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All 100 questions with answers

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  1. 1.
    Which of the following is an example for supra additive synergism?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Levodopa + Carbidopa
    Levodopa and carbidopa combination is a classic example of supra-additive synergism (potentiation).
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  2. 2.
    All are examples of pharmacogenetically mediated adverse effects except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Tardive dyskinesia by neuroleptics
    Tardive dyskinesia is a chronic adverse effect of neuroleptics, not primarily a pharmacogenetic polymorphism like the others.
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  3. 3.
    All the following molecules act through JAK/STAT receptors except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Thyroxine
    Thyroxine acts through intracellular nuclear receptors, whereas growth hormone, interferons, and cytokines act via JAK/STAT pathways.
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  4. 4.
    Which of the following drugs produce phototoxicity? i. Amiodarone ii. Sulfonamides iii. Phenothiazines iv. Phenytoin
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    (i, ii, iii) only
    Amiodarone, sulfonamides, and phenothiazines are well known to cause phototoxicity.
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  5. 5.
    Characteristic features of intramuscular route of drug administration i. Hypertonic solution can be injected ii. Only water solutions can be injected iii. Oily solutions can be injected
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    only iii
    Both water and oily solutions, as well as suspensions, can be administered intramuscularly, making statement iii correct while others are restrictive.
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  6. 6.
    Which of the following statements are correct about Meta-analysis? i. Cannot prove cause and effect ii. Evaluation and grouping of similar studies iii. Aim is to decrease the number of subjects studied
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Only (i and ii)
    Meta-analysis evaluates and combines similar studies statistically but cannot prove cause and effect by itself.
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  7. 7.
    Which statement is not true about transdermal therapeutic system?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    more inter individual variations
    Transdermal systems generally reduce inter-individual variations in plasma concentrations compared to oral dosing.
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  8. 8.
    Among the following combinations which is not a CYP3A4 substrate and its inhibitor?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Metoprolol - Nevirapine
    Metoprolol and Nevirapine is not a typical CYP3A4 substrate-inhibitor pair compared to the others.
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  9. 9.
    All are indications of therapeutic drug monitoring except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Drugs with irreversible actions
    Drugs with irreversible actions (e.g., irreversible MAO inhibitors or aspirin on platelets) are generally poor candidates for TDM because plasma concentration does not correlate well with ongoing effect.
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  10. 10.
    Which of the following statements are correct about clinical trial? i. Phase I - Dose range, safety and tolerability, only in patients ii. Phase II - Therapeutic efficacy and dose range in patients iii. Phase III - Drug safety and tolerability in large number of patients iv. Phase IV - Therapeutic efficacy in large number of patients
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    (ii and iii) only
    Phase II evaluates efficacy and dose range in patients, and Phase III evaluates safety and efficacy in a large number of patients.
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  11. 11.
    Systemic clearance of a drug is directly related with all the following except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Bioavailability
    Systemic clearance is independent of bioavailability, whereas it is directly related to volume of distribution and elimination rate constant.
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  12. 12.
    Which statement is not true about OATP1B1 transporter?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Polymorphism increases transport of OATP1B1 substrates
    Most clinically significant polymorphisms in OATP1B1 lead to decreased transport function, raising plasma levels of substrates like statins.
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  13. 13.
    Which schedule under the drugs and cosmetics rules, 1945 deals with the prescription of tramadol and pentazocine?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Schedule H1
    Schedule H1 contains certain habit-forming drugs, including newer antibiotics and strong analgesics like tramadol and pentazocine.
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  14. 14.
    Among the following benzodiazepines which is preferred in elderly individuals?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Lorazepam
    Lorazepam is metabolized via simple glucuronidation without active metabolites, making it safer in elderly patients.
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  15. 15.
    Quality Adjusted Life Years (QALYS) is a measure of which pharmacoeconomic analysis
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Cost-utility analysis
    Cost-utility analysis measures health outcomes in terms of Quality-Adjusted Life Years (QALYs).
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  16. 16.
    Botulinum toxin is beneficial in all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    post operative paralytic ileus
    Botulinum toxin causes muscle relaxation/paralysis and is not used to treat paralytic ileus.
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  17. 17.
    Among the following drugs which is not useful in acute congestive glaucoma
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Dipivefrine
    Dipivefrine is an epinephrine prodrug that can cause mydriasis, which is contraindicated in acute angle-closure (congestive) glaucoma.
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  18. 18.
    All are advantages of third generation β\beta blocker Nebivolol except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Slow onset of hypotensive response
    Nebivolol does not have a characteristically slow onset of hypotensive response as a specific therapeutic advantage.
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  19. 19.
    All are properties of halothane except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Good analgesic agent
    Halothane is a potent general anesthetic but a poor analgesic and weak muscle relaxant.
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  20. 20.
    Which adverse effect is more seen with pentazocin than with morphine?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Hypertension
    Pentazocine can increase heart rate and blood pressure due to sympathetic stimulation (hypertension/tachycardia), unlike morphine which tends to cause hypotension.
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  21. 21.
    All are AMPA blockers used as antiepileptic drugs except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Felbamate
    Felbamate blocks NMDA receptors, whereas perampanel is a direct AMPA antagonist, and topiramate/lamotrigine have multiple mechanisms including weak AMPA/kainate antagonism.
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  22. 22.
    Which of the following statement is not true about Agomelatine an atypical antidepressant drug?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Antagonist on 5HT2A receptor
    Agomelatine acts as an agonist at melatonergic MT1 and MT2 receptors and an antagonist at 5-HT2C receptors (not 5-HT2A).
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  23. 23.
    All are adverse effects of clozapine which is an atypical antipsycholic agent except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Acute muscular dystonia
    Clozapine has a very low incidence of extrapyramidal side effects such as acute muscular dystonia due to its high affinity for muscarinic and 5-HT2 receptors relative to D2.
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  24. 24.
    Baclofen is a centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxant used to treat following clinical conditions except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Cerebral palsy
    Question Cancelled by KPSC.
    Report a mistake
  25. 25.
    All are properties of local anesthetic agent Ropivacaine i. Short acting ii. Less cardiotoxicity iii. Blocks Aδ\delta and C fibres completely iv. Used epidurally for labour pain
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    (ii, iii and iv) only
    Ropivacaine is long-acting (not short-acting), exhibits less cardiotoxicity than bupivacaine, blocks sensory fibers, and is widely used epidurally for labor pain.
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  26. 26.
    Which among the following beta blocker has the longest half life?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Bisoprolol
    Bisoprolol has a longer elimination half-life (~9-12 hours) compared to metoprolol and propranolol, allowing once-daily dosing.
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  27. 27.
    Which of the following calcium channel blockers can delay the progression of early stages of type I diabetes by improving the survival of pancreatic beta cells?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Verapamil
    Verapamil has been shown to reduce thioredoxin-interacting protein (TXNIP) expression and promote pancreatic beta-cell survival in recent clinical trials.
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  28. 28.
    Choose the drug which attenuates platelet aggregation by antagonising thromboxane receptor :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Losartan
    Losartan, besides being an ARB, has an active metabolite (E-3174) that acts as an antagonist at thromboxane A2A_2 receptors, inhibiting platelet aggregation.
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  29. 29.
    In patients with diabetes and chronic kidney disease which of the following drugs can reduce heart failure events and renal function decline
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Finerenone
    Finerenone is a non-steroidal mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist proven to reduce cardiovascular events and progression of chronic kidney disease in type 2 diabetes.
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  30. 30.
    The following antiarrhythmic drug produces anticholinergic side effects
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Disopyramide
    Disopyramide has significant negative inotropic and anticholinergic (atropine-like) adverse effects such as dry mouth, urinary retention, and blurred vision.
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  31. 31.
    Which of the following drug is the first line therapy for severe Pulmonary Artery Hypertension (Functional Class IV)
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Epoprostenol
    Continuous intravenous epoprostenol is the preferred first-line therapy for WHO Functional Class IV pulmonary arterial hypertension due to proven survival benefit.
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  32. 32.
    Idarucizumab is a reversal agent for toxicity due to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Dabigatran
    Idarucizumab is a humanized monoclonal antibody fragment specifically designed to reverse the anticoagulant effect of dabigatran.
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  33. 33.
    Which of the following antiplatelet drug has rapid onset of action and a circulating half life of 3 to 4 days?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Vorapaxar
    Vorapaxar is a PAR-1 antagonist with a very long half-life (3 to 4 days) due to its active metabolite.
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  34. 34.
    Evolocumab is a
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Proprotein convertase subtilisin/Kexin type 9 inhibitor
    Evolocumab is a fully human monoclonal antibody that inhibits PCSK9 (Proprotein convertase subtilisin/kexin type 9), lowering LDL cholesterol.
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  35. 35.
    Thrombopoietin Receptor Agonist (TRAs) preferred in chronic hepatitis C virus (HCV) associated thrombocytopenia
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Eltrombopag
    Eltrombopag is approved for thrombocytopenia in patients with chronic hepatitis C to allow the initiation and maintenance of pegylated interferon-based therapy.
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  36. 36.
    GnRH agonist which can be given intranasally is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Nafarelin
    Nafarelin is a GnRH agonist available as a nasal spray formulation.
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  37. 37.
    Which of the following statement regarding methimazole is correct
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    is the drug of choice for Graves disease
    Methimazole is generally preferred over propylthiouracil for Graves' disease due to a lower risk of severe hepatotoxicity and once-daily dosing convenience.
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  38. 38.
    Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder (HSDD) is treated with :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Ospemifene
    Ospemifene is an estrogen receptor modulator used for vulvar and vaginal atrophy, while flibanserin and bremelanotide are used for HSDD (Note: option choices listed SERMs; among them ospemifene is also indicated for dyspareunia).
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  39. 39.
    Phosphodiesterase 5 (PDE5) inhibitor with maximum duration of action is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Tadalafil
    Tadalafil has a half-life of 17.5 hours and a duration of action up to 36 hours, earning it the nickname 'the weekend pill'.
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  40. 40.
    Anti inflammatory potency is maximum for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Betamethasone
    Betamethasone and dexamethasone are potent long-acting glucocorticoids with very high anti-inflammatory potency compared to hydrocortisone and prednisolone.
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  41. 41.
    Inoperable adrenocortical carcinoma is treated with
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Mitotane
    Mitotane is an adrenolytic agent used in the treatment of inoperable adrenocortical carcinoma.
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  42. 42.
    Which of the following insulin preparation forms multihexameric complexes after sub cutaneous injection?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Degludec
    Insulin degludec forms soluble multihexamers upon subcutaneous injection, resulting in an ultra-long duration of action.
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  43. 43.
    The GLP-1 agonist approved for weight loss independent of diabetes status are i. Dulaglutide ii. Liraglutide iii. Lixisenatide iv. Semaglutide
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    only (ii and iv)
    Liraglutide and semaglutide are approved at specific doses for chronic weight management independent of type 2 diabetes status.
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  44. 44.
    The following bisphosphonate is preferred in treatment of hypercalcemia because of its more rapid normalization of serum and longer duration of action
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Zoledronate
    Zoledronate is a potent intravenous bisphosphonate that provides more rapid normalization of calcium levels and a longer duration of response than pamidronate.
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  45. 45.
    The Vitamin D analogue used in the treatment of Psoriasis is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Calcipotriol
    Calcipotriol is a topical vitamin D analogue used in plaque psoriasis to inhibit keratinocyte proliferation.
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  46. 46.
    Diagnostic testing of cancer specimen for BRAF V 600 mutation is important in guiding treatment decision for the following drug
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Trametinib
    Trametinib is a MEK inhibitor often used in combination with dabrafenib for cancers harboring BRAF V600 mutations (such as melanoma and NSCLC).
    Report a mistake
  47. 47.
    Most neurotoxic alkylating agent is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Ifosfamide
    Ifosfamide frequently causes central nervous system toxicity (encephalopathy, confusion, hallucinations) due to its metabolite chloroacetaldehyde.
    Report a mistake
  48. 48.
    Which of the following drug is a very potent radiosensitizer and should not be used with radiotherapy?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Gemcitabine
    Gemcitabine is a powerful radiosensitizer, and concurrent administration with therapeutic radiation causes severe, life-threatening overlapping toxicities.
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  49. 49.
    Pancreatic Neuro Endocrine Tumor is treated with
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Sunitinib
    Sunitinib is an oral multi-targeted tyrosine kinase inhibitor approved for the treatment of progressive, well-differentiated pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors.
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  50. 50.
    Abiraterone is used for the treatment of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Metastatic prostate cancer
    Abiraterone acetate is a CYP17 inhibitor used with prednisone for metastatic castration-resistant prostate cancer.
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  51. 51.
    Bedaquiline acts by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Inhibiting Adenosine 5'triphosphate synthase in mycobacteria
    Bedaquiline is a diarylquinoline antimycobacterial agent that inhibits mycobacterial ATP synthase.
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  52. 52.
    Guanosine analogue with antiretroviral action is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Abacavir
    Abacavir is a carbocyclic nucleoside analogue (guanosine analogue) reverse transcriptase inhibitor.
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  53. 53.
    Orally effective antifungal antibiotic capable of inducing microsomal enzymes is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Griseofulvin
    Griseofulvin is an oral antifungal antibiotic that is known to induce hepatic cytochrome P450 enzymes.
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  54. 54.
    An orange dye which exerts analgesic action in urinary tract is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Phenazopyridine
    Phenazopyridine is an azo dye that exerts a local analgesic effect on the urinary tract mucosa, turning urine orange-red.
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  55. 55.
    Advantages of Artemisinin based combination therapy include all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    High recrudescence rate
    ACTs actually have a low recrudescence rate compared to monotherapy because the partner drug clears remaining parasites.
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  56. 56.
    All are true about Linezolid EXCEPT
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    It is bactericidal against enterococci
    Linezolid is generally bacteriostatic against staphylococci and enterococci (though bactericidal against streptococci).
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  57. 57.
    Minocycline, in comparison to Doxycycline,
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Attains higher concentration in tears and saliva
    Minocycline is highly lipophilic and penetrates into tears and saliva better than other tetracyclines, making it useful for meningococcal carrier state eradication.
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  58. 58.
    The antimicrobial agent effective against pseudomonas is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Ticarcillin
    Ticarcillin is an antipseudomonal carboxypenicillin active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
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  59. 59.
    Topically effective sulphonamide preparation for bacterial conjunctivities is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Sodium Sulfacetamide
    Sodium sulfacetamide eye drops/ointment are widely used topically for bacterial conjunctivitis.
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  60. 60.
    Orally effective carbapenem, resistant to inactivation by renal dehydropeptidase is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Faropenem
    Faropenem is a penem (closely related to carbapenems) that can be given orally and is stable against renal dehydropeptidase-I.
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  61. 61.
    The mismatched pair among the following is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Pranlukast - Leukotriene synthesis inhibitor
    Question Cancelled by KPSC.
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  62. 62.
    All are uses of N Acetyl Cysteine except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Captopril induced dry cough
    N-Acetylcysteine is used as a mucolytic, antidote for paracetamol poisoning, in dry eyes (as eye drops), and for cyclophosphamide-induced hemorrhagic cystitis, but not for ACE inhibitor-induced cough.
    Report a mistake
  63. 63.
    The CCK1/CCKA receptor antagonist that increases motility of the gastrointestinal tract is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Loxiglumide
    Loxiglumide is a CCK-1 receptor antagonist that stimulates gastrointestinal motility.
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  64. 64.
    New formula for WHO-ORS provides
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    75 mM Na, 20mM K, 65 mM Cl
    The reduced-osmolarity WHO-ORS formula contains 75 mmol/L sodium, 20 mmol/L potassium, and 65 mmol/L chloride.
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  65. 65.
    Emesis is induced by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Ipecacuanha
    Syrup of ipecacuanha contains alkaloids that irritate the gastrointestinal tract and stimulate the chemoreceptor trigger zone to induce vomiting.
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  66. 66.
    Active form of the Enkephalinase inhibitor, Racecadotril is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Thiorphan
    Racecadotril is a prodrug that is rapidly cleaved to its active form, thiorphan, which inhibits enkephalinase in the gut.
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  67. 67.
    In Rheumatoid arthritis, Anakinra acts by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Interleukin 1 receptor antagonism
    Anakinra is a recombinant IL-1 receptor antagonist used to reduce inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis.
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  68. 68.
    Alprostadil effective in Erectile dysfunction in males is a
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    PGE1PGE_1 analogue
    Alprostadil is synthetic prostaglandin E1E_1 (PGE1PGE_1) used for erectile dysfunction via intracavernosal injection or urethral suppository.
    Report a mistake
  69. 69.
    Longest acting 5−HT1D/1B5-HT_{1D/1B} agonist is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Frovatriptan
    Frovatriptan has the longest elimination half-life (~26 hours) among the triptans, resulting in a lower rate of headache recurrence.
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  70. 70.
    The true statement about probenecid is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    It should be taken with plenty of fluids
    Uricosuric agents like probenecid increase uric acid excretion in urine, so patients must drink plenty of fluids to prevent kidney stone formation.
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  71. 71.
    Orally effective drug in scabies is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Ivermectin
    Ivermectin is an oral antiparasitic agent widely used off-label or approved for systemic treatment of scabies.
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  72. 72.
    Drug effective in treatment of Vitiligo is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Trioxsalen
    Trioxsalen is a psoralen used along with UVA light therapy (PUVA) to repigment skin in vitiligo.
    Report a mistake
  73. 73.
    Nephrotoxicity is less common with the use of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Sirolimus
    While calcineurin inhibitors (cyclosporine, tacrolimus) and amphotericin B are notoriously nephrotoxic, mTOR inhibitors like sirolimus have less acute nephrotoxic profile (though they can cause proteinuria and worsen CNI nephrotoxicity).
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  74. 74.
    Immunostimulant action is exhibited by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Levamisole
    Levamisole restores depressed cell-mediated immune function and acts as an immunostimulant.
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  75. 75.
    Lowering of intraocular pressure is seen with the use of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Tafluprost
    Tafluprost is a prostaglandin F2α\alpha analogue used as eye drops to lower intraocular pressure in glaucoma.
    Report a mistake
  76. 76.
    Dimercaprol is contraindicated in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Cadmium poisoning
    Dimercaprol (BAL) forms toxic complexes with cadmium that redistribute to the brain and increase renal toxicity, making it contraindicated in cadmium poisoning.
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  77. 77.
    Povidone lodine is an example for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Iodophore
    Povidone-iodine is a stable chemical complex of iodine and polyvinylpyrrolidone, classified as an iodophor.
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  78. 78.
    Find the wrong pair
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Gemtuzumab -CD3
    Gemtuzumab targets CD33 (not CD3), making this pair incorrect. Muromonab targets CD3.
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  79. 79.
    Read the assertion and reason statements and choose the single best response Assertion (A) : Sildenafil causes impaired blue green discrimination Reason (R): Sildenafil is a weak inhibitor of phosphodiesterase 6
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    Sildenafil weakly inhibits PDE6 found in the retina, which leads to transient blue-green color vision abnormalities.
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  80. 80.
    False statement about lorcaserin is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    It is a cannabinoid receptor antagonist
    Lorcaserin is a selective 5-HT2CHT_{2C} receptor agonist, not a cannabinoid receptor antagonist (rimonabant is a cannabinoid antagonist).
    Report a mistake
  81. 81.
    Experimental animal commonly used for pyrogen testing
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Rabbit
    Rabbits are traditionally the standard experimental animal used for pyrogen testing (rabbit pyrogen test).
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  82. 82.
    According to prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act 1960, definition of 'animal' includes all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Human beings
    Under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 'animal' means any living creature other than a human being.
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  83. 83.
    Sodium dihydrogen phosphate is a constituent of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Tyrode solution
    Tyrode solution contains sodium dihydrogen phosphate as a buffer component.
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  84. 84.
    Which of the anesthetic agents is not suitable for the study of cardiovascular drugs in experimental animals
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Pentobarbitone
    Pentobarbitone produces profound myocardial depression and hypotension, making it less suitable for cardiovascular pharmacology studies.
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  85. 85.
    Which among the following can be used as a mobile phase in normal phase HPLC?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Chloroform
    Question Cancelled by KPSC.
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  86. 86.
    Which among the following is not used as a label in Radioimmunoassay
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Iodine-127
    Iodine-127 is the stable, naturally occurring isotope of iodine and is radioactive, hence not used as a radioactive tracer label in RIA.
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  87. 87.
    Mean total cholesterol values of 50 diabetic patients is 346 mg/dl with standard deviation of 20 and that of non-diabetics is 288 mg/dl with standard deviation 9. To compare these values, which statistical test is the most appropriate?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Independent sample t test
    An independent sample t-test is used to compare the means of two independent groups.
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  88. 88.
    According to the empirical rule, approximately what percentage of the date should lie within +/-2SD
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    95%
    According to the empirical rule (68-95-99.7 rule) for a normal distribution, approximately 95% of the data falls within ±2\pm 2 standard deviations of the mean.
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  89. 89.
    If the data are normally distributed with a mean of 180 and standard deviation of 40. Between what two values will approximately 68% of the data fall
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    140 and 220
    Within ±1\pm 1 standard deviation of the mean (180±40180 \pm 40), 68% of the data falls, which is between 180−40=140180 - 40 = 140 and 180+40=220180 + 40 = 220.
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  90. 90.
    In a box and whisker plot, two sides of the box represent
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    5th5^{th} and 95th95^{th} percentiles
    Wait, let's verify standard box plot representation. The box itself represents the interquartile range (25th25^{th} to 75th75^{th} percentiles), but whiskers often extend to the 5th5^{th} and 95th95^{th} percentiles (or min/max, or 1.5×IQR1.5 \times IQR). As per official KPSC answer key, Option D was marked correct.
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  91. 91.
    Bradykinin receptor antagonist useful for symptomatic treatment of hereditary angioedema
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Icatibant
    Icatibant is a selective B2B_2 bradykinin receptor antagonist used for the treatment of acute attacks of hereditary angioedema.
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  92. 92.
    An endocrine disrupting chemical is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT)
    Question Cancelled by KPSC.
    Report a mistake
  93. 93.
    The preferred drug in type 2 diabetes mellitus patient with patient with cardiac failure
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Empagliflozin
    SGLT2 inhibitors like empagliflozin are recommended for patients with type 2 diabetes and heart failure to reduce hospitalizations and cardiovascular mortality.
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  94. 94.
    Which among the following is not an example of drug repurposing?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Topiramate for treatment of epilepsy
    Topiramate's original and primary approved indication is for the treatment of epilepsy, whereas the others were repurposed from other primary indications (minoxidil from hypertension, sildenafil from angina, thalidomide from morning sickness).
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  95. 95.
    Which among the statements regarding Semaglutide is incorrect?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    it causes weight gain in patients
    Semaglutide causes weight loss, not weight gain, making statement B incorrect.
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  96. 96.
    The drug useful for controlling delusions, hallucinations and psychosis in parkinson's disease
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Pimavanserin
    Pimavanserin is an inverse agonist at 5-HT2AHT_{2A} receptors approved for Parkinson's disease psychosis without worsening motor symptoms.
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  97. 97.
    Which among the following is not included in world Health Organisation's prescribing indicators
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Percentage of encounters with tablets prescribed
    WHO core prescribing indicators include average number of drugs per encounter, percentage prescribed by generic name, percentage with antibiotics, percentage with injections, and percentage from essential medicines list.
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  98. 98.
    Which among the following is a Watch drug as per Aware classification of antimicrobials?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Meropenem
    Question Cancelled by KPSC.
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  99. 99.
    The partial nicotine receptor agonist useful in smoking cessation
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Varenicline
    Varenicline is a partial agonist at α4β2\alpha_4\beta_2 nicotinic acetylcholine receptors used for smoking cessation.
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  100. 100.
    The assumed average maintenance dose per day for a drug used for its main indication in adults is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Defined daily dose
    Defined Daily Dose (DDD) is the assumed average maintenance dose per day for a drug used for its main indication in adults.
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