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Assistant Professor Architecture - Technical Education Engineering Colleges question paper 2023

Date of test
05-06-2023
Question paper code
64/2023/OL
Questions
100
Answer key
Provisional Answer Key
Exam mode
Online (computer based)

Provisional key. Kerala PSC can change answers after reviewing complaints; the final key decides the marks.

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Source: Kerala PSC (keralapsc.gov.in) · official document· Last updated 25 Sept 2026· How we check content

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All 100 questions with answers

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  1. 1.
    The placement of rooms/functional spaces in correlation with each other and in due proximity to each other is known as _________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Grouping
    Grouping refers to the arrangement of rooms in a building according to their functional interrelationships and proximity.
    Report a mistake
  2. 2.
    What is the most famous work of Gaudi that is still unfinished?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Sagrada Familia
    The Basílica de la Sagrada Família in Barcelona is Antoni Gaudí's most famous masterpiece, which remains unfinished.
    Report a mistake
  3. 3.
    Whose statement is "T oday I am accused of being a revolutionary, yet I confess to having had only one master: the past; and only one discipline: the study of the past."?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Le Corbusier
    This quote is attributed to the pioneering modern architect Le Corbusier.
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  4. 4.
    The red series of the modular man developed by the master Architect Le Corbusier is based on the height of the ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Navel of a Man
    Le Corbusier's Modulor red series is based on the human body height measured from the navel.
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  5. 5.
    What is the name given to the effect produced by deriving the maximum benefits from the minimum dimensions of a room?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Roominess
    Roominess is the architectural term for achieving a sense of spaciousness within compact dimensions.
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  6. 6.
    Which among the following is not a design element?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Movement
    Movement is a principle of design, whereas value, space, and line are elements of design.
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  7. 7.
    Bhonga houses have roofs supported by ________ walls.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Conical and cylindrical
    Traditional Bhonga houses (found in Kutch, Gujarat) feature cylindrical mud walls supporting conical thatched roofs.
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  8. 8.
    _________ consists of load bearing masonry piers and infill walls with wood runners at floor levels which tie the walls together with floors, all of which get locked together by the force induced by the masonry.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    T aq
    Taq construction is a traditional earthquake-resistant construction technique featuring timber tie-rods and masonry.
    Report a mistake
  9. 9.
    Name the field that deals with the scientific study of human measurements.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Anthropometry
    Anthropometry is the scientific study of the measurements and proportions of the human body.
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  10. 10.
    Which among the following is referred to by Jane Jacob's term "eyes on the street"?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    People living in high-rise buildings that exist in dense urban settings are required to watch their streets as part of their volunteering in the community.
    Jane Jacobs used 'eyes on the street' to describe the active surveillance provided by people living in buildings overlooking the streets.
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  11. 11.
    What is meant by pietra-dura?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    It was a technique for the inlay of precious stones and gems on stone walls.
    Pietra dura is an inlay technique of using cut and fitted, highly polished colored stones to create images.
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  12. 12.
    Palepolis means?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Old city
    'Palepolis' is derived from Greek roots where 'pale' means old and 'polis' means city.
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  13. 13.
    Who designed The Interlace, Singapore?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    OMA
    The Interlace residential complex in Singapore was designed by Office for Metropolitan Architecture (OMA) led by Ole Scheeren.
    Report a mistake
  14. 14.
    Orbit T ower built at the London Olympic Park has been designed by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Anish Kapoor and Cecil Balmond
    The ArcelorMittal Orbit tower was designed by artist Anish Kapoor and structural engineer Cecil Balmond.
    Report a mistake
  15. 15.
    Hiroshima Peace Memorial museum in Japan is designed by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Kenzo T ange
    The Hiroshima Peace Memorial Museum was designed by the renowned Japanese architect Kenzo Tange.
    Report a mistake
  16. 16.
    Which among the following are the characteristics of Neo-Plasticism?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Horizontal and vertical lines, primary colors and asymmetry
    Neo-Plasticism (De Stijl movement) is characterized by strict use of horizontal/vertical lines, primary colors, and asymmetrical balance.
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  17. 17.
    Who designed Casa da Musica in Portugal?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Rem Koolhaas
    Casa da Música in Porto, Portugal, was designed by Dutch architect Rem Koolhaas.
    Report a mistake
  18. 18.
    Who is known as "Father of Contemporary Architecture"?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Louis Sullivan
    Louis Sullivan is widely acclaimed as the 'father of skyscrapers' and the 'father of modern/contemporary architecture'.
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  19. 19.
    T uscan and composite orders are associated with
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Roman architecture
    The Tuscan and Composite orders were developed by the Romans, adding to the classical Greek orders.
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  20. 20.
    Name the architect who designed London's Millennium Bridge.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Norman Foster
    London's Millennium Footbridge was designed by Foster + Partners, Sir Anthony Caro, and Arup.
    Report a mistake
  21. 21.
    Which among the following is not designed by Eero Saarinen?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    John F . Kennedy Presidential Library, Boston
    The John F. Kennedy Presidential Library in Boston was designed by I.M. Pei, not Eero Saarinen.
    Report a mistake
  22. 22.
    Name the Architect of Guggenheim Museum in Bilbao, Spain
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Frank Gehry
    The Guggenheim Museum Bilbao was designed by Frank Gehry and opened to the public in 1997.
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  23. 23.
    ________ is the ism that was developed to advocate the idea that ordinary and depictive expressions are vital and important, but that the sense of their arrangement must be open to the full range of imagination according to the Hegelian Dialectic.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Surrealism
    Surrealism sought to channel the unconscious mind and unlock the full range of imagination beyond logical reasoning.
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  24. 24.
    Which among the following is not an Art Nouveau Building?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Las Pozas, Mexico
    Las Pozas in Mexico is a surrealist garden built by Edward James, not an Art Nouveau building.
    Report a mistake
  25. 25.
    Name the Architect of Guangzhou Opera House.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Zaha Hadid
    The Guangzhou Opera House in China was designed by Iraqi-British architect Zaha Hadid.
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  26. 26.
    Which of the properties of 'FORM' in Architecture is/are correct with respect to the conditions under which we view them? (i) Changing perspective or angle of view presents different shapes or aspects of a Form to our eyes. (ii) Our distance from a Form does not determine its apparent size. (iii) Lighting conditions under which we view a Form does not affect the clarity of its shape and structure. (iv) The visual field surrounding a Form influences our ability to read and identify it.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    (i) and (iv)
    Perspective angle alters visible shapes (i) and the surrounding visual field influences form identification (iv). Distance and lighting heavily affect apparent size and shape clarity respectively, making (ii) and (iii) incorrect.
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  27. 27.
    The Faculty-Student ratio of undergraduate and post graduate program in Architecture course as per COA minimum standards of Architectural education shall be _______ respectively.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    1:10 and 1:5
    Council of Architecture (COA) standards specify the faculty-to-student ratio as 1:10 for undergraduate and 1:5 for postgraduate programs.
    Report a mistake
  28. 28.
    A fixed amount paid as deposits by contractors to Architect/Owner as a guarantee for faithful performance which is usually 10% of the value of work. This amount can be deposited in installments from the payments due to him for the works already executed and it gets blocked up and does not bear any interest is called as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Retention money
    Retention money is withheld from contractor payments as a guarantee against defects and faithful performance.
    Report a mistake
  29. 29.
    In designing an apartment building if site area is 4500 sq.m., permissible ground coverage is 50% and FAR is 2.5 and each floor height is 3m, calculate the height of the building to be built to achieve the given FAR.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    15 m
    Site area = 4500 m24500\text{ m}^2. Maximum allowable total built-up area = Site Area×FAR=4500×2.5=11250 m2\text{Site Area} \times \text{FAR} = 4500 \times 2.5 = 11250\text{ m}^2. Maximum ground coverage = 50% of 4500=2250 m250\% \text{ of } 4500 = 2250\text{ m}^2. Number of floors = Total Built-up AreaGround Coverage=112502250=5\frac{\text{Total Built-up Area}}{\text{Ground Coverage}} = \frac{11250}{2250} = 5 floors. Height = 5×3 m=15 m5 \times 3\text{ m} = 15\text{ m}.
    Report a mistake
  30. 30.
    GRIHA rating system awards the certification in the following levels:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    1 star, 2 star, 3 star, 4 star, 5 star
    GRIHA rating rates buildings on a 1 to 5 star scale based on their environmental performance.
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  31. 31.
    A portion of an ordinary brick with the cut made longitudinally and usually having one uncut stretcher face is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Closer
    A closer is a portion of a brick cut lengthwise, keeping one full stretcher face.
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  32. 32.
    From the following take out the term which is not applied in construction of arches in an Arcade
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Quoin
    A quoin refers to the external corner stones of a masonry building, not an arch component.
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  33. 33.
    Match the figures in group-1 with their corresponding joints in group-2 Group 1 a. ... b. ... c. ... d. ... Group 2 1. Dovetail joint 2. Tongue and Groove joint 3. Lap joint 4. Mortise and Tenon joint
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
    Correct matching pairs of standard carpentry joints as per graphical representation.
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  34. 34.
    Among the following illustrated plan configurations which is a suitable configuration for earthquake resistant building form
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    B
    Symmetric, regular, and compact plan configurations perform best during seismic events.
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  35. 35.
    Identify the trusses shown in the figures given below: (i) ... (ii) ...
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    (i)-Warren, (ii)-Fink
    Truss (i) represents a Warren truss and truss (ii) represents a Fink truss.
    Report a mistake
  36. 36.
    An H-shaped hinge having a protruding knuckle so that a door can stand away from the wall when fully opened is known as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Parliament hinge
    Parliament hinges have a projecting knuckle allowing doors to swing clear of architraves and fold flat against the wall.
    Report a mistake
  37. 37.
    A concrete slab reinforced by ribs in two directions laid in equal depth able to carry heavier loads and span longer distances is known as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Waffle slab
    A waffle slab (two-way joist slab) consists of a grid of concrete ribs running in two directions, providing structural efficiency for long spans.
    Report a mistake
  38. 38.
    Identify from the following the type of glass made from plate glass by reheating and sudden cooling which is 3-5 times stronger than plate glass. The glass when broken, the pieces are relatively small in size and is extensively used in curtain walls
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    T empered glass
    Tempered (toughened) glass undergoes thermal treatments to increase strength and crumbles into small granular chunks upon breaking.
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  39. 39.
    Super-light rope technology with a carbon fiber core and high friction coating is an advanced technology in high rise buildings used for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Elevators
    UltraRope technology by KONE uses a carbon fiber core to enable elevators to travel significantly higher in ultra-high-rise buildings.
    Report a mistake
  40. 40.
    Construction of a temporary support for an unsafe structure or during repairs or alterations or when an adjacent structure is to be dismantled is called as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Shoring
    Shoring is the process of temporarily supporting an unsafe or altering structure to prevent collapse.
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  41. 41.
    An electrically powered Macerator and pump unit is fitted to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Water closets in basement
    Macerators are used in basement water closets/toilets to grind waste and pump it up to the main sewer line where gravity drainage is impossible.
    Report a mistake
  42. 42.
    Choose the correct sequence from the options given below with respect to water supply connection to building from municipal lines (a) Service pipe (b) Goose neck (c) Ferrule (d) Stop cock (e) Water meter
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    (c)-(b)-(a)-(d)-(e)
    The proper sequence from municipal main to building is: Ferrule -> Goose neck -> Service pipe -> Stop cock -> Water meter.
    Report a mistake
  43. 43.
    In structural design of long span structures, select the correct answer: (i) Deflection is a major design determinant rather than bending stresses (ii) Sections should be deepest where the bending moments are greatest (iii) Long span structures such as arches, vaults and domes develop thrust at their supports (iv) Majority of long span structures are one way systems
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All the above
    All statements accurately describe structural mechanics principles applied in long-span buildings.
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  44. 44.
    Select the correct answer related to the ducting system in air conditioning in buildings
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Aspect ratio with rectangular section should not exceed 4:1
    To minimize friction losses and turbulence, the aspect ratio of rectangular HVAC ducts should ideally be kept below 4:1.
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  45. 45.
    According to fire safety regulations of NBC, the EXITS in a T ype-1 construction in Group-A category buildings shall be so located that the travel distance on the floor shall not exceed
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    30 m
    According to the National Building Code (NBC) of India, maximum travel distance to an exit for residential buildings (Group A) is 30 meters.
    Report a mistake
  46. 46.
    The role of vermiculite in vertical landscaping is _________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Water retention material
    Vermiculite is widely used in green walls and potting mixes for its excellent water and nutrient retention properties.
    Report a mistake
  47. 47.
    Match the terminologies in Column - I with their descriptions in Column - II and select the appropriate option. Column - I Column - II P Pruning 1 Maintaining moisture content in soil by a protective layer Q Stripping 2 Removing broken branches from trees for better growth R Hoeing 3 Loosening the ground to remove weeds S Mulching 4 Cutting tree 5 Harvesting of bark
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    P-2, Q-5, R-3, S-1
    Pruning: removing branches (P-2); Stripping: bark harvesting (Q-5); Hoeing: loosening soil/weeds (R-3); Mulching: maintaining soil moisture (S-1).
    Report a mistake
  48. 48.
    Which of the following statements is/are correct about the main ecological principles concerning cities? (i) Cities are ecosystems. (ii) Cities are dynamic. (iii) Human and natural processes interact in cities. (iv) Cities are spatially heterogeneous.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All the above
    All listed characteristics are fundamental ecological principles applied to urban ecosystems.
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  49. 49.
    Match the Scientific names in Column - I with their common names in Column - II and select the appropriate option. Column - I Column - II P Cassia fistula 1 Gulmohar Q Delonix regia 2 Golden shower R T oona Ciliata 3 Banyan S Ficus benghalensis 4 Peepal 5 Indian Mahagony
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3
    Cassia fistula is Golden shower (P-2), Delonix regia is Gulmohar (Q-1), Toona ciliata is Indian mahogany (R-5), Ficus benghalensis is Banyan (S-3).
    Report a mistake
  50. 50.
    A hemispherical mound of 4 meter diameter is proposed to be constructed in a park. If the proportion of soil and sand for the construction is 3:1, the estimated volume of soil in cubic meters is ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    12.6
    Radius r=2 mr = 2\text{ m}. Volume of hemisphere V=23πr3=23π(2)3=163π≈16.755 m3V = \frac{2}{3} \pi r^3 = \frac{2}{3} \pi (2)^3 = \frac{16}{3} \pi \approx 16.755\text{ m}^3. Proportion of soil is 3:13:1, meaning soil is 34\frac{3}{4} of total volume. Volume of soil = 34×16.755=12.566 m3≈12.6 m3\frac{3}{4} \times 16.755 = 12.566\text{ m}^3 \approx 12.6\text{ m}^3.
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  51. 51.
    Match the terminologies in Column - I with their descriptions in Column - II and select the appropriate option. Column - I Column - II P Vista 1 Presented in the form of a path, line of fountains or trees Q Axis 2 Dense shrubs or trees that form a fence, screen or boundary. R Avenue 3 A flowerbed with a mix of different plants S Hedge 4 A straight path or road with a line of trees or large shrubs running along each side 5 View amidst buildings, trees and landscape features
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-2
    Vista: view amidst landscape features (P-5); Axis: line of fountains/path (Q-1); Avenue: straight path with trees (R-4); Hedge: dense shrubs forming boundary (S-2).
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  52. 52.
    The layout of Mughal Gardens used a Proportioning system. It is derived from
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Rational number system
    Mughal garden layouts primarily employed rational number proportions based on grids and symmetrical divisions (e.g., Charbagh).
    Report a mistake
  53. 53.
    Which among the following is not a geometric garden?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Chinese gardens
    Chinese gardens are naturalistic, mimicking natural landscapes rather than using strict geometric symmetry like Mughal or Persian gardens.
    Report a mistake
  54. 54.
    'Shakti Sthala' designed by Ravindra Bhan, is characterised by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Earthen mounds, belt of trees, large rocks
    Shakti Sthala (Indira Gandhi's memorial) features landscape elements such as large monoliths, earthen mounds, and belts of trees reflecting ecological restoration.
    Report a mistake
  55. 55.
    The process of landscaping, or gardening, that reduces or eliminates the need for irrigation is known as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Xeriscape
    Xeriscaping is landscaping designed specifically for areas that lack accessible, abundant supplies of fresh water.
    Report a mistake
  56. 56.
    Match the Scientific names of trees provided in Column - I with the corresponding colour of their bloom in Column - II and select the appropriate option. Column - I Column - II P Lagerstroemia speciosa 1 Red Q Cassia fistula 2 Blue R Tabernae montana 3 Yellow S Delonix regia 4 White 5 Pink
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-1
    Lagerstroemia speciosa: Pink (P-5); Cassia fistula: Yellow (Q-3); Tabernaemontana: White (R-4); Delonix regia: Red (S-1).
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  57. 57.
    A landscaped garden measures 20,000 sqm. It is covered with 10% brick paving, 15% cement concrete paving, 10% PVC geo-membrane and rest with grass. The peak intensity of rainfall in that region is 100 mm/hr. The coefficient of runoff for brick paving, cement concrete paving, PVC geo-membrane and grass is 0.8, 0.9, 1 and 0.5 respectively. The estimated quantity of runoff in cubic meter/hr for the entire garden area is ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    1280
    Total area = 20,000 m220,000\text{ m}^2. Brick = 10%=2000 m210\% = 2000\text{ m}^2 (C=0.8C=0.8). Concrete = 15%=3000 m215\% = 3000\text{ m}^2 (C=0.9C=0.9). PVC = 10%=2000 m210\% = 2000\text{ m}^2 (C=1.0C=1.0). Grass = 65%=13000 m265\% = 13000\text{ m}^2 (C=0.5C=0.5). Weighted runoff coefficient Cavg=(2000×0.8)+(3000×0.9)+(2000×1.0)+(13000×0.5)20000=1600+2700+2000+650020000=1280020000=0.64C_{avg} = \frac{(2000\times 0.8) + (3000\times 0.9) + (2000\times 1.0) + (13000\times 0.5)}{20000} = \frac{1600 + 2700 + 2000 + 6500}{20000} = \frac{12800}{20000} = 0.64. Rainfall intensity I=100 mm/hr=0.1 m/hrI = 100\text{ mm/hr} = 0.1\text{ m/hr}. Runoff Q=Cavg×I×A=0.64×0.1×20000=1280 m3/hrQ = C_{avg} \times I \times A = 0.64 \times 0.1 \times 20000 = 1280\text{ m}^3/\text{hr}.
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  58. 58.
    Match the landscape designers listed in Column - I with their designs in Column - II and select the appropriate option. Column - I Column - II P F L Olmstead 1 Versailles Palace gardens Q Gertrude Jekyll 2 Central Park R André Le Nôtre 3 Hestercombe House, Somerset S Lancelot Brown 4 Blenheim Palace, Oxfordshire 5 Design with Nature
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
    F.L. Olmsted: Central Park (P-2); Gertrude Jekyll: Hestercombe House (Q-3); André Le Nôtre: Versailles (R-1); Lancelot 'Capability' Brown: Blenheim Palace (S-4).
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  59. 59.
    Berms correspond to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    A barrier to prevent, divert or direct water away from a particular area.
    A berm is a raised earthen mound or barrier used in landscaping to redirect runoff or block views.
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  60. 60.
    Arrange the particles of soil in descending order of grain size.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Gravel, Sand, Silt, Clay
    Descending order of grain size for soil particles: Gravel > Sand > Silt > Clay.
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  61. 61.
    The concentric circles in a sun-path diagram represent _______.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Altitude angle
    In stereographic sun-path charts, concentric circles represent the solar altitude angle (elevation), while radial lines represent azimuth angles.
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  62. 62.
    Which of the following acts as a wind catcher in a building and helps provide cross-ventilation and passive cooling?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Badgir
    A 'Badgir' (windcatcher) is a traditional architectural element used to create natural ventilation in buildings.
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  63. 63.
    Match the climate parameters in Column - I with the corresponding instruments in Column - II and select the appropriate option. Column - I Column - II P Precipitation 1 Psychrometer Q Wind 2 Pyranometer R Solar Radiation 3 Anemometer S Humidity 4 Disdrometer 5 Barometer
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
    Precipitation: Disdrometer (P-4); Wind: Anemometer (Q-3); Solar Radiation: Pyranometer (R-2); Humidity: Psychrometer (S-1).
    Report a mistake
  64. 64.
    The maximum and minimum indoor dry bulb temperatures of a room are 38°C and 32°C, respectively. If the corresponding outdoor maximum and minimum dry bulb temperatures are 40°C and 28°C, respectively, then the thermal damping of the room (in percentage, rounded off to two decimal place) is ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    50.00
    Outdoor temperature range = 40−28=12 ∘C40 - 28 = 12\text{ }^\circ\text{C}. Indoor temperature range = 38−32=6 ∘C38 - 32 = 6\text{ }^\circ\text{C}. Thermal damping (decrement factor) = (1−Indoor RangeOutdoor Range)×100(1 - \frac{\text{Indoor Range}}{\text{Outdoor Range}}) \times 100 or simply evaluating the amplitude reduction ratio. Ratio of indoor range to outdoor range = 612=0.5\frac{6}{12} = 0.5 or 50%50\%.
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  65. 65.
    Which of the following factors do not impact Daylight Autonomy of a built space?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Outdoor Illumination
    Daylight Autonomy is a metric based on threshold illuminance levels received from annual climate-based simulation, independent of instantaneous fluctuating outdoor illumination as an input parameter.
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  66. 66.
    Which among the following acronyms does not represent a thermal comfort index?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    ENVI
    ENVI (specifically ENVI-met) is a microclimate simulation software, whereas PMV, PET, and UTCI are established thermal comfort indices.
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  67. 67.
    A 1.5 m high window is located on a south facing wall. The solar azimuth angle is equal to the wall azimuth angle and the solar altitude angle is 60°. The minimum depth (in metres, rounded off to two decimal places) of overhand required to completely shade the window is ________. (Assume that the overhang is located at the lintel level of the window)
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    0.87
    Window height H=1.5 mH = 1.5\text{ m}. Solar altitude angle α=60∘\alpha = 60^\circ. Minimum overhang depth D=Htan⁡(α)=1.5tan⁡(60∘)=1.53≈0.866 m≈0.87 mD = \frac{H}{\tan(\alpha)} = \frac{1.5}{\tan(60^\circ)} = \frac{1.5}{\sqrt{3}} \approx 0.866\text{ m} \approx 0.87\text{ m}.
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  68. 68.
    Assuming other variables remaining constant, the Tropical Summer Index.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Increases with increase in vapour pressure
    Tropical Summer Index (TSI) increases when humidity/vapour pressure increases because higher humidity increases thermal discomfort.
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  69. 69.
    A room measures 4 m (width) × 4.5 m (length) × 4 m (height). The outdoor temperature is 36°C. The volumetric specific heat of air is 1000 J/cu.m.°C. The ventilation heat flow rate in Watts required to attain an internal room temperature of 28°C with 2 air changes per hour is ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    320
    Volume of room V=4×4.5×4=72 m3V = 4 \times 4.5 \times 4 = 72\text{ m}^3. Ventilation rate Qair=2×723600=0.04 m3/sQ_{air} = \frac{2 \times 72}{3600} = 0.04\text{ m}^3/\text{s}. Temperature difference ΔT=36−28=8 ∘C\Delta T = 36 - 28 = 8\text{ }^\circ\text{C}. Heat flow rate H=Qair×Volumetric specific heat×ΔT=0.04×1000×8=320 WH = Q_{air} \times \text{Volumetric specific heat} \times \Delta T = 0.04 \times 1000 \times 8 = 320\text{ W}.
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  70. 70.
    Which of the following statements is/are correct about EIA? (i) It comprises of 4 stages - screening, scoping, public consultation and appraisal. (ii) Environmental assessments are classified into four types i.e., strategic environmental assessment, regional EIA, sectoral EIA and project level. (iii) The nature of impacts fall within three broad classifications i.e., direct, indirect and cumulative.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    All the above
    All three statements correctly outline the stages, classifications, and impact types associated with Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA).
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  71. 71.
    A zone of junction between two or more diverse ecosystems is termed as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Ecotone
    An ecotone is a transition area between two different biomes or ecosystems, such as a forest and grassland.
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  72. 72.
    The rating tool for Green buildings, GRIHA was developed by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    The Energy and Resources Institute
    GRIHA (Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment) was originally developed by The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI).
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  73. 73.
    Net Zero Coalition, as called for in the Paris Agreement corresponds to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Cutting greenhouse gas emissions to as close to zero as possible, with any remaining emissions re-absorbed from the atmosphere
    Net zero means cutting greenhouse gas emissions to as close to zero as possible, with any remaining emissions re-absorbed from the atmosphere.
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  74. 74.
    Match the terms in Column - I with the corresponding definitions in Column - II and select the appropriate option. Column - I Column - II P Sky View Factor 1 Ratio of areas of a site that have a positive effect on the ecosystem Q Biotope Area Factor 2 Ratio of sky hemisphere visible from the ground R Surface Roughness 3 Reflectivity of solar energy on Earth's surface S Surface Albedo 4 Mean shadow fractions on the ground 5 Irregularity of the building heights
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3
    Sky View Factor: ratio of visible sky (P-2); Biotope Area Factor: ecological green space ratio (Q-1); Surface Roughness: building height irregularity (R-5); Surface Albedo: solar reflectivity (S-3).
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  75. 75.
    The term coined by Paolo Soleri that combines ecology with architecture and deals with habitats maintaining an extremely high population density is ______.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Arcology
    Arcology is a portmanteau of 'architecture' and 'ecology' coined by Paolo Soleri to describe hyper-dense, self-contained urban habitats.
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  76. 76.
    Match the Urban Planning Theories in Group I with their Proponents in Group II Group I Group II P Choice theory of planning 1 Walter Christaller Q Central Place Theory 2 Paul Davidoff and T.A. Reiner R Neighborhood Theory 3 Harris and Ullman S Multiple Nuclei Theory 4 Clarence Perry 5 Homer Hoyt
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
    Choice theory of planning: Davidoff and Reiner (P-2); Central Place Theory: Christaller (Q-1); Neighborhood Theory: Perry (R-4); Multiple Nuclei Theory: Harris and Ullman (S-3).
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  77. 77.
    T otal land area for a plotted housing development project is 75.0 hectare, of which, area under community facilities, common open spaces and roads are 9%, 10% and 16% respectively. T otal number of saleable plots of 300 m2 each will be
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    1625
    Total area = 75 hectares=750,000 m275\text{ hectares} = 750,000\text{ m}^2. Total deduction percentage = 9%+10%+16%=35%9\% + 10\% + 16\% = 35\%. Saleable land percentage = 100%−35%=65%100\% - 35\% = 65\%. Saleable area = 0.65×750,000=487,500 m20.65 \times 750,000 = 487,500\text{ m}^2. Number of plots = 487500300=1625\frac{487500}{300} = 1625.
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  78. 78.
    Match the characteristics in Group I with the type of settlements in Group II as given in URDPFI Guidelines 2015, Government of India Group I Group II P Towns that are notified under law by the concerned State/UT Government and have local bodies like Municipal Corporations, Municipalities, Municipal Committees, etc. 1 Counter-Magnets Q Town having potential for investment and development; identified on the basis of their interaerial relationship with the regional nodal centre 2 Satellite Towns R Settlements that are growing sub-nodal centres but located out of the direct functionally linked areas of the growth node / nodal centre in the region 3 Peri-Urban Areas S Zones of transition from rural to urban land uses located between the outer limits of urban and regional centres and rural environment 4 Priotiry Towns 5 Statutory Towns
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-3
    Statutory towns have municipal bodies (P-5); Priority towns have investment potential (Q-4); Counter-magnets are growing sub-nodal centers (R-1); Peri-urban areas are transition zones (S-3).
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  79. 79.
    Match the Street Layouts of Ancient Indian Settlements in Group I with their corresponding types in Group II Group I Group II P ... 1 Swastika Q ... 2 Nandyavarta R ... 3 Chaturmukha S ... 4 Karmukha 5 Padmaka
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    P-1, Q-5, R-3, S-4
    Ancient town planning grid layouts correspond to the traditional Vastu Shastra typologies like Swastika, Padmaka, Chaturmukha, and Karmukha.
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  80. 80.
    Match the Events in Group I with their directives in Group II Group I Group II P The Venice Charter, 1965 1 Kyoto Protocol Q UN Framework Convention on Climate change, New York, 1992 2 Conservation and Restoration of Monuments and sites R UN Sustainable Development Summit, New York, 2015 3 Agenda 21 S Habitat II, Istanbul, 1996 4 Agenda 2030 5 Housing for All
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5
    Venice Charter: Conservation of Monuments (P-2); UNFCCC 1992: Kyoto Protocol related framework / Agenda 21; UN Summit 2015: Agenda 2030 (R-4); Habitat II: Housing for All / Sustainable settlements (S-5).
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  81. 81.
    An Act to provide for the improvement and clearance of slum areas in certain Union territories and for the protection of tenants in such areas from eviction is :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    The Slum Areas (Improvement and Clearance) Act, 1956
    The Slum Areas (Improvement and Clearance) Act was enacted in 1956 in India.
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  82. 82.
    A housing project is proposed to be designed in a plot of 1.95 hectare. Maximum permissible FAR is 1. The share of the numbers of dwelling units (DU) for MIG, LIG and EWS is 1:2:3 having sizes of 60, 30 and 25 sq.m. respectively. The maximum number of DU which can be accommodated in the plot considering the builtup is only utilized for the DU's is _______.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    600
    Plot area = 1.95 ha=19,500 m21.95\text{ ha} = 19,500\text{ m}^2. Max built-up area (FAR=1FAR = 1) = 19,500 m219,500\text{ m}^2. Proportional mix ratio of DU units is MIG:LIG:EWS = 1:2:31:2:3. Let unit sets be xx. Total built-up per set = (1×60)+(2×30)+(3×25)=60+60+75=195 m2(1 \times 60) + (2 \times 30) + (3 \times 25) = 60 + 60 + 75 = 195\text{ m}^2. Number of sets = 19,500195=100\frac{19,500}{195} = 100 sets. Total DUs = 100×(1+2+3)=100×6=600100 \times (1 + 2 + 3) = 100 \times 6 = 600 DUs.
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  83. 83.
    Arrange the following states in Ascending order of the percentage of urbanization as per 2011 Census 1. Kerala 2. Mizoram 3. Goa 4. Tamil Nadu Choose the correct option from the codes given below :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    1, 4, 2, 3
    Urbanization percentage levels in 2011 Census (ascending): Kerala (47.7%), Tamil Nadu (48.4%), Mizoram (52.1%), Goa (62.2%). Thus order is 1, 4, 2, 3.
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  84. 84.
    Match the schemes in Group I with their specific targets in Group II Group I Group II P AMRUT 1. Urban Amenities for Rural Areas Q NREGA 2. Urban Rejuvenation R PURA 3. Housing for BPL families S IAY 4. Rural Employment 5. Slum Upgradation
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
    AMRUT: Urban Rejuvenation (P-2); NREGA: Rural Employment (Q-4); PURA: Urban Amenities for Rural Areas (R-1); IAY (Indira Aawas Yojana): Housing for BPL families (S-3).
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  85. 85.
    Garden city by Sir Ebenezer Howard movement had the "Magnets" to addresses the question 'Where will the people go?' The choices are : 1. Country 2. Town 3. Town - Country 4. Employment
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    1, 2 and 3
    Ebenezer Howard's Three Magnets diagram addresses the pull factors of Town, Country, and Town-Country.
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  86. 86.
    Match the following Land Use structure for a Large City as per the URDPFI guidelines: Group A Group B P Residential 1 36-39% Q Commercial 2 14-16% R Pub. and Semi Public 3 7-8% S Recreational 4 10-12% 5 5-6%
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    P-1, Q-5, R-3, S-4
    URDPFI land use percentages for large cities: Residential takes 36-39% (or up to 40%), Commercial takes 4-5%, Public/Semi-public takes 6-8%, Recreational takes 12-14% (matching standard ranges).
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  87. 87.
    Which of the following are the attributes of Demography? P. Migration trends Q. Population growth R. Sex ratio S. Work force T. Annual rainfall of a region U. Local festivals
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    P, Q, R, S only
    Demography studies population statistics including migration, growth, sex ratio, and workforce. Rainfall and festivals are not demographic attributes.
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  88. 88.
    Match the following: Type of Road Row P. Arterial road 1. 12-30 M Q. Sub Arterial 2. 50-80 M R. Collector 3. 80-100 M S. Local 4. 30-50 M 5. 12-20 M 6. 6-9 M
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-5
    Right of Way (ROW) standards: Arterial road (50-80m), Sub-arterial (30-50m), Collector street (12-30m), Local street (12-20m).
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  89. 89.
    Match the following: Vehicle Type ECS P. Car/Taxi 1. 1.00 Q. Two Wheeler 2. 0.15 R. Auto Rickshaw 3. 0.10 S. Bicycle 4. 0.25 5. 0.50
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    P-1, Q-4, R-5, S-3
    Equivalent Car Space (ECS) factors per IRC guidelines: Car/Taxi = 1.0, Two Wheeler = 0.25, Auto Rickshaw = 0.50, Bicycle = 0.10.
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  90. 90.
    Major objectives of a truck terminal are 1. To reduce parking, loading/unloading stress away from CBD 2. To locate facilities for vehicle repairing 3. To caters to intercity movements of goods 4. Manufacturing of small trucks 5. To serve as public transportation hub 6. To serve as tourist hub
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    1, 2, 3 only
    Truck terminals are freight facilities meant to decongest CBDs, provide repair services, and handle intercity goods movement.
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  91. 91.
    What does Lithology refers to? 1. The study of rocks and rock formation 2. The study of soil and soil formation 3. The study of Lithium ion Batteries 4. Study of Lithography
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    Answer: A —
    1 only
    Lithology is the scientific study and description of rocks and their physical characteristics.
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  92. 92.
    Which of the following hold true according to Central Place Theory? 1. Resources are equally distributed in a city 2. This theory is suitable for hilly areas 3. This theory is suitable for Cold countries only 4. Mumbai is a good example for central place theory
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    1 only
    Central Place Theory assumes an isotropic plain with uniform distribution of resources and topography.
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  93. 93.
    What does Enoscope refers to?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    A tool box used to determine the spot speed of the vehicle
    An enoscope is a mirror-based optical instrument used in traffic engineering to measure spot speeds of vehicles over a trap distance.
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  94. 94.
    Match the following : Land Use Type Colours P. Residential 1. Red Q. Commercial 2. Yellow R. Institutional 3. Purple S. Industrial 4. Green 5. Blue 6. Pink
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3
    Standard master plan land use color coding: Residential is Yellow (P-2), Commercial is Red (Q-1), Public/Semi-Public (Institutional) is Blue (R-5), Industrial is Purple (S-3).
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  95. 95.
    When was the Kerala TP act was enacted?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    2016
    The Kerala Town and Country Planning Act was enacted in 2016.
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  96. 96.
    Choose the various correct types of GIS software systems.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Hand-held GIS, Server GIS, Desktop GIS, Developer GIS
    GIS software is typically categorized into Desktop GIS, Server GIS, Developer GIS, and Hand-held/Mobile GIS.
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  97. 97.
    What is the scale of Maps for Planning Metropolitan Regional Plan according to URDPFI?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    1:25,000 - 1:10,000
    According to URDPFI guidelines, maps for metropolitan regional/sub-regional plans are prepared at scales ranging from 1:25,000 to 1:10,000.
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  98. 98.
    Who developed the first Artificial Neural Networks Model (ANN) - Perceptron
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Frank Rosenblatt
    The Perceptron, one of the earliest artificial neural network models, was invented by Frank Rosenblatt in 1958.
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  99. 99.
    NUIS stands for _______
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    National Urban Information System
    NUIS stands for National Urban Information System, a geospatial database program in India.
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  100. 100.
    Input Data for SLEUTH in CA land use change model are
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Slope, Land use, Exclusion land, Urbanization, Transportation, Hill shade
    The SLEUTH cellular automata model requires input images: Slope, Land-use, Exclusion, Urban extent, Transportation, and Hillshade (SPIFUT).
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