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As published by the Kerala Public Service Commission.

All 100 questions with answers

Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer. Answers follow the official Kerala PSC answer key.

  1. 1.
    A 65-year-old male patient is admitted to ICU with pyelonephritis and sepsis with a background history of dilated cardiomyopathy. He developed DIC and bleeding manifestations. Six units of fresh frozen plasma were transfused in view of active bleeding. After 3 hours of transfusion, he developed sudden onset shortness of breath. A beside CXR was done which revealed bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. The shortness of breath did not improve with intravenous diuretics. The most likely diagnosis is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Transfusion-related acute lung injury
    The clinical presentation of acute respiratory distress following transfusion, bilateral pulmonary infiltrates, and lack of response to diuretics is characteristic of Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI).
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  2. 2.
    A 27-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with complain of left leg swelling and pain of 1 day duration. Her past medical history is significant only for history of 3 first trimester spontaneous abortions. Doppler studies demonstrate a deep venous thrombosis in the femoral and iliac veins extending into the pelvis. Laboratory studies on admission prior to therapy show normal complete blood count, liver and kidney functions, normal prothrombin time and an activated partial thromboplastin 3 times upper limit of normal. Her pregnancy test is negative. ANA has come negative and IgG aCL is positive in high titres. A diagnosis of primary APS is kept, further test reports are awaited. How will you manage this patient ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Low-molecular-weight heparin therapy followed by Warfarin with INR goal of 2.0-3.0 for life
    Standard management for venous thromboembolism in Antiphospholipid Syndrome (APS) is initial heparin therapy followed by long-term anticoagulation with Vitamin K antagonists (Warfarin).
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  3. 3.
    A 10-year-old boy, case of thalassemia intermedia with history of Febrile Non Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction (FNHTR) after transfusion of PRBC in the past, presents with Hb of 4.5 g/dL and features of cardiopulmonary compromise. A decision to transfuse PRBC has been taken. Which product would be useful in this patient ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Leucodepleted PRBC
    Leucodepletion is the standard preventive measure for Febrile Non-Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions (FNHTR) caused by cytokines released from white blood cells.
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  4. 4.
    What is the life span of platelet in the human body ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    1 week
    The average lifespan of circulating human platelets is approximately 7 to 10 days (1 week).
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  5. 5.
    Which of the following is an oral direct thrombin inhibitor ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Dabigatran
    Dabigatran is a direct oral thrombin inhibitor, whereas Edoxaban and Apixaban are Factor Xa inhibitors.
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  6. 6.
    Which of the following is not a long-acting insulin ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Lispro
    Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin analog, while Glargine, Detemir, and Degludec are long-acting.
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  7. 7.
    Which of the following is not useful as a treatment strategy for adynamic bone disease associated with chronic kidney disease ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Bisphosphonate therapy
    Bisphosphonates are generally contraindicated in adynamic bone disease as they further suppress bone turnover.
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  8. 8.
    An obese diabetic on metformin 1 gm twice a day presents with a recent history of acute coronary event and uncontrolled blood sugar levels. Which anti-diabetic drug is preferred as an add-on to metformin in this patient ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Canagliflozin
    SGLT2 inhibitors like Canagliflozin have demonstrated cardiovascular benefits in patients with established cardiovascular disease.
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  9. 9.
    Which of the following features is not consistent with a diagnosis of SIADH ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Dehydration
    SIADH is characterized by euvolemia; dehydration is inconsistent with the diagnosis.
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  10. 10.
    Which of the following is not a manifestation of myxedema coma ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Hyperventilation
    Myxedema coma typically presents with hypoventilation, not hyperventilation.
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  11. 11.
    Which one of the following is ECG hallmark of hypothermia ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    J waves
    The J wave (or Osborn wave) is a characteristic ECG finding in hypothermia.
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  12. 12.
    Austin Flint murmur mimics the murmur of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Mitral stenosis
    The Austin Flint murmur is a mid-diastolic rumble heard at the apex in severe aortic regurgitation, mimicking mitral stenosis.
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  13. 13.
    A 21-year-old man is brought to the emergency for a syncopal episode that occurred while playing in a volleyball game. There is a prominent systolic ejection murmur along the left sternal border and at the apex on auscultation. ECG reveals features of left ventricular hypertrophy, left atrial enlargement, and septal Q waves. The resident examines him again and asks the patient to perform handgrip while auscultating his heart. Which of the following is most likely to occur to the intensity of the murmur ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Decrease
    The patient has Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy (HOCM). Handgrip increases afterload, which reduces the obstruction and decreases the murmur intensity.
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  14. 14.
    Which one of the following is not a cause of soft first heart sound ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Short P-R interval
    A short P-R interval typically causes a loud (accentuated) first heart sound.
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  15. 15.
    A patient with orbital mucormycosis being treated with posaconazole develops hypokalemia. Which of the following is not a feature of hypokalemia in ECG ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Shortening of the QT interval
    Hypokalemia typically causes prolongation of the QT interval, not shortening.
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  16. 16.
    Which of the following is not used for treatment of pulmonary hypertension ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Beta blockers
    Beta-blockers have negative inotropic and chronotropic effects and are generally contraindicated or not used in pulmonary hypertension treatment regimens.
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  17. 17.
    Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia is characterized by all Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Productive cough
    Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia typically presents with a non-productive, dry, paroxysmal cough, along with nocturnal wheezing and weight loss.
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  18. 18.
    A 60-year-old male is intubated and is being managed in ICU for community acquired pneumonia. The ventilatory parameters showed gradual improvement over 2 days. On the third day morning rounds, you notice that he is agitated, and the ventilator is giving an alarm. The parameters on the screen are shown below : BP : 160/90, PR : 130/min, RR : 26/min, SpO2 : 87%, peak inspiratory pressure : 50 cm of H2O, plateau pressure : 22 cm of H2O. Which among the following is the most likely reason for deterioration ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Bronchospasm
    A high peak inspiratory pressure with a normal plateau pressure indicates an increased airway resistance, which is characteristic of bronchospasm or mucous plugging.
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  19. 19.
    CBNAAT (Xpert MTB/Rif) assay has lowest sensitivity in which of the following specimen ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Pleural fluid
    Pleural fluid has paucibacillary tuberculosis, resulting in the lowest sensitivity for CBNAAT among the listed specimens.
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  20. 20.
    Among the 4 types of sleep study monitoring devices, which one is not portable ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Type 1
    Type 1 sleep study is attended overnight polysomnography performed in a laboratory setting, making it non-portable.
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  21. 21.
    Normal pressure hydrocephalus is characterized by all Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Aphasia
    Normal pressure hydrocephalus is classically characterized by Hakim's triad: gait ataxia, cognitive disturbance (dementia), and urinary incontinence. Aphasia is not a characteristic feature.
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  22. 22.
    An 80-year-old male under treatment for Parkinson's disease and on escitalopram develops lower limb cellulitis for which he was admitted and started on injectable linezolid. Twelve hours later he developed restlessness, anxiety, diaphoresis, hyperthermia, tremor, and muscle rigidity in the lower limbs. On examination he has hyperreflexia, clonus and dilated pupils. What is the most likely diagnosis ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Serotonin syndrome
    The combination of an SSRI (escitalopram) and linezolid (which has MAOI activity) precipitates serotonin syndrome, characterized by neuromuscular hyperactivity, autonomic instability, and altered mental status.
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  23. 23.
    An elderly male presents with history of frequent falls and difficulty in looking downwards and laterally. The most likely diagnosis is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Progressive supranuclear palsy
    Progressive supranuclear palsy (PSP) is characterized by early falls and a supranuclear vertical gaze palsy (particularly downward gaze).
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  24. 24.
    Vitamin B12 deficiency may lead to all the following Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Myopathy
    Vitamin B12 deficiency causes peripheral neuropathy, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, and neuropsychiatric symptoms, but not primary myopathy.
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  25. 25.
    A 15-year-old boy presents to the emergency following a seizure episode. Imaging reveals features of neurocysticercosis with viable cysts. Which of the following statements regarding management of neurocysticercosis is not correct ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Adjunctive corticosteroids should be administered after initiating antiparasitic therapy
    Adjunctive corticosteroids should be administered *before* or concurrently with, but not after, initiating antiparasitic therapy to reduce the inflammatory response caused by dying cysticerci.
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  26. 26.
    Very low CD4 count is associated with all, Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy
    Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy (PGL) typically occurs during early or intermediate stages of HIV infection when CD4 counts are relatively well-preserved.
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  27. 27.
    Congenital non-haemolytic hyperbilirubinaemia includes all, Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Choledochal cyst
    Choledochal cyst is an anatomical biliary tree anomaly, whereas Rotor syndrome, Crigler-Najjar syndrome, and Dubin-Johnson syndrome are congenital non-hemolytic hyperbilirubinemias.
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  28. 28.
    All are causes of Haemochromatosis, Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Biliary cirrhosis
    Biliary cirrhosis does not cause secondary hemochromatosis, whereas ineffective erythropoiesis (thalassemia, sideroblastic anemia) and porphyria can lead to iron overload.
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  29. 29.
    Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is characterized by all Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Constipation
    Zollinger-Ellison syndrome presents with severe peptic ulcers, gastric acid hypersecretion, and diarrhea, not constipation.
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  30. 30.
    All are features of Carcino tumor Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Jejunitis
    Question Cancelled by KPSC.
    Report a mistake
  31. 31.
    Following are the causes of chronic liver disease Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Hepatitis - E
    Hepatitis E causes acute or fulminant hepatic failure but does not cause chronic liver disease (except rarely in immunocompromised patients).
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  32. 32.
    Faecal incontinence is a feature of all Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Diverticulosis
    Diverticulosis is typically asymptomatic or causes diverticular bleeding/diverticulitis, but does not cause fecal incontinence.
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  33. 33.
    Toxic shock syndrome is produced by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Staphylococcus aureus
    Toxic shock syndrome is caused by exotoxins released by Staphylococcus aureus (and Streptococcus pyogenes).
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  34. 34.
    Causes of Dyspepsia are the following Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Respiratory failure
    Respiratory failure does not directly cause dyspepsia, whereas metabolic/systemic disturbances like hypercalcemia, uremia (renal failure), and gallstones do.
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  35. 35.
    H. Pylori eradication is indicated in all the following conditions Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    GERD
    H. pylori eradication is not indicated for uncomplicated GERD as it does not improve symptoms and may even worsen reflux in some cases.
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  36. 36.
    AIDS defining diseases are the following Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Acute primary infection
    Acute primary HIV infection is an early stage, not an AIDS-defining condition.
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  37. 37.
    Diseases associated with Coeliac disease are the following Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Peptic ulcer
    Peptic ulcer disease is not classically associated with celiac disease, whereas autoimmune disorders like pernicious anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, and primary biliary cirrhosis are.
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  38. 38.
    Causes of protein losing enteropathy are the following Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Cholecystitis
    Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder and does not cause protein-losing enteropathy.
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  39. 39.
    Pathogenic factors leading to the production of lithogenic bile are the following Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Reduced cholesterol secretion
    Lithogenic bile is produced by *increased* (supersaturation) cholesterol secretion, not reduced cholesterol secretion.
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  40. 40.
    Complications of acute liver failure are the following Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Hyperglycemia
    Acute liver failure is typically complicated by hypoglycemia due to impaired glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, not hyperglycemia.
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  41. 41.
    Conditions not associated with auto immune hepatitis are
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Sclerosing cholangitis
    Autoimmune cholangitis or primary sclerosing cholangitis overlap can occur, but autoimmune hepatitis is distinctly separate from classic primary sclerosing cholangitis.
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  42. 42.
    Inactivated killed whole cell vaccine are the following Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Hepatitis B vaccine
    Hepatitis B vaccine is a recombinant subunit vaccine produced using recombinant DNA technology, not an inactivated killed whole cell vaccine.
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  43. 43.
    Upper GI endoscopy is indicated in all the following Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Severe shock
    Severe shock is a hemodynamic instability state where elective or non-emergent endoscopy is contraindicated until stabilization is achieved.
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  44. 44.
    Causes of cirrhosis liver includes all the following Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Aplastic anaemia
    Aplastic anemia affects bone marrow hematopoietic cells and does not cause cirrhosis of the liver.
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  45. 45.
    Aetiology of short bowel syndrome includes all Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Coeliac disease
    Celiac disease is a medical mucosal enteropathy and is not an etiology of short bowel syndrome, which requires extensive surgical resection.
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  46. 46.
    Petz-Jeghers syndrome is characterized by all Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Autosomal recessive inheritance
    Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, not autosomal recessive.
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  47. 47.
    Unexplained weight loss is seen in all Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Cushing's syndrome
    Cushing's syndrome is typically characterized by central weight gain and obesity, rather than weight loss.
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  48. 48.
    Acute phase reactant is the following Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Transaminase
    Transaminases (AST, ALT) are liver enzymes, whereas albumin is a negative acute-phase reactant, and procalcitonin/amyloid are positive acute-phase reactants.
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  49. 49.
    Infectious cause of eosinophilia includes all Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Neisseria meningitidis
    Neisseria meningitidis is a bacterial infection typically associated with neutrophilic leukocytosis, not eosinophilia.
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  50. 50.
    Causes of relative bradycardia include all Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Pneumocystis jirovecii
    Pneumocystis jirovecii does not cause relative bradycardia (Faget's sign), whereas Q fever (Coxiella burnetii), typhoid (Salmonella typhi), and certain malignancies do.
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  51. 51.
    Which one of the following offenses does not come under the six A's of professional misconduct of doctors ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Authorship
    The traditional 'Six A's' of medical misconduct include Alcohol, Abortion, Adultery, Addiction, Association, and Advertising. Authorship is not one of them.
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  52. 52.
    Which among the following does not come under "Breach of Professional Secrecy" ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Disclosing details of a patient by a doctor to his colleagues or assistants without consent
    Professional consultation among colleagues or medical assistants involved in patient care does not constitute a breach of professional secrecy.
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  53. 53.
    Which among the following does not come under medical negligence ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Treating an infection with a seemingly less potent antibiotic
    Choosing an antibiotic that is clinically appropriate based on susceptibility or judgment does not constitute negligence, whereas refusal to treat, lack of consent, and ignoring documented drug allergies do.
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  54. 54.
    Which of the following actions is not liable under the Consumer Protection Act ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Failure to cure a disease or a bad outcome that may follow if he had exercised reasonable care and skill
    A bad outcome or failure to cure despite exercising reasonable skill and care does not amount to negligence or liability under the Consumer Protection Act.
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  55. 55.
    Which among the following is NOT a treatment modality in Paracetamol overdosage ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Exchange transfusion
    Exchange transfusion is not a standard treatment modality for paracetamol toxicity; NAC, activated charcoal, and gastric lavage (if early) are used.
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  56. 56.
    Which among the following is NOT an indicator of severe maternal morbidity ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Unstable Angina
    Unstable angina is a cardiac event not listed among the standard WHO/ICD indicators for severe maternal morbidity (near-miss events).
    Report a mistake
  57. 57.
    Which among the following is an advanced imaging modality for musculoskeletal disorders ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Synovial imaging
    Synovial imaging is categorized specifically for evaluating arthritic and inflammatory joint conditions.
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  58. 58.
    Which among the following is true about teriparatide ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    It is given via the subcutaneous route
    Question Cancelled by KPSC.
    Report a mistake
  59. 59.
    Which among the following substances is a component of universal antidote ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Zinc sulphate
    Question Cancelled by KPSC.
    Report a mistake
  60. 60.
    Which among the following is the most common chromosomal abnormality leading to spontaneous abortion ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Monosomy X
    Monosomy X (Turner syndrome) and autosomal trisomies (specifically Trisomy 16) are common, but Monosomy X is among the most frequent single chromosomal abnormalities in early miscarriages.
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  61. 61.
    Which of the following is NOT a radiological feature of osteoporosis ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Increased width of cortex
    Osteoporosis causes cortical thinning, not an increased width of the cortex.
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  62. 62.
    Which among the following regarding Vitamin D metabolism is true ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    The recommended dietary allowance of Vitamin D for adults is 600 1u/day
    The recommended dietary allowance (RDA) of Vitamin D for normal adults is generally 600 IU/day.
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  63. 63.
    Which among the following is the toxic subatnce present in Baking Powder ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Tartaric acid
    Baking powder contains sodium bicarbonate and an acidifying agent such as tartaric acid.
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  64. 64.
    Which among the following is NOT a part of the management of Ecclampsia-Preecclampsia ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Diuretics to treat edema
    Diuretics are not recommended for treating edema in preeclampsia because maternal intravascular volume is already contracted.
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  65. 65.
    CAP sign on MRI is seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Ependymoma
    The 'cap sign' on MRI (areas of hypointensity outlining the tumor) is classically seen in ependymomas.
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  66. 66.
    Which among the following is true regarding Paget's disease ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Paget's disease is osteitis deformans, driven primarily by abnormal osteoclast activity, and features markedly elevated alkaline phosphatase (ALP).
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  67. 67.
    Which among the following is wrong regarding heavy metals and antidotes ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Desferroxamine - Arsenic, cadmium
    Desferroxamine is the specific chelating antidote for iron toxicity, not arsenic or cadmium.
    Report a mistake
  68. 68.
    Which among the following is NOT a risk factor for placental abruption ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Diabetes mellitus
    Diabetes mellitus is not a primary independent risk factor for placental abruption, whereas hypertension, preeclampsia, and prior abruption are well-established risk factors.
    Report a mistake
  69. 69.
    Which is the best radiological modality for imaging breast implants ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    MRI
    MRI is the gold standard and most accurate modality for evaluating breast implant integrity and detecting ruptures.
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  70. 70.
    Which among the following is true regarding osteomyelitis ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Staph aureus is the causative organism when osteomyelitis develops following nail puncture through a shoe
    Pseudomonas aeruginosa is typically responsible for osteomyelitis following puncture wounds through rubber-soled shoes, but Staphylococcus aureus remains the most common overall; however, specific nail-through-shoe cases classically implicate Pseudomonas (though option D highlights S. aureus or Pseudomonas; let's follow the key).
    Report a mistake
  71. 71.
    Informed consent does not involve understanding by the patient of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Lifesaving procedure in case of emergency
    In life-threatening emergencies where consent cannot be obtained, treatment is provided under the doctrine of implied consent without needing prior informed consent discussion.
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  72. 72.
    Which among the following is correct regarding oral fatal doses of poisons ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Malathion - 1 g
    Malathion has an approximate oral fatal dose of 1 g/kg (or around 1 g depending on reference toxicology tables).
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  73. 73.
    Which among the following does not predispose to preterm labour ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Obesity
    Question Cancelled by KPSC.
    Report a mistake
  74. 74.
    Which imaging technique is most useful for staging and follow up of lymphoma ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    PET scan
    PET-CT scan is the standard and most useful imaging modality for staging and treatment response evaluation in lymphomas.
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  75. 75.
    Which among the following is NOT a non-pharmacological modality in the management of osteoarthritis ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Question Cancelled by KPSC.
    Report a mistake
  76. 76.
    Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Asplenia ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    May have autosomal recessive inheritanec
    Congenital asplenia is typically inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern with variable expressivity, not autosomal recessive.
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  77. 77.
    GATA2 deficiency-false-statement is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Associated with NHL
    GATA2 deficiency is characteristically associated with myeloid malignancies (like MDS/AML) and immunodeficiency, rather than Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL).
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  78. 78.
    Chronic granulomatous disease-incorrect statement
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Prophylactic antibiotics are not recommended
    Prophylactic antibiotics (such as trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole) and antifungals are strongly recommended and standard care in Chronic Granulomatous Disease.
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  79. 79.
    False statement regarding Job's syndrome is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Decreased levels of serum IgG
    Job's syndrome (Hyper-IgE syndrome) features high IgE and normal or elevated IgG/IgA, not decreased levels of serum IgG.
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  80. 80.
    All are true regarding HLH Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Fibrinogen levels are characteristically elevated
    Hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (HLH) is characterized by *hypofibrinogenemia* (low fibrinogen levels), not elevated levels.
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  81. 81.
    False regarding Rheumatoid arthritis
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Felty's syndrome occurs in early stages
    Felty's syndrome (rheumatoid arthritis, neutropenia, and splenomegaly) typically occurs in long-standing, severe, seropositive rheumatoid disease, not in early stages.
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  82. 82.
    False regarding Polyarteritis nodosa
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Eosinophilia is common
    Eosinophilia is characteristic of eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss), not classic Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN).
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  83. 83.
    Most common association of Cryoglubulinemia
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Hepatitis C
    Hepatitis C virus infection is the most common cause of mixed cryoglobulinemia (Type II and III).
    Report a mistake
  84. 84.
    False regarding IgG4 related disease
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Females are more commonly affected than males
    IgG4-related disease predominantly affects middle-aged and elderly males, not females.
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  85. 85.
    Lofgren's syndrome-false statement is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Associated with poor prognosis
    Löfgren's syndrome (acute sarcoidosis with bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, erythema nodosum, and arthralgia) is associated with an excellent prognosis and high rate of spontaneous resolution.
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  86. 86.
    False regarding Kawasaki syndrome
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Myocarditis is common
    While cardiovascular manifestations occur, myocarditis is less common or a secondary feature compared to coronary vasculitis, cervical adenitis, and mucocutaneous changes (note: KPSC key marks D as the false statement option).
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  87. 87.
    Response to ECF volume contraction are all Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Increased ANP secretion
    Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is secreted in response to ECF volume expansion, not contraction.
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  88. 88.
    All are risk factors for osmotic demyelination Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Hyperkalemia
    Hyperkalemia is not a risk factor for osmotic demyelination syndrome; hypokalemia, malnutrition, and rapid correction of hyponatremia are.
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  89. 89.
    True regarding glucocorticoid remediable hyperaldosteronism are all Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Mineralocorticoid is synthesised in zona glomerulosa
    Question Cancelled by KPSC.
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  90. 90.
    Liddle's syndrome-all are true Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Increased renin secretion
    Liddle's syndrome features suppressed (low) plasma renin and aldosterone levels due to autonomous sodium reabsorption.
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  91. 91.
    Typical findings in distal RTA include all Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    High urinary ammonium excretion
    Distal RTA (Type 1) is characterized by *low* urinary ammonium excretion because the kidney cannot acidify the urine.
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  92. 92.
    Causes of high cardiac output hypotension include all Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Cardiogenic shock
    Cardiogenic shock is characterized by *low* cardiac output and high systemic vascular resistance, unlike distributive states (sepsis, anaphylaxis, liver failure) which feature high cardiac output and hypotension.
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  93. 93.
    Causes of decline in MAP after institution of mechanical ventilation include all Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Increased catecholamine secretion
    Increased catecholamine secretion would increase blood pressure, not cause a decline in mean arterial pressure (MAP).
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  94. 94.
    Type III respiratory failure-false statement
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Non invasive ventialation is not useful in treatment
    Non-invasive ventilation is indeed useful in treating perioperative (Type III) respiratory failure and atelectasis.
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  95. 95.
    Mechanically ventilated patients may undergo spontaneous breathing trial if all are met Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    PEEP> 5 cm H2O
    A PEEP ≤5 cm H2O\le 5\text{ cm } H_2O is required for a spontaneous breathing trial, not PEEP >5 cm H2O> 5\text{ cm } H_2O.
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  96. 96.
    Ventialtor associated pneumonia-all are true Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Occurs within 48 hours after initiating mechanical ventilation
    Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) is defined as pneumonia occurring *more than* 48 hours after endotracheal intubation, not within 48 hours.
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  97. 97.
    Risk factors for failed extubation even after a successful spontaneous breathing trial include all Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    BMI < 30
    A BMI <30< 30 is normal/non-obese and is not a risk factor for extubation failure, whereas obesity (BMI≥30BMI \ge 30), advanced age, and prolonged ventilation are risk factors.
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  98. 98.
    Patient candidates for ECMO include all Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Contraindication for systemic anticoagulation
    A contraindication for systemic anticoagulation is a major contraindication for ECMO due to high risk of circuit thrombosis and hemorrhage.
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  99. 99.
    Distributive shock-all are true Except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    CVP and PCWP are increased
    In distributive shock, central venous pressure (CVP) and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) are typically normal or decreased due to vasodilation and relative hypovolemia.
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  100. 100.
    Not an example for obstructive shock
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Severe burns
    Severe burns lead to hypovolemic (distributive) shock, whereas tension pneumothorax and massive aortic dissection/tamponade are examples of obstructive shock.
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