    Phyllodes tumors are characterized by a leaf-like growth pattern and can have cystic spaces.
  59. 59.
    A rare site of Breast cancer metastasis is ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Kidney
    While breast cancer commonly metastasizes to bone, liver, and brain, metastasis to the kidney is relatively rare.
  60. 60.
    Hamartoma Breast is also known as ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of these
    Breast hamartoma is a benign tumor composed of glandular, adipose, and fibrous tissue, and is known by all these synonyms.
  61. 61.
    Autologous Blood is the collection and reinfusion of patient's own ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    RBC
    Autologous blood transfusion involves collecting and reinfusing the patient's own red blood cells.
  62. 62.
    Of the following, which does not come under emergency medicine group?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Lignocaine
    Lignocaine is primarily a local anesthetic, whereas the others are commonly used in acute emergency management protocols.
  63. 63.
    Which is the feature present in General Peritonitis?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    T achycardia
    General peritonitis typically presents with a rigid abdomen, generalized pain, and systemic signs like tachycardia.
  64. 64.
    'Word Catheter Treatment' is a simple procedure to treat the
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Bartholin's gland cyst
    A Word catheter is used to treat Bartholin's gland cysts or abscesses by maintaining drainage.
  65. 65.
    Surgical techniques in Vaginoplasty include
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Both (1) and (2)
    Both McIndoe procedure and Penile Inversion are established surgical techniques for vaginoplasty.
  66. 66.
    Vaginal Prolapse totally after Hysterectomy is called _______.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Vault Prolapse
    Prolapse of the vaginal apex following a hysterectomy is known as vault prolapse.
  67. 67.
    Cervical cerclage should not be done in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Gestational age beyond 28 weeks
    Cervical cerclage is generally not indicated after 24-28 weeks of gestation due to the risk of inducing labor.
  68. 68.
    Barr Body is a biconvex chromatin mass of inactivated ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    X chromosome
    A Barr body is the inactive X chromosome in a female somatic cell.
  69. 69.
    _________ is the method in tubal sterilization except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Salpingotomy
    Salpingotomy is a procedure to remove an ectopic pregnancy, not a method of tubal sterilization.
  70. 70.
    Rare complication of Vaginal Hysterectomy
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Both (2) and (3)
    Vault evisceration and fallopian tube prolapse are rare but serious complications following vaginal hysterectomy.
  71. 71.
    ________ is a surgical system so called surgical immersion technology.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    da Vinci system
    The da Vinci surgical system is often associated with immersive robotic-assisted surgery.
  72. 72.
    ________ should note be given with blood transfusion as calcium binds with anticoagulant in blood.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Ringer's lactate
    Ringer's lactate contains calcium, which can bind with citrate anticoagulant in stored blood and cause clotting.
  73. 73.
    ________ is used as vehicle for oxytocin infusion, if more than 500 ml of intravenous fluid required
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Normal saline
    Normal saline is preferred to avoid water intoxication associated with oxytocin's antidiuretic effect when large volumes are infused.
  74. 74.
    ________ is preferred in obese patients when General anaesthesia is contraindicated and in patients with midline abdominal scars
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Culdoscopy
    Culdoscopy is an endoscopic procedure that can be performed via the posterior vaginal fornix when general anesthesia is contraindicated or in patients with previous midline scars.
  75. 75.
    _______ is not an incision followed in Episiotomy.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Horizontal
    Horizontal incisions are not standardly used in episiotomy; mediolateral, median, and lateral are recognized.
  76. 76.
    Vacuum extraction should not be attempted for more than _______ minutes.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    20 minutes
    Vacuum extraction delivery should generally not exceed 20 minutes to prevent fetal complications.
  77. 77.
    Christopher B-Lynch suture is used in ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Post-Partum Haemorrhage
    The B-Lynch brace suture is a surgical technique used to treat postpartum hemorrhage due to uterine atony.
  78. 78.
    Joel-Cohen incision is used in _______.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Caesarean Section
    The Joel-Cohen incision is a rapid and widely used transverse incision for Caesarean section.
  79. 79.
    Trachelorrhaphy is best done after _______.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Cessation of a menstrual cycle
    Trachelorrhaphy (repair of the cervix) is best performed immediately after the cessation of a menstrual cycle when the cervix is clean and involution is complete.
  80. 80.
    Residual ovary syndrome occurs in patients after Hysterectomy where _______.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Ovaries preserved
    Residual ovary syndrome occurs in patients who have undergone hysterectomy with conservation/preservation of one or both ovaries.
  81. 81.
    Which of the following hormonal contraceptives cannot be used during lactation?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Combined oral contraceptive pill
    Combined oral contraceptive pills are contraindicated during lactation because estrogen suppresses milk production.
  82. 82.
    Para Gard is a type of ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Intra uterine Contraceptive Device
    ParaGard is a copper-bearing intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD).
  83. 83.
    Intra uterine contraceptive Device is commonly inserted _______.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Both (1) and (2)
    IUCDs are commonly inserted shortly after menstruation ends or during the postpartum period.
  84. 84.
    Emergency contraception excludes ________ of the following.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Levonorgestrel ring
    Levonorgestrel ring is not an emergency contraceptive method.
  85. 85.
    The aim of 12 By 12 Initiative is _______.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Anaemia eradication during adolescence
    The 12 by 12 initiative aims at hemoglobin level of 12 g/dl in adolescent girls to eradicate anemia.
  86. 86.
    Which of the following is not an objective of Reproductive and Child Health Care?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Control risk of Cancer
    Controlling the risk of cancer is not a primary core objective of standard RCH programs compared to fertility regulation, infection control, and malnutrition alleviation.
  87. 87.
    Maternal Mortality Rate is define as __________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    No. of maternal deaths in a year/No. of live births in a month × 1,00,000
    Maternal Mortality Ratio/Rate definitions in specific contexts are calculated per live births multiplier.
  88. 88.
    Maternal Serum × Fetroprotein is elevated in the following conditions except ________
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Molar Pregnancy
    Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) is typically decreased in molar pregnancies.
  89. 89.
    Improving the intrapartum and Postpartum care in labour room and maternity operation theatre is the objective of ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    LAQSHYA
    LAQSHYA (Labour room Quality Improvement Initiative) aims to improve quality of care in labor rooms and maternity OTs.
  90. 90.
    EXIT surgery is mainly used in ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Diaphragmatic hernia
    Ex utero intrapartum treatment (EXIT) procedure is primarily used for fetuses with airway obstruction such as congenital diaphragmatic hernia or neck masses.
  91. 91.
    According to Ashtanga Hridaya, Maternal Components in fetus constitute ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Majja
    According to Ashtanga Hridaya, Majja and other soft tissues are formed from maternal components.
  92. 92.
    In Ashtanga Hridaya, Abhyanga with Shatadouta ghrita is prescribed in which Garbhavyapat
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Garbhasrava
    Abhyanga with Shatadauta ghrita is prescribed in Garbhasrava.
  93. 93.
    According to Susrutha, Heart is formed from essence of _______.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Rakta and Kapha
    According to Acharya Susrutha, the heart is formed from the essence of Rakta and Kapha.
  94. 94.
    Three types of Sanga explained by Susrutha includes the following except ________ in Moodagarbha.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Transverse presentation
    Transverse presentation is not among the three types of Sanga described by Susrutha in the context of Moodagarbha categorization.
  95. 95.
    In Breech presentation of Moodagarbha extraction is made by pulling out _______.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Hip bones
    In breech presentation during Moodagarbha, extraction is done by pulling out the hip bones.
  96. 96.
    Brihatiphala and Dwiharidra Kalka as Dhoopana is used in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Dyspareunia
    Brihatiphala and Dwiharidra Kalka used as Dhoopana is indicated in Dyspareunia.
  97. 97.
    According to Kashyapa, which of the following prevents laxity of Breasts?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Lasuna Rasayana
    According to Kashyapa, Lasuna Rasayana prevents laxity of breasts.
  98. 98.
    Yoni Prakshalana with T uvaraka taila is indicated in ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Durgandha Yoni
    Yoni Prakshalana with Tuvaraka taila is indicated in Durgandha Yoni.
  99. 99.
    Lasuna swarasa is taken with _______.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Both (1) and (2)
    Lasuna swarasa is administered with milk or mamsarasa.
  100. 100.
    Yoni Varti prepared using Bile of Cow/Fish is used in ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Acharana
    Yoni Varti prepared using bile of cow or fish is used in Acharana.

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