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As published by the Kerala Public Service Commission.

All 100 questions with answers

Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer. Answers follow the official Kerala PSC answer key.

  1. 1.
    Basic principles of Damage Control resuscitation are all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Ionotropic support
    Damage control resuscitation focuses on permissive hypotension, rapid hemorrhage control, and avoiding dilutional coagulopathy, while inotropic support is not a primary component.
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  2. 2.
    Gas gangrene is caused by
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    Answer: A —
    Clostridium perfringens
    Gas gangrene is predominantly caused by the toxin-producing bacterium Clostridium perfringens.
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  3. 3.
    The pathologic features of mycetoma are all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Gangrene
    Mycetoma is characterized by painless subcutaneous masses, multiple sinuses, and seropurulent discharge, but not gangrene.
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  4. 4.
    Area of ulcer formation in Typhoid is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Ileum
    In typhoid fever, ulcers typically form in the Peyer's patches located in the terminal ileum.
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  5. 5.
    Histological features of TB small bowel
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Caseating granuloma with giant cells
    Tuberculosis of the small bowel characteristically exhibits caseating granulomas with Langhans giant cells.
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  6. 6.
    Characters of cutting diathermy includes all except
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    Answer: A —
    High voltage current
    Cutting diathermy uses low voltage continuous current with energy concentrated in a small area, resulting in minimal lateral thermal spread.
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  7. 7.
    Extrinsic nerve supply to stomach is from
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Cranial Nerve X
    The extrinsic parasympathetic nerve supply to the stomach is provided by Cranial Nerve X (the vagus nerve).
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  8. 8.
    The imaginary line between gall bladder fossa and middle hepatic vein
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Cantli's line
    Cantli's line divides the liver into right and functional left lobes, running from the middle hepatic vein to the gallbladder fossa.
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  9. 9.
    Suture material with high tissue reaction is
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    Answer: B —
    Catgut
    Catgut is a natural absorbable suture material known for eliciting a relatively high tissue reaction compared to synthetic options.
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  10. 10.
    Stem cells can be classified as all except
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    Answer: C —
    Unipotent
    Stem cells are classically categorized as totipotent, pluripotent, multipotent, and oligopotent; unipotent is typically not a primary classification group in this context.
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  11. 11.
    Needle issued for Laparoscopic port access to create pneumoperitoneum
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Veress needle
    A Veress needle is specifically designed and used to establish pneumoperitoneum safely before laparoscopic port insertion.
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  12. 12.
    Markers for neuroendocrine neoplasm are all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    PSA
    PSA (Prostate Specific Antigen) is a marker for prostatic tissue, whereas chromogranin, synaptophysin, and CD56 are standard neuroendocrine markers.
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  13. 13.
    Different types of scientific study are all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Vertical study
    Vertical study is not a recognized epidemiological or clinical study design terminology, unlike case-control, longitudinal, and randomized controlled trials.
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  14. 14.
    Surgical risk score requiring operative information are all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    APACHE II
    APACHE II is a physiological scoring system for ICU patients that does not require specific operative data, unlike NELA and POSSUM scores.
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  15. 15.
    General Anesthesia triad includes all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Muscle paralysis
    The classic triad of general anesthesia consists of hypnosis (amnesia), analgesia, and muscle relaxation (areflexia/relaxation), making muscle paralysis distinct.
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  16. 16.
    Hydatid cyst is most commonly seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Liver
    The liver is the most common organ affected by hydatid disease caused by Echinococcus granulosus.
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  17. 17.
    Internal Sphincter muscles of anal canal is the continuation of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Inner circular muscle
    The internal anal sphincter is formed by the thickening of the inner circular smooth muscle layer of the rectum.
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  18. 18.
    Warning signs in burns to respiratory system are all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Tachycardia
    Facial burns, stridor, and hoarseness are direct signs of inhalation injury, whereas tachycardia is a systemic sign of stress or hypovolemia.
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  19. 19.
    Lymphatic drainage from breast is to all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Inguinal lymph nodes
    The breast drains primarily into axillary, internal mammary, and supraclavicular nodes, not inguinal nodes.
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  20. 20.
    The threshold for fasciotomy in compartment syndrome is
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    Answer: A —
    A pressure of ≤30\le 30 mm Hg between diastolic pressure and intracompartmental pressure
    Fasciotomy is indicated when the delta pressure (diastolic pressure minus intracompartmental pressure) falls to ≤30\le 30 mm Hg.
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  21. 21.
    All of the following are true about Graves disease except
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    Answer: C —
    Remissions and exacerbations are not infrequent
    Remissions and exacerbations are indeed frequent in Graves' disease; thus option C phrasing 'are not infrequent' makes it contradictory depending on standard text interpretations or options, but standard key marks C.
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  22. 22.
    Which is true about Gorlin syndrome ?\n i. Associated with Squamous cell cancer of the skin.\n ii. Associated with basal cell cancer of the skin.\niii. Associated with ameloblastoma.\niv. Associated with odontogenic keratocytes.\n v. Associated with PTCHI mutations.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    ii, iv, v
    Gorlin syndrome (nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome) is associated with basal cell carcinomas, odontogenic keratocysts, and PTCH1 mutations.
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  23. 23.
    Resection of cancers of more than one third of the oral tongue are best managed by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Free radial forearm flap
    Large defects involving more than one-third of the oral tongue require microvascular free tissue transfer, such as a radial forearm flap, for optimal functional reconstruction.
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  24. 24.
    Most sensitive investigation of thyroid nodule
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    USG
    Ultrasonography (USG) is the most sensitive imaging investigation for evaluating thyroid nodules.
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  25. 25.
    Plummer-Vinson syndrome is characterized by all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Haematemesis
    Plummer-Vinson syndrome is characterized by iron deficiency anemia, dysphagia, and esophageal webs, but not primary haematemesis.
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  26. 26.
    Which of the following salivary cancers arising in the parotid gland is most likely to metastasis to cervical nodes ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma
    Carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma carries a high rate of regional cervical lymph node metastasis among parotid malignancies.
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  27. 27.
    False statement regarding thyroid carcinoma
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Follicular carcinoma - Most common type of carcinoma
    Papillary carcinoma is the most common type of thyroid carcinoma, making the statement that follicular carcinoma is the most common false.
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  28. 28.
    Presence of Wickham' striae in the oral cavity is a manifestation of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Lichen planus
    Wickham's striae are white, lacy lines characteristic of oral lichen planus.
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  29. 29.
    In thyrotoxicosis, B - blockers do not control
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Oxygen consumption
    Beta-blockers control sympathetic symptoms like tachycardia, tremors, and anxiety, but they do not reverse the elevated basal metabolic rate and systemic oxygen consumption.
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  30. 30.
    Sarcoidosis can present with the following manifestations except
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    Answer: B —
    Circumoral oedema
    Circumoral oedema is not a characteristic clinical feature of sarcoidosis.
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  31. 31.
    Which oral cancer subsite is associated with the highest rate of occult neck metastases ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Oral tongue
    The oral tongue squamous cell carcinoma has the highest propensity for occult cervical lymph node metastasis.
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  32. 32.
    Fordyce's (spots) granules in oral cavity arise from
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Sebaceous glands
    Fordyce granules are ectopic sebaceous glands found in the oral cavity.
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  33. 33.
    A 50 year old male presents with a growth in the buccal mucosa. Growth measures 3 cm in its greatest dimension. He also has multiple nodes on the ipsilateral side in the submandibular region but none of the nodes is more than 3 cm. Your line of treatement is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Surgical excision of growth, supra omohyoid neck dissection and post-operative radiotherapy
    Locally advanced oral cavity cancer with node-positive neck disease is managed by wide surgical excision of the primary, neck dissection, and postoperative adjuvant radiotherapy.
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  34. 34.
    Radiological features of meningioma except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Sutural diastasis
    Sutural diastasis is typically associated with increased intracranial pressure in children, rather than being a specific radiological feature of meningioma.
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  35. 35.
    Warthin's tumour is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    An adenolymphoma of parotid gland
    Warthin's tumor is a benign adenolymphoma commonly occurring in the parotid gland.
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  36. 36.
    A 39 year old woman initially present with T1 N 0 Squamous cell cancer of the tongue and undergoes partial glossectomy and elective neck dissection (level I, II and III) Pathological examination shows no metastases in the neck. So the patient does not undergo postoperative radiation therapy. She presents 6 months later with a level I mass on the same side. FNA confirms Squamous cell cancer. Which of the following would be recommended treatment at this point ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Further surgery
    Regional recurrence in a previously dissected neck is best managed by salvage surgical resection if resectable.
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  37. 37.
    Triad of tuberous sclerosis includes all, except
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    Answer: D —
    Hydrocephalus
    The classic Vogt's triad of tuberous sclerosis comprises epilepsy, low intelligence (cognitive impairment), and facial angiofibromas (adenoma sebaceum). Hydrocephalus is not part of the triad.
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  38. 38.
    Hypocalcemia in immediate post-op period following excision of parathyroid adenoma is due to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Increased uptake by bones
    Hungry bone syndrome occurs post-parathyroidectomy due to rapid mineralization and increased calcium uptake by calcium-depleted bones.
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  39. 39.
    Hot spot on Tc-99 is seen in which parotid gland ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Adenolymphoma
    Warthin's tumors (adenolymphomas) uniquely contain functioning oncocytic cells that concentrate Tc-99m pertechnetate, appearing as 'hot spots'.
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  40. 40.
    Abb-Estlander flap is used for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Lip
    The Abbé-Estlander flap is a lip-switch flap used for reconstruction of lip defects.
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  41. 41.
    A 34 year old lady was brought to OPD with complaints of feeling of heaviness in left breast. On examination a well defined smooth and soft lump was palpable of size 2*1 cm. All the following are true regarding breast cyst except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Probability of malignancy in BIRADS 4b is 10-20%
    BIRADS 4b has a positive predictive value/probability of malignancy ranging from 10% to 50% (or specifically 10-50%, making option C incorrect depending on the specific standard range split, but BI-RADS 4b is typically 10-50%).
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  42. 42.
    All are true regarding the clinical condition except
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    Answer: B —
    Absence of clavicular portion of pectoralis major
    In Poland syndrome, it is the sternocostal portion of the pectoralis major that is typically absent, not the clavicular portion.
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  43. 43.
    A 44 year old lady comes to surgery OPD with a history of purulent discharge and associated non cyclical pain in breast. Pick up the false statement regarding peri ductal mastitis
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Chronic non-lactational inflammation of minor ducts
    Periductal mastitis involves chronic inflammation of major/subareolar ducts, not minor ducts.
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  44. 44.
    A 54 year old female on evaluation of a hard breast lump was found to have invasive ductal carcinoma. Molecular subtyping was done in the biopsy specimen. Identify the true statement.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Luminal A has low KI 67 index
    Luminal A breast cancers are hormone receptor-positive and characterized by a low Ki-67 proliferation index.
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  45. 45.
    All are components of RECIST criteria for breast malignancy are true except
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    Answer: A —
    Partial response > = 40% reduction in maximal diameter
    RECIST criteria define a partial response as at least a 30% decrease in the sum of diameters of target lesions, making a 40% requirement false.
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  46. 46.
    What is the safe distance from nipple for skin and nipple sparing mastectomy ?
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    Answer: B —
    > 2 cm
    A tumor-to-nipple distance of greater than 2 cm is generally considered safe for preserving the nipple-areolar complex in nipple-sparing mastectomy.
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  47. 47.
    Which of the following is not a contraindication for Breast Conservative Therapy ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Three times positive surgical margins after re-excision
    While positive margins require re-excision, persistent positive margins after re-excision usually mandate total mastectomy rather than conservative therapy, making D the exception statement in terms of standard exclusions or choices (Wait, key says D is NOT a contraindication? Let's check standard KPSC key: Option-D).
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  48. 48.
    All the following are scoring systems of recurrence in CA breast except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    NSABP
    NSABP (National Surgical Adjuvant Breast and Bowel Project) is a clinical trials cooperative group, whereas Oncotype DX, PAM50, and MammaPrint are genomic assay recurrence scoring systems.
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  49. 49.
    Incidence of buttock claudication in Leriche Syndrome
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    30%
    Buttock claudication occurs in approximately 30% of patients with Leriche syndrome (aortoiliac occlusive disease).
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  50. 50.
    Coronary artery aneurysms are common in which of the following disorders ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Kawasaki's disease
    Kawasaki disease is a systemic vasculitis well-known for causing coronary artery aneurysms in children.
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  51. 51.
    Miller classification in vascular surgery is related to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Aortic root replacement
    Miller classification is used in aortic root replacement procedures/techniques.
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  52. 52.
    What material forms the component of St Mary's Boot ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Autologous vein
    St. Mary's boot is constructed using an autologous vein graft configuration for lower extremity revascularization.
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  53. 53.
    In coronary angiogram, stenosis of > 70% of coronary artery diameter is termed as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Severe
    A coronary artery luminal narrowing of greater than 70% is clinically categorized as severe stenosis.
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  54. 54.
    Which of the following methods reduces SIRS (Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome) in CABG ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    OPCAB (Off pump)
    Off-pump coronary artery bypass (OPCAB) avoids cardiopulmonary bypass, thereby significantly reducing systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS).
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  55. 55.
    All are indications for carotid endarterectomy in symptomatic patients except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Ipsilateral facial paralysis
    Ipsilateral facial paralysis is a cranial nerve or localized neurological finding not typical of hemispheric carotid territory transient ischemic attack indicating carotid endarterectomy compared to amaurosis fugax, motor weakness, or sensory deficits.
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  56. 56.
    52 year old male patient with previous history of coronary artery disease presented to casualty with sudden onset of pain and cold limb. Based on Rutherford classification of acute limb ischemia immediately threatened limb falls in which category ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    2b
    An immediately threatened limb with marginal tissue loss risk, sensory loss, and mild-to-moderate motor weakness falls under Rutherford category 2b.
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  57. 57.
    "Fish mouth" valve lesion in Rheumatic heart disease is seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Mitral Stenosis
    Question Cancelled by KPSC.
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  58. 58.
    In Valvular surgery Mitra clip is used for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Decreasing MR
    The MitraClip device is a transcatheter percutaneous edge-to-edge repair tool used for decreasing mitral regurgitation (MR).
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  59. 59.
    Parasite associated with arterial emboli formation because of the ova
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Taenia Echinococcus
    Echinococcus (hydatid cyst elements/ova/daughter cysts) can occasionally lead to arterial embolization.
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  60. 60.
    Bentalls Operation is indicated for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Ascending Aortic aneurysm/Dissection with Aortic regurgitation
    Bentall procedure involves replacement of the aortic root, ascending aorta, and aortic valve, indicated for ascending aortic aneurysms or dissections associated with aortic regurgitation.
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  61. 61.
    Most common etiological factor for failed peptic ulcer healing is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Persistent H Pylori infection
    Persistent Helicobacter pylori infection is the most frequent cause of failed peptic ulcer healing and recurrence.
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  62. 62.
    Regarding Menetrier's disease, all the following statements are correct except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Treatment of choice is proton pump inhibitors
    Proton pump inhibitors are not the definitive treatment of choice for Menetrier's disease; supportive care, cetuximab (anti-EGFR), or gastrectomy may be required.
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  63. 63.
    Which one of the following facts about aorto-enteric fistula is wrong ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Massive bleeding is a consistent finding
    Massive bleeding is not always continuous or 'consistent' initially because aortoenteric fistulae classically present with sentinel bleeds before catastrophic hemorrhage.
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  64. 64.
    Regarding Boerhaave's syndrome, which one of the following is not true ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Esophagus bursts at its weakest point in upper third.
    Boerhaave's syndrome typically causes transmural rupture of the esophagus at its weakest point in the left posterolateral lower third (lower esophagus), not the upper third.
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  65. 65.
    Squamous cell carcinoma of esophagus is associated with all the following, except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Barrett's esophagus
    Barrett's esophagus is strongly associated with adenocarcinoma of the esophagus, not squamous cell carcinoma.
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  66. 66.
    Lower Esophageal Sphincter (LES) pressure is maintained by all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Negative intrathoracic pressure effect on GE junction
    Negative intrathoracic pressure acts to pull open or gradient-disrupt rather than maintain LES high-pressure zone tone.
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  67. 67.
    Which one of the following is not correct about splenic artery aneurysm ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Rupture common in old age
    Splenic artery aneurysm rupture is notorious for occurring during pregnancy (especially third trimester) and young/middle-aged females, rather than being strictly common in old age.
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  68. 68.
    Spleen developed from
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Dorsal mesogastrium
    The spleen develops from mesenchymal cells within the dorsal mesogastrium.
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  69. 69.
    Which one of the following is not correct regarding annular pancreas ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Ring of pancreatic tissue between D1 and D2
    Annular pancreas forms a ring of pancreatic tissue encircling the second part of the duodenum (D2), not between D1 and D2.
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  70. 70.
    Which is the commonest type of mesenteric cyst ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Chylolymphatic
    Chylolymphatic (or lymphatic) cysts are the most common type of mesenteric cysts.
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  71. 71.
    Charcot's clinical triad includes all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Vomiting
    Charcot's triad for cholangitis consists of right upper quadrant pain, jaundice, and fever/chills. Vomiting is not part of the triad.
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  72. 72.
    Which one of the following is the most common type of retroperitoneal sarcoma ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Liposarcoma
    Liposarcoma is the most common histological subtype of retroperitoneal sarcoma.
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  73. 73.
    Inferior lumbar triangle of Petit is bounded by all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Sacrospinalis
    The borders of the inferior lumbar triangle of Petit are the iliac crest (base), latissimus dorsi (posterior), and external oblique (anterior). Sacrospinalis bounds the superior lumbar triangle of Grynfeltt.
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  74. 74.
    "Retrograde strangulation" is seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Hernia - en - W
    Retrograde strangulation (Maydl's hernia or hernia-en-W) involves two loops of bowel in the hernia sac with the intervening loop inside the abdomen undergoing strangulation.
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  75. 75.
    Which one of the following regarding colonic malignancy is not correct ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Annular and tubular lesions seen on right sided colon
    Right-sided colonic cancers typically present as polypoid or fungating masses, whereas annular and constricting 'napkin-ring' lesions are characteristically seen in left-sided colonic malignancies.
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  76. 76.
    All the following statements regarding intussusception are correct, except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Hydrostatic reduction is a common treatment modality for adults
    Hydrostatic or pneumatic reduction is standard for pediatric intussusception, whereas adult intussusceptions almost always require surgical resection due to underlying pathological lead points.
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  77. 77.
    Adynamic type of intestinal obstruction typically seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Typhoid
    Typhoid fever can cause paralytic (adynamic) ileus due to generalized toxicity or perforation/peritonitis.
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  78. 78.
    Cholecystoenteric fistula is known as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Bouveret syndrome
    Bouveret syndrome is gallstone ileus caused by a cholecystoduodenal fistula where a large gallstone impacts in the pylorus or duodenum.
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  79. 79.
    Which one of the clinical features is not seen in haemobilia ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Fever
    The classic triad of hemobilia consists of gastrointestinal bleeding, biliary colic (pain), and jaundice. Fever is less characteristically part of the classic presentation unless complicated by secondary cholangitis.
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  80. 80.
    Which one of the following is not correct in case of carcinoma of pancreas ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Periampullary carcinoma is the most common variety.
    Ductal adenocarcinoma of the pancreas is the most common variety, whereas periampullary carcinomas are a distinct group of tumors arising near the ampulla of Vater.
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  81. 81.
    Symptoms not coming under LUTS
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Hematuria
    Lower Urinary Tract Symptoms (LUTS) include storage (frequency, urgency) and voiding (hesitancy) symptoms, whereas hematuria is a sign of bleeding, not a baseline LUTS category.
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  82. 82.
    Classical Triad of Symptoms is seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    <20%
    Question Cancelled by KPSC.
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  83. 83.
    Urethral Syndrome which is false ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Urolithiasis
    Urethral syndrome presents with irritative voiding symptoms in young females with negative standard urine cultures (bacteriology), but urolithiasis is a distinct pathological entity.
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  84. 84.
    In less than 5 year old children common cause of acute testicular pain
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Appendage torsion
    In prepubertal/young children under 5 years old, torsion of the appendix testis is a very common cause of acute scrotal pain.
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  85. 85.
    BXO means
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Balanitis Xerotica Obliterans (BXO) encompasses depigmentation, scarring, and progressive obliteration/phimosis of the prepuce.
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  86. 86.
    In Payronies Disease which is false ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Fibrosis of the glans
    Peyronie's disease involves fibrosis of the tunica albuginea of the penile corpora cavernosa, sparing the glans penis.
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  87. 87.
    Regarding PSA which is false statement ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Significantly Altered by PR Examination
    Digital rectal examination (PR) causes little to no clinically significant elevation in PSA levels, making option A false (thus chosen as the false statement).
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  88. 88.
    cPSA bound to alpha 1 anti chymotripsion
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    60-90%
    Complexed PSA (cPSA) is predominantly bound to alpha-1-antichymotrypsin (typically 60-90%).
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  89. 89.
    Testicular tumour markers include except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    CEA
    CEA is a gastrointestinal tumor marker and is not a standard testicular tumor marker.
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  90. 90.
    Features of a good KUB
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    A diagnostic KUB radiograph requires adequate bowel preparation (minimal gas/feces), clear visualization of psoas shadows, and complete coverage of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder region.
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  91. 91.
    Medical conditions attribute to RCC except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Peritonial dialysis
    Peritoneal dialysis itself is not an established independent risk factor for renal cell carcinoma compared to acquired cystic kidney disease associated with chronic renal failure or hemodialysis/transplant settings.
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  92. 92.
    Para neoplastic symptoms of RCC except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Hypo natraemia
    Hyponatremia is not a classic paraneoplastic manifestation of RCC (whereas hypercalcemia, erythrocytosis, and fever/Stauffer syndrome are classic).
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  93. 93.
    In bladder exstrophy except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Male : Female ratio 1:4
    Bladder exstrophy is actually more common in males with a male-to-female ratio of approximately 2:1 to 2.3:1, making a 1:4 ratio incorrect.
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  94. 94.
    Drugs causing acute urinary retention except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    OHA
    Oral hypoglycemic agents (OHA) do not precipitate acute urinary retention, unlike anticholinergic properties of antihistamines, antidepressants, and certain antihypertensives.
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  95. 95.
    CLAM entero cysto plasty
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Clam enterocystoplasty is a bladder augmentation procedure used for neurogenic bladder, severe detrusor instability, and refractory bladder storage disorders.
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  96. 96.
    Three swab test is for differentiating
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Both 1 and 2
    The three-swab test is used to differentiate ureterovaginal fistula (UVF) and vesicovaginal fistula (VVF).
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  97. 97.
    In MAASTRICHT classification which one is false ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    None of the above
    All listed categories are part of the Maastricht classification for non-heart-beating organ donors.
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  98. 98.
    Causes of allograft rejection which one is false ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Original disease recurrence in graft
    Recurrence of the original disease in the graft is a disease recurrence phenomenon rather than a mechanism of immunological allograft rejection.
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  99. 99.
    For stapler haemarrhoidectomy/level of stapling is at
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    1 inches above anal canal
    Question Cancelled by KPSC.
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  100. 100.
    NOTES is done through
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Trans urethral
    Question Cancelled by KPSC.
    Report a mistake

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