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All 100 questions with answers

Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer. Answers follow the official Kerala PSC answer key.

  1. 1.
    The following statements about caudate lobe are true except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    The right portion of the caudate receives portal blood only from right portal vein and the left portion, only from left portal vein
    The caudate lobe has a unique dual blood supply and venous drainage, but the right and left portions do not receive blood exclusively from the corresponding portal veins.
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  2. 2.
    The following are true on caudate lobe except
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    Answer: B —
    Caudate bile ducts drain most often to the L. hepatic duct
    Caudate bile ducts typically drain into the right hepatic duct or the confluence, not the left hepatic duct.
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  3. 3.
    All the following are features of Achalasia Cardia except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Retrosternal pain due to associated reflux
    Achalasia is characterized by aperistalsis and failure of LES relaxation; reflux is not a primary feature.
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  4. 4.
    All the following are true of the LES except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    It should effectively function as a oneway valve
    The LES is a physiological sphincter, not a mechanical one-way valve.
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  5. 5.
    The following are true about Lymphatics of stomach except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Some type of Lymphadenectomy is required for all stages of carcinoma stomach
    Lymphadenectomy is not required for all stages of gastric carcinoma, particularly very early stages.
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  6. 6.
    All the true about Lymphatics of stomach except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Resection of all station Lymph nodes necessary in Lymphadenectomy
    Resection of all station lymph nodes is not always necessary or feasible in every lymphadenectomy procedure.
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  7. 7.
    The following are true about the rectum except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    The lowermost semilunar fold corresponds to the anterior peritoneal reflection
    The lowermost semilunar fold (Houston's valve) does not correspond to the anterior peritoneal reflection.
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  8. 8.
    Involuntary resting anal sphincter tone is contributed by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Contributed in the order IAS, EAS and anal cushions
    The internal anal sphincter (IAS) provides the majority of resting tone, followed by the external anal sphincter (EAS) and anal cushions.
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  9. 9.
    All are true about common pancreatio-biliary channel except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Unlikely to predispose to biliary malignancy
    A common pancreatobiliary channel is a known risk factor for biliary malignancy due to reflux of pancreatic enzymes.
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  10. 10.
    Following are true about annular pancreas except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Rarely contains any pancreatic duct
    Annular pancreas almost always contains a pancreatic duct that drains into the main pancreatic duct.
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  11. 11.
    Oxygen therapy is indicated when
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    PaO2<60PaO_2 < 60 mmHg
    Hypoxemia defining the threshold for oxygen therapy typically corresponds to a PaO2PaO_2 of less than 60 mmHg or SaO2SaO_2 less than 90-92%.
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  12. 12.
    Humidification of oxygen is indicated when flow rate is above
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    2 Litres/mt
    Standard clinical guidelines recommend humidification for oxygen delivery when flow rates exceed 2 to 4 liters per minute to prevent mucosal drying.
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  13. 13.
    The following is true of pressure support mode ventilation except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Machine will assist to attain a preset pressure irrespective of whether there is patient effort
    Pressure support ventilation requires patient inspiratory effort to trigger the breath; it does not deliver breaths independently without patient effort.
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  14. 14.
    All are true about SIMV mode ventilation except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    It can deliver 2 types of breath, assisted and mandatory
    SIMV (Synchronized Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation) is designed to deliver both mandatory and assisted breaths.
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  15. 15.
    The following are true regarding noninvasive ventilatory support except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Advantageous in hemodynamically unstable patients
    Noninvasive ventilation is generally contraindicated or less effective in hemodynamically unstable patients.
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  16. 16.
    Prolonged mechanical ventilation may be due
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All the above
    Multiple factors including nutritional status, medication, and sleep patterns contribute to the duration of mechanical ventilation.
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  17. 17.
    Weaning from ventilation is not indicated when
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    PaO2/FiO2:100PaO_2/FiO_2 : 100
    A PaO2/FiO2PaO_2/FiO_2 ratio of 100 indicates significant hypoxemia, making weaning inappropriate.
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  18. 18.
    Following procedures may help in weaning from ventilatory support except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Totally avoiding sedatives
    While minimizing sedation is helpful, totally avoiding sedatives is not always clinically feasible or indicated.
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  19. 19.
    All the following are true except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Aerosolized antimicrobials have important role in respiratory infections
    The routine use of aerosolized antimicrobials for respiratory infections is controversial and not universally recommended.
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  20. 20.
    Type III respiratory failure is that which occurs due to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Postoperative Atelectasis
    Type III respiratory failure is perioperative, often associated with atelectasis.
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  21. 21.
    The following are true about Lactic acidosis except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Change in pH is a sensitive marker
    Lactate levels are a more direct and sensitive marker than pH changes in early metabolic acidosis.
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  22. 22.
    Following are true of ventilation perfusion mismatch except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Can be corrected invariably by increasing FiO2FiO_2
    V/Q mismatch is not always fully corrected by increasing FiO2FiO_2, especially in cases of significant shunting.
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  23. 23.
    All the following are causes of metabolic alkalosis except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Pancreatic fistula
    Pancreatic fistula typically leads to metabolic acidosis due to loss of bicarbonate-rich fluid.
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  24. 24.
    Following are true regarding venous blood gas analysis except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Venous PaO2PaO_2 tension is a good surrogate marker of arterial PaO2PaO_2
    Venous PaO2PaO_2 is not a reliable surrogate for arterial PaO2PaO_2 due to tissue oxygen extraction.
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  25. 25.
    The recommended method of assessing weaning from ventilation is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Arterial blood gas
    Arterial blood gas analysis remains the gold standard for assessing respiratory status during weaning.
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  26. 26.
    Which of the following is false about achalasia cardia ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    DCI < 200 mmHg-s-cm
    DCI (Distal Contractile Integral) in achalasia is typically not defined by this specific low threshold in the context of failed peristalsis.
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  27. 27.
    Which of the following is true of esophageal pressure topography ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Fragmented contraction - > 5 cm break in 20 mmHg isobaric contour
    Fragmented contraction is defined by a break in the 20 mmHg isobaric contour of > 5 cm.
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  28. 28.
    Which among the following is a minor disorder of motility as per the Chicago classification v3.0 ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Ineffective esophageal motility
    Ineffective esophageal motility is classified as a minor disorder of peristalsis.
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  29. 29.
    Which of the following is true about innervations of rectum and anal canal ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Sympathetic innervation of internal anal sphincter is from L5
    Sympathetic innervation to the internal anal sphincter is derived from the lumbar sympathetic chain (L1-L5).
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  30. 30.
    Which of the following is true about the Endorectal ultrasound findings of sphincter mechanism ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Normal perineal body thickness is 10 to 15 mm in the middle anal canal
    Normal perineal body thickness is typically measured in the range of 10-15 mm.
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  31. 31.
    Which of the following is not a maneuver for increasing the reach of an ileal pouch ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Creation of a W pouch
    A W-pouch is a type of reservoir configuration, not a maneuver to increase the reach of the mesentery.
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  32. 32.
    Which of the following is an extraintestinal manifestation of germline APC mutation in patients with familial adenomatous polyposis ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Papillary carcinoma thyroid
    Papillary thyroid carcinoma is a known extraintestinal manifestation associated with FAP.
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  33. 33.
    Gardner syndrome includes all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Medulloblastoma
    Medulloblastoma is associated with Turcot syndrome, not Gardner syndrome.
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  34. 34.
    Church Staging system is used for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Desmoid disease
    The Church staging system is specifically used for desmoid tumors.
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  35. 35.
    Which of the following is true about serous cystic neoplasm of pancreas ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Multiple thin-walled cysts around a central scar
    Serous cystic neoplasms are characterized by multiple small cysts often arranged around a central stellate scar.
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  36. 36.
    All are true about mucinous cystic neoplasm of pancreas except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Mucinous neoplasms can be excluded if fluid CEA levels are less than 192 ng/mL
    Fluid CEA levels are typically high in mucinous neoplasms; a low level does not definitively exclude them.
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  37. 37.
    Indication for resection in serous cystic neoplasm of pancreas includes all except
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    Answer: D —
    Age more than 60
    Age alone is not an indication for resection of a serous cystic neoplasm.
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  38. 38.
    Which of the following is true about solid pseudopapillary neoplasm of pancreas ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Positive staining for neuron-specific enolase, CD10
    Solid pseudopapillary neoplasms typically stain positive for markers like NSE and CD10.
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  39. 39.
    All are true about biliary cystadenoma (mucinous cystic neoplasm of liver) except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    High proportion of tumors occur in segment V
    Biliary cystadenomas do not have a predilection for segment V.
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  40. 40.
    Regarding biliary cystadenoma which of the following is true ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Stroma stain positive for inhibin
    The ovarian-like stroma of biliary cystadenomas typically stains positive for inhibin.
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  41. 41.
    Which of the following is true about apnoea test ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Apnoea despite pCO2pCO_2 increase > 20 mmHg above baseline is a positive test
    A positive apnea test is defined by the absence of respiratory effort despite a rise in pCO2pCO_2 of at least 20 mmHg above baseline.
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  42. 42.
    Which of the following is false about brainstem reflex testing in brain death certification ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    In children minimum interval between sets of test is 6 hours
    The interval for brain death testing in children varies by age and is not universally 6 hours.
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  43. 43.
    Which of the following is not a component of Pediatric End-Stage Liver Disease scoring ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Creatinine
    The PELD score includes bilirubin, INR, albumin, growth failure, and age, but not creatinine.
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  44. 44.
    Which among the following is not a risk factor for hepatic artery psuedoaneurysm (HAA) after OLT ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Duct to duct anastamosis
    Duct-to-duct anastomosis is generally considered safer regarding HAA compared to Roux-en-Y hepaticojejunostomy.
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  45. 45.
    All of the following are measures to prevent small for size syndrome except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Routine use of pentoxyphylline
    Pentoxifylline is not a standard prophylactic measure for small-for-size syndrome.
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  46. 46.
    Which of the following is not a specific treatment for primary non function of OLT ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Pentoxyphylline
    Pentoxifylline is not a specific treatment for primary non-function of a liver graft.
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  47. 47.
    Which of the following is not a risk factor for initial poor function of liver graft ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Prostaglandin E1 infusion
    Prostaglandin E1 infusion is often used therapeutically, not as a risk factor for poor graft function.
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  48. 48.
    Snover's triad includes all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Septal ductopenia
    Snover's triad for acute cellular rejection includes portal-based hepatitis, nonsuppurative destructive cholangitis, and endothelitis.
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  49. 49.
    Which of the following is true about cutting mode of monopolar diathermy ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Continuous current
    The cutting mode of monopolar diathermy uses a continuous waveform.
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  50. 50.
    All are the about vessel sealing devices except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Harmonic scalpel is a hand held ultrasonic transducer oscillating at 65kHz
    The Harmonic scalpel typically oscillates at 55.5 kHz, not 65 kHz.
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  51. 51.
    False about autoimmune pancreatitis is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Diagnosis can be made on the basis of typical imaging findings in an appropriate clinical context
    Diagnosis of autoimmune pancreatitis requires a combination of clinical, serological, imaging, and histological criteria, not just imaging alone.
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  52. 52.
    All the following constitute the stage 0 or asymptomatic stage of chronic pancreatitis except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    (Recurrent) acute pancreatitis (no pain between episodes of acute pancreatitis)
    Recurrent acute pancreatitis is generally considered a distinct clinical entity or a precursor stage, not stage 0.
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  53. 53.
    All are acceptable procedures for treatment of chronic pancreatitis with inflammatory head mass except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Partington-Rochelle procedure
    The Partington-Rochelle procedure is a lateral pancreaticojejunostomy used for ductal decompression, not specifically for addressing an inflammatory head mass.
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  54. 54.
    41 year old lady presents with history of right upper quadrant pain last night. Pain resolved with medical management at a local clinic. Ultrasound shows distended gall bladder with 2 calculi sized 8 mm and 9 mm. CBD is normal. Intrahepatic biliary radicles are normal. Her LFT is as follows : T. Bilirubin 0.6 mg/dL, AST 26 IU/L, ALT 19 IU/L, ALP 110 IU/L, GGT 25 IU/L, Albumin 3.9 g/dL. What is the next best option for her management ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
    The patient has symptomatic cholelithiasis with normal LFTs and normal CBD, making laparoscopic cholecystectomy the standard treatment.
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  55. 55.
    All are true about chronic pancreatitis except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Pancreatic function tests are essential for prevention and management of exocrine insufficiency
    Pancreatic function tests are not essential for the management of exocrine insufficiency; clinical symptoms and nutritional status are the primary guides.
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  56. 56.
    A 45 year old male presents with fever and pain abdomen. Ultrasound shows gall stones with dilated CBD and intrahepatic biliary radicles and a stone at the lower end of CBD. LFT is as follows : T. Bilirubin 5.6 mg/dL, AST 126 IU/L, ALT 119 IU/L, ALP 310 IU/L, GGT 125 IU/L, Albumin 2.3 g/dL. CBC shows : Hb 11.8 gm/dL, TLC 18000 cells/dL, Platelets 110000 cells/dL. On examination : patient is icteric and febrile, Pulse rate 106/min, BP : 92/50 mm Hg, Respiratory rate 22/min. All are next immediate acceptable steps in management except :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    ERCP and stone clearance
    In a patient with acute cholangitis and hemodynamic instability (septic shock), immediate stone clearance via ERCP is risky; stabilization and biliary drainage (stenting) are prioritized.
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  57. 57.
    Cholecystectomy is recommended in the following for asymptomatic gall stones:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Children with sickle cell anemia
    Prophylactic cholecystectomy is recommended for children with sickle cell anemia due to the high risk of complications and difficulty in distinguishing biliary pain from sickle cell crisis.
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  58. 58.
    False about surgical management of Crohn's disease is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Histopathological, and not gross, negative margin is associated with lower recurrence
    Studies have shown that microscopic (histopathological) negative margins do not necessarily correlate with lower recurrence rates in Crohn's disease compared to gross margins.
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  59. 59.
    True statement about surgical management of ulcerative colitis is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    T otal abdominal colectomy and ileorectal anastomosis is an alternative option in young women to preserve fecundity.
    Ileorectal anastomosis is often considered in young women to avoid the pelvic dissection associated with IPAA, which can impact fertility.
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  60. 60.
    False statement about the risk/etiology of pouchitis is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Consistent association with backwash ileitis
    While backwash ileitis is associated with ulcerative colitis, it is not a consistent risk factor for the development of pouchitis.
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  61. 61.
    ESPAC-4 trial compared the outcomes between
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Adjuvant Gemicitabine vs Gemcitabine plus Capecitabine
    The ESPAC-4 trial demonstrated that adjuvant gemcitabine plus capecitabine improved survival compared to gemcitabine alone in pancreatic cancer.
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  62. 62.
    Staging laparoscopy in pancreatic cancer is indicated in all the below situations except:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    CA19-9 > 35 U/ml
    A CA19-9 level of > 35 U/ml is not a specific indication for staging laparoscopy; it is a general marker for pancreatic malignancy.
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  63. 63.
    A 60 year old male presents with fever, jaundice and weight loss. Imaging reveals a pancreatic mass encasing PV-SMS junction. SMA is free. CBD and pancreatic duct are dilated. He is newly diagnosed diabetic with HbA 1c of 10.1. LFT shows T. Bilirubin 18.6 mg/dL, AST 156 IU/L, ALT 144 IU/L, ALP 1060 IU/L, GGT 525 IU/L, Albumin 3.1 g/dL. All are indications for biliary drainage in this patient except :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Bilirubin > 10 mg/dL
    Bilirubin level > 10 mg/dL is not an absolute indication for biliary drainage in the absence of cholangitis or need for neoadjuvant therapy.
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  64. 64.
    False statement about cervical and intrathoracic anastomosis after esophagectomy in patients with carcinoma esophagus
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Cervical anastomosis is associated with lower recurrence rate
    Cervical anastomosis is generally associated with a higher rate of anastomotic leak and potentially higher recurrence compared to intrathoracic anastomosis.
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  65. 65.
    The most effective perioperative chemotherapy is good-risk patients with gastric cancer is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    FLOT
    The FLOT regimen (fluorouracil, leucovorin, oxaliplatin, and docetaxel) has been shown to be superior to ECF in the perioperative setting for gastric cancer.
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  66. 66.
    False statement about post gastectomy syndrome is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Afferent loop syndrome is more common after Roux-en-Y reconstruction than after Billroth's II reconstruction
    Afferent loop syndrome is significantly more common after Billroth II reconstruction than after Roux-en-Y reconstruction.
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  67. 67.
    A 67 year old male presented with pain abdomen. On evaluation, he was found to have a large FDG avid (SUVmax- 3.4) heterogeneous density arterial phase hyperenhancing mass measuring 6.2×6.9×6.16.2 \times 6.9 \times 6.1 cm involving segments II and III of left lobe of liver. A non-enhancing hypodense scar was seen within the lesion. Rest of liver appeared normal. No other significant findings on PET CT. He was also found to be HBcAb positive, DNA 335 copies/ml. UGIE did not show varices. CBC: Hb 12.6 gm/dL, TLC 7800 cells/dL, Platelets: 201000 cells/dL. LFT: T. Bilirubin 0.6 mg/dL, AST 86 IU/L, ALT 74 IU/L, ALP 110 IU/L, GGT 35 IU/L, Albumin 3.8 g/dL. T umour markers were as follows: PIVKA-II: 21516 mAU/ml, AFP : 35.5 ng/ml. What is the best treatment option for this patient ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Antivirals + Staging laparoscopy followed by left hepatectomy
    Given resectable HCC in a non-cirrhotic liver with preserved liver function, antiviral therapy combined with surgical resection (left hepatectomy) after staging laparoscopy is the optimal treatment.
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  68. 68.
    A 16 month old baby is brought with an abdominal lump. Further imaging reveals a well demarcated tumour without capsule occupying segments V, and VIII. There is another small nodule in segment IV. Portal veins are free. MHV is involved by the tumour. AFP levels 300000 ng/ml. Stage the disease
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    PRETEXT III C0 E0 F1 H0 M0 N0 P0 V1
    Based on involvement of two adjacent sections (right anterior section V/VIII and extrahepatic/multifocal factors including segment IV nodule and MHV/portal vein involvement), the PRETEXT staging corresponds to PRETEXT III with specific annotation factors.
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  69. 69.
    Risk factors for intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma include all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Aflatoxin
    Aflatoxin is a major established risk factor for hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC), not cholangiocarcinoma.
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  70. 70.
    All the following are implicated in colonic carcinogenesis except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Calcium supplements
    Calcium supplements are protective against colonic carcinogenesis, whereas low fiber diet, smoking, and post-cholecystectomy status are implicated as risk factors.
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  71. 71.
    All are components of intensive surveillance after the treatment of colon cancer stage II and III except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Faecal occult blood 6 monthly
    Fecal occult blood testing is not recommended for post-treatment surveillance of colon cancer.
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  72. 72.
    False statement about genetic susceptible colon cancer is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    MUTYH-associated polyposis is an autosomal dominant, and relatively less common hereditary colonic cancer
    MUTYH-associated polyposis (MAP) is an autosomal recessive condition, making option D false.
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  73. 73.
    Which of these are incorrectly matched ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Somatostatinoma: Steatorrhea, gall stones, hypoglycemia, weight gain
    Somatostatinoma classically presents with diabetes mellitus, steatorrhea, gallstones, and weight loss, but causes hyperglycemia due to inhibition of insulin, not hypoglycemia.
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  74. 74.
    A 35 year old male presents with anemia. UGI endoscopy reveals a bulge in the posterior wall 4×44 \times 4 cm in size with small central ulcer. CT shows a solid, smoothly contoured mass that enhances brightly arising from greater curvature ∼6×6\sim 6 \times 6 cm. Slpeen and pancreas is free. Next step in management is:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Wedge resection of stomatch with mass
    For localized gastric gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST) like this, wedge resection with negative margins without routine lymphadenectomy is the standard surgical treatment.
    Report a mistake
  75. 75.
    Which of the following hereditary conditions has the highest frequency of Pancreatic NET ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    MEN 1
    MEN 1 (Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 1) has the highest penetrance and frequency of pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors (pNETs).
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  76. 76.
    In Thromboelastograph (TEG) clot strength is indicated by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    MA
    Maximum Amplitude (MA) on a thromboelastograph (TEG) measures the absolute clot strength.
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  77. 77.
    Regarding ROTEM in coagulation monitoring which of the following is correct ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    It will generate five assays
    ROTEM generates standard assays (Ex-TEM, In-TEM, Ap-TEM, Fib-TEM, Hep-S), typically encompassing five primary assays.
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  78. 78.
    All of the following are Vitamin K dependent factors except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Factor V
    Factor V is not vitamin K-dependent; factors II, VII, IX, X, Protein C, and Protein S are vitamin K-dependent.
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  79. 79.
    Cryoprecipitate contains all of the following except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Factor IX
    Cryoprecipitate contains fibrinogen, factor VIII, von Willebrand factor, and factor XIII, but does not contain factor IX (which is found in fresh frozen plasma and PCC).
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  80. 80.
    Which of the following is the least likely complication of massive blood transfusion ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Metabolic acidosis
    Massive transfusion more frequently leads to metabolic alkalosis (due to metabolism of citrate to bicarbonate) rather than metabolic acidosis, alongside hyperkalemia, hypothermia, and citrate toxicity.
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  81. 81.
    CONSORT statement provides guidance for reporting
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Randomised controlled trials
    The CONSORT (Consolidated Standards of Reporting Trials) statement provides guidelines for reporting randomized controlled trials.
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  82. 82.
    IMRAD structure of writing scientific paper include all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Analysis
    IMRAD stands for Introduction, Methods, Results, and Discussion ('Analysis' is part of Methods/Results, not a core letter in IMRAD).
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  83. 83.
    Ghost authorship is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Failing to name, someone who has made significant contribution
    Ghost authorship refers to failing to acknowledge someone who has made substantial intellectual contributions to a publication.
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  84. 84.
    True about cohort studies are all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Easy and less expensive
    Cohort studies are typically costly, time-consuming, and difficult to conduct (not 'easy and less expensive').
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  85. 85.
    True about meta analysis are all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Includes only experimental studies
    Meta-analyses can include both experimental and observational studies, not exclusively experimental trials.
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  86. 86.
    Which of the following indicates the probability that observe difference between groups might be due to chance alone ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    p value
    The p-value represents the probability of obtaining test results at least as extreme as the results actually observed, under the assumption that the null hypothesis is correct (chance alone).
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  87. 87.
    Fundamental principles of medical ethics are all the following except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Altruism
    The four core principles of biomedical ethics are autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Altruism is a virtue, not one of the four foundational principles.
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  88. 88.
    Identify the type of research question if the Objective of study is to determine the effect of tobacco smoking in the management of pain in chronic pancreatitis
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Analytical research question
    Studying the effect or association of an exposure (tobacco) on an outcome (pain management) represents an analytical research question.
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  89. 89.
    In the National Library of Medicine (NLM) MeSH means
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Medical Subject Head
    MeSH stands for Medical Subject Headings used for indexing articles in MEDLINE/PubMed.
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  90. 90.
    Which of the following is useful to measure the burden or magnitude of a disease or risk factor ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Cross-sectional study
    Cross-sectional studies measure prevalence and are ideal for assessing disease burden and the distribution of risk factors in a population.
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  91. 91.
    Which face of a clinical trial is referred to as post marketing surveillance ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Phase 4
    Phase 4 clinical trials are post-marketing surveillance studies conducted after a drug or intervention has been approved for public use.
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  92. 92.
    Any process that tends to produce results that depart systematically from true values in a research study is known as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Bias
    Systematic error leading to deviation from the true value in research is defined as bias.
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  93. 93.
    The method which can be used to alleviate compounding during data analysis in an epidemiological study
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Multivariate analysis
    Multivariate regression analysis is performed during the data analysis phase to control and adjust for confounding, whereas restriction, matching, and randomization are applied during the design phase.
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  94. 94.
    Which of the following incorrect about publishing research finding ?
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    Answer: C —
    Conflicts of interest can be suppressed as it has implication in study findings
    Suppressing conflicts of interest violates publication ethics and scientific integrity, making option C incorrect.
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  95. 95.
    Altering the original data to obtain a statistically significant result by the researcher is known as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Falsification
    Falsification involves manipulating research materials, equipment, or processes, or changing/omitting data such that the results are not accurately represented.
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  96. 96.
    Which of the following organisations directly deals with publication ethics ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Committee on Publication Ethics (COPE)
    COPE (Committee on Publication Ethics) provides advice and guidelines on publication ethics for editors and publishers.
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  97. 97.
    Which section of a protocol describes the need to maintain anonymity of study participants while sharing data to others ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Human subject protection
    Provisions for confidentiality, privacy, and anonymity of study participants fall under the human subject protection / ethics section of a research protocol.
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  98. 98.
    Which of the following is a component of concept paper ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Objective and methods
    A concept paper outlines the core idea, objectives, and proposed methods of a study before the full protocol is written.
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  99. 99.
    Which of the following is not part of guidelines for responsible conduct research ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Subjectivity
    Objectivity, not subjectivity, is a core tenet of responsible conduct in research.
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  100. 100.
    A study participant is forced by the investigator to continue in a trial against his will is violation of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Autonomy
    Forcing a participant to continue against their will violates their right to self-determination and voluntary consent, which is the principle of autonomy.
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