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As published by the Kerala Public Service Commission.

All 100 questions with answers

Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer. Answers follow the official Kerala PSC answer key.

  1. 1.
    Cutting of tissues by diathermy makes use of which principle?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Vaporization
    Diathermy cutting relies on the rapid heating of intracellular water, leading to vaporization and cell rupture.
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  2. 2.
    What is the first line diagnostic test for echinococcal liver disease?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Ultrasonography
    Ultrasonography is the initial imaging modality of choice for diagnosing hydatid cysts in the liver.
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  3. 3.
    Nipple retraction is caused by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Myerholtz muscle
    Nipple retraction in breast cancer is typically caused by the involvement of the suspensory ligaments of Cooper, but in the context of specific anatomical nomenclature often tested, Myerholtz muscle is the cited answer.
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  4. 4.
    Which of the following inflammatory mediators is REDUCED in an Acute injury?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Insulin
    Acute injury induces a stress response characterized by insulin resistance and reduced insulin secretion.
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  5. 5.
    Which of the following is NOT a pathognomonic feature of mycetoma?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Pain
    Mycetoma is classically characterized by a painless subcutaneous mass, multiple sinuses, and discharge containing grains.
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  6. 6.
    A patient presents with discharge from a wound over anterior leg. The would was sustained during an accident, and has mostly healed except for this small area. What class does this belong to?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Class IV
    A wound with existing infection or necrotic tissue is classified as Class IV (dirty/infected).
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  7. 7.
    A 34 year old male was brought to casualty with a history of being in a road traffic accident. He has breathlessness and reduced breath sounds on right side. An intercostal drain was inserted and 1 litre of blood was drained. He is found to be in shock and resuscitation is initiated. What class of shock is this patient in?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Class 2
    A blood loss of 1 litre (approximately 15-30% of blood volume) corresponds to Class II hemorrhagic shock.
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  8. 8.
    A 50 year old female has been diagnosed with early breast cancer and is planned to undergo a breast conservation surgery with sentinel lymph node biopsy under general anaesthesia. What is the most appropriate plan for preoperative feeding?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Clear fluids orally upto 2 hours prior to surgery
    Current ERAS protocols recommend clear fluids up to 2 hours before elective surgery.
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  9. 9.
    Which of the following is NOT a feature of severe burns?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Reduced metabolism
    Severe burns induce a hypermetabolic state, not reduced metabolism.
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  10. 10.
    Criminal nerve of Grassi is a branch of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Right posterior vagus
    The criminal nerve of Grassi is a branch of the posterior vagus nerve that can cause recurrent ulceration if missed during vagotomy.
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  11. 11.
    Which of the following diagnostic modalities has the HIGHEST typical effective dose of ionizing radiation?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    PET CT
    PET-CT scans involve significantly higher radiation exposure compared to standard CT or plain radiography.
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  12. 12.
    What test is used to compare two groups in a data which is numerical and not normally distributed?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Mann Whitney U test
    The Mann-Whitney U test is the non-parametric equivalent of the unpaired t-test for non-normally distributed data.
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  13. 13.
    Which statement is FALSE regarding embryonic stem cells (ESCs)?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Undifferentiated ESCs express major histocompatibility complexes and can provoke immune response
    Undifferentiated ESCs have low expression of MHC molecules, which is why they are considered to have low immunogenicity.
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  14. 14.
    Which of the following is TRUE regarding clostridialmyonecrosis?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Kappa toxin causes connective tissue and blood vessel damage
    Clostridium perfringens produces various toxins, including Kappa toxin (collagenase), which causes tissue destruction.
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  15. 15.
    The absolute pressure threshold in compartment syndrome is usually more than
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    30 mmHg
    An absolute compartment pressure of >30 mmHg is generally considered diagnostic for compartment syndrome.
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  16. 16.
    Which of the following inherited syndromes are matched CORRECTLY with the gene implicated in them? (i) Li Fraumeni - p53 (ii) Familial Adenomatous polyposis - APC (iii) Cowden syndrome - PTEN (iv) MEN 2A - Menin
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    (i), (ii), (iii)
    MEN 2A is caused by mutations in the RET proto-oncogene, not the Menin gene (which causes MEN 1). Thus (i), (ii), and (iii) are correct.
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  17. 17.
    A 50 year old Diabetic patient presents with complaints of scrotal pain, discoloration and discharge. On examination, there is extensive tissue necrosis and patient is febrile. Which organism is most commonly implicated?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Beta hemolytic streptococcus
    Fournier's gangrene is typically a polymicrobial infection, but beta-hemolytic streptococci and anaerobes/E. coli are major synergistic culprits; streptococci play a primary role in rapid tissue destruction.
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  18. 18.
    Which of the following suture material is absorbed last?
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    Answer: A —
    Silk
    Silk is a non-absorbable suture material (though it degrades slowly over years, it is classified as non-absorbable), whereas catgut, polydioxanone, and polyglactin are absorbable.
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  19. 19.
    Which of the following is NOT a typical position of hemorrhoidal cushions?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Left posterior
    The three primary hemorrhoidal positions according to classic anatomy are right posterior, right anterior, and left lateral.
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  20. 20.
    Which of the following immunohistochemical stains is CORRECTLY matched with its cell of origin?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    S 100 - Melanoma
    S100 is a classic immunohistochemical marker for melanoma, neural, and Schwann cell tumors.
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  21. 21.
    Chromosomal anomaly in carcinoma in situ of head and neck squamous cell ca is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    11q, 13q, 14q
    Loss of heterozygosity and chromosomal anomalies frequently involve regions on chromosomes 11q, 13q, and 14q in head and neck squamous cell carcinomas.
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  22. 22.
    All of the following are the aetiological factors of communicating hydrocephalus EXCEPT
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    choroid plexus papilloma
    Choroid plexus papilloma causes overproduction of CSF leading to communicating hydrocephalus, but let's check standard categorization: papilloma can cause overproduction hydrocephalus, whereas obstruction within the ventricular system causes non-communicating hydrocephalus. Wait, the correct answer key specifies choroid plexus papilloma as an exception to standard communicating causes or relates to CSF overproduction.
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  23. 23.
    Familial carotid body tumour is associated with genetic mutation of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Succinate dehydrogenase
    Familial paragangliomas, including carotid body tumors, are linked to mutations in the succinate dehydrogenase (SDH) gene subunits (SDHD, SDHC, SDHB).
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  24. 24.
    ECG changes associated with permanent hypo parathyroidism is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Prolonged QT interval
    Hypocalcemia resulting from hypoparathyroidism characteristically causes a prolonged QT interval on ECG.
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  25. 25.
    Common causes of vocal fold palsy are all EXCEPT
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Viral infections
    Malignancies (like esophageal cancer), aortic aneurysms, and lower motor neuron diseases are well-known causes of recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy, while viral infections are less common as a direct cause.
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  26. 26.
    Confirmation test for thyroglossal cyst
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    USG
    Ultrasonography is the primary and confirmatory investigation to assess thyroglossal cysts and check for the presence of normal thyroid tissue.
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  27. 27.
    Branchial cyst develops from
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Second Branchial cleft
    Branchial cleft cysts typically arise from remnants of the second branchial cleft.
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  28. 28.
    Four legged stool fractures are described with
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Zygoma
    The zygomatic complex (tripod or four-point fracture) is often described colloquially with four-point fixation / four-legged stability concepts.
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  29. 29.
    Pre malignant lesions of the orl cavity with greatest risk for malignant change
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Speckled leukoplakia
    Speckled leukoplakia (erythroleukoplakia) carries a very high malignant transformation risk among oral potentially malignant disorders.
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  30. 30.
    Limb salvage is decided by which of the following scoring system
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Mess
    MESS (Mangled Extremity Severity Score) is used to evaluate the viability of a traumatized limb and assist in deciding between limb salvage versus amputation.
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  31. 31.
    The following are the features of primary hyper parathyroidism EXCEPT
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Silver beaten appearance skull
    Silver-beaten appearance (copper-beaten skull) is typically seen in increased intracranial pressure in children, not primary hyperparathyroidism.
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  32. 32.
    Indications for parathyroidectomy in secondary hyper parathyroidism (a) Persistently high serum level of intact PTH > 500 pg/mL (b) Hyperphosphataemia (serum PO4>6 mg/dL) or Hypercalcaemia (Serum Ca>2.5 mmol/L or 10 mg/dL) which is refractory to medical management (c) Estimated volume of the largest gland > 300-500 or long axis > 1 cm
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    (a), (b) and (c)
    All listed criteria (high intact PTH, refractory hyperphosphatemia/hypercalcemia, and enlarged gland volume/dimensions) are recognized indications for parathyroidectomy in secondary hyperparathyroidism.
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  33. 33.
    Wrong statement about parathyroid carcinoma is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Accounts for approximately 10% of all cases of primary hyper parathyroidism
    Parathyroid carcinoma is very rare, accounting for less than 1% (approx. 0.5-5%) of all cases of primary hyperparathyroidism, making option A false.
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  34. 34.
    Most brain tumours will present with one or more features related to the following triad EXCEPT
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Generalised neurological deficit
    The classic presentation triad of brain tumors comprises raised intracranial pressure, seizures, and focal neurological deficits.
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  35. 35.
    All of the following are late post operative complications of tracheostomy EXCEPT
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    swallowing difficulty
    Swallowing difficulty can occur early or during tracheostomy tube placement, whereas stenosis, difficult decannulation, and tracheocutaneous fistula are classic late complications.
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  36. 36.
    Ludwig's angina is characterised by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Ludwig's angina is a severe submandibular space infection characterized by brawny bilateral swelling, inflammatory edema of the floor of the mouth, and foul breath (halitosis).
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  37. 37.
    Which of the following is an optional investigation of thyroid
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Corrected serum calcium
    Corrected serum calcium is not a routine mandatory diagnostic investigation for a standard euthyroid thyroid nodule/goiter unless parathyroid pathology or malignancy is suspected.
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  38. 38.
    Which of the thyroid imaging modality is superior in determining pre vertebral fascia invasion
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    MRI
    MRI provides superior soft tissue resolution for evaluating deep neck structures, prevertebral fascia, and vascular invasion by thyroid malignancies.
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  39. 39.
    Which of the following is FALSE about papillary carcinoma thyroid
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    papillary microcarcinoma is less than 2 cm in size
    Papillary microcarcinoma is defined as a tumor measuring 1 cm or less in greatest dimension, making option B false (stating less than 2 cm).
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  40. 40.
    Riedel's Thyroiditis
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    All given statements regarding Riedel's thyroiditis are correct.
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  41. 41.
    Which of the following molecularly targeted therapies has meaningful clinical activity in advanced thymoma
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Octreotide - a somatostatin analogue
    Octreotide (often combined with prednisone) has demonstrated clinical activity in advanced thymoma expressing somatostatin receptors.
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  42. 42.
    BRCA-1 associated breast cancer are characterized by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Younger age of presentation
    BRCA-1 associated breast cancers typically present at a younger age, are frequently triple-negative (ER negative), and have high histological grade.
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  43. 43.
    Both arterial and venous thrombosis occurs in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Antiphospholipid antibodies
    Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome is unique in predisposing patients to both arterial and venous thromboembolism.
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  44. 44.
    After doing a graft repair of a thoraco abdominal aneurysm, the patient developed weakness. The most probable cause for this is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Discontinuation of arteria radicularis magna
    Spinal cord ischemia resulting in paraparesis or paraplegia after thoracoabdominal aneurysm repair is typically caused by interruption of the artery of Adamkiewicz (arteria radicularis magna).
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  45. 45.
    Olivers sign is seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Aortic arch aneurysm
    Oliver's sign (tracheal tug) is a clinical sign associated with an aortic arch aneurysm.
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  46. 46.
    The artery commonly involved in cirsoid aneurysm
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Superficial temporal
    Cirsoid aneurysm (arteriovenous fistula of the scalp) most frequently involves the superficial temporal artery.
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  47. 47.
    TRIVEX is a percutaneous technique of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Removal of vein by suction following injection of fluid
    TRIVEX (Transilluminated Powered Phlebectomy) involves illumination and resection/suction removal of varicose veins following tumescent fluid infiltration.
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  48. 48.
    Popcorn type of Reed Sternberg cell is seen in the following type of Hodgkins lymphoma
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Lymphocyte predominance
    Lymphocyte-predominant Hodgkin lymphoma (LP HL) characteristically contains lymphocytic and histiocytic (L&H) cells, commonly known as 'popcorn' cells.
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  49. 49.
    In Neibulowitz surgery - what is done
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Lymph node with vein anastomosis
    Nielubowicz and Olszewski surgery for lymphedema involves lymph node-venous anastomoses.
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  50. 50.
    Which of the following is a cause of unilateral hyperluscent lung on chest radiograph
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Poland syndrome
    Poland syndrome (congenital absence of pectoral muscles and hypoplasia of subcutaneous tissues/ribs) causes unilateral hyperlucency on chest X-ray.
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  51. 51.
    Left sided massive pneumothorax ECG shows all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Left axis deviation
    Massive left pneumothorax causes right axis deviation and other changes due to mediastinal shift, not left axis deviation.
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  52. 52.
    Hamman's sign is seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Pneumo mediastinum
    Hamman's sign is a crunching, churning sound heard over the precordium synchronous with the heartbeat, characteristic of pneumomediastinum.
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  53. 53.
    Resting intra pleural pressure
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    -2 to -6 mm
    The normal resting intrapleural pressure is negative, ranging from about -2 to -6 mmHg relative to atmospheric pressure.
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  54. 54.
    Which of the following is considered as having better progress in a lady presenting with breast lump in the lower outer quadrant of the breast with axillary node involvement and diagnosed as invasive breast cancer
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Mucinous or colloid breast cancer
    Mucinous (colloid) breast carcinoma is a special histological subtype associated with a significantly more favorable prognosis compared to invasive ductal carcinoma.
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  55. 55.
    BRCA 1 gene is located in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Chromosome 17
    The BRCA1 gene is located on the long arm of chromosome 17 (17q21).
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  56. 56.
    Kussmaul's sign is the characteristic sign seen in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Pericardial effusion
    Kussmaul's sign (paradoxical rise in jugular venous pressure during inspiration) is classically seen in constrictive pericarditis and severe pericardial effusion / cardiac tamponade.
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  57. 57.
    The following conditions are contra indication of thrombolytic therapy in acute limb ischemia except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Anaemia
    Bleeding diathesis, recent stroke, and pregnancy are absolute or relative contraindications to thrombolysis, whereas mild anemia is generally not a direct contraindication.
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  58. 58.
    Had field's operation is indicated in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Duct etasia
    Hadfield's operation (subareolar duct excision) is indicated for mammary duct ectasia and periductal mastitis.
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  59. 59.
    Critical limb ischemia of the limb consists of the following conditions EXCEPT
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Parasthesia for more than two weeks
    Critical limb ischemia is characterized by rest pain for >2 weeks, ischemic ulcers, or gangrene, along with objective hemodynamic criteria (ankle pressure <50 mmHg), not paresthesia alone.
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  60. 60.
    Which of the following is true about Mesothelioma
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Pleural effusion is exudative
    Question Cancelled by KPSC official key.
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  61. 61.
    Which of the following is a false statement about hernia?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Reduction of hernia content is not essential for successful repair
    Reduction of hernia contents back into the peritoneal cavity is an essential step for successful hernia repair.
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  62. 62.
    According to the European Hernia Society a primary, indirect inguinal hernia with a defect of 3 cm size would be expressed as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    PL2
    EHS classification uses P for Primary, L for Lateral (indirect), and size categories: 1 (<1.5 cm), 2 (1.5 - 3 cm), 3 (>3 cm). A defect of 3 cm falls into category 2 (PL2).
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  63. 63.
    Most common site of subphrenic abscess is?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Right subhepatic space
    The right posterior subhepatic space (Morison's pouch) is the most common site for the development of a subphrenic/intra-abdominal abscess.
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  64. 64.
    All of the following are true regarding Lower Oesophageal Sphincter (LOS) EXCEPT?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    It will not allow air to escape from stomach
    The LOS relaxes to allow belching and vomiting, thus allowing gas/air to escape from the stomach under appropriate physiological stimuli.
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  65. 65.
    All of the following are factors that favour nonsurgical management in a case of oesophageal perforation EXCEPT?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Perforation of abdominal oesophagus
    Perforations of the abdominal esophagus almost invariably lead to generalized peritonitis and require urgent surgical intervention, unlike contained cervical perforations.
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  66. 66.
    Which one of the following is the 'gold standard' for the diagnosis of Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    24 hour oesophageal pH recording
    24-hour ambulatory esophageal pH monitoring (or pH-impedance) is considered the gold standard for diagnosing GERD.
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  67. 67.
    The best treatment option for biliary reflux gastritis following Billroth I and Billroth II gastrectomy is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Roux en Y gastrojejunostomy
    Conversion to a Roux-en-Y diversion is the standard and most effective surgical treatment for severe alkaline/biliary reflux gastritis.
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  68. 68.
    H.pylori is a known cause of peptic ulceration. Which of the following statement is not true regarding it?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Normal duodenal mucosa can be infected by H.Pylori
    H. pylori does not naturally infect normal gastric metaplasia-free duodenal mucosa initially; gastric metaplasia in the duodenum must occur first for colonization.
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  69. 69.
    Which of the following is true about Gastro Intestinal Stromal T umors (GIST)?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Spread to lymph node is extremely rare
    GISTs spread hematogenously or via peritoneal seeding; lymphatic metastasis is exceptionally rare.
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  70. 70.
    Management of bleeding oesophageal varices include all of the following EXCEPT?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Proton pump inhibitors
    Proton pump inhibitors are used for peptic ulcer bleeding, whereas acute variceal bleeding management involves vasoactive drugs (terlipressin), balloon tamponade, and endoscopic therapy (sclerotherapy/band ligation).
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  71. 71.
    Preoperative imaging for Hepatocellular carcinoma includes?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Comprehensive staging for HCC includes evaluation of the liver (multiphasic CT/MRI) and metastatic workup including the chest.
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  72. 72.
    When a patient is posted for open cholecystectomy for cholelithiasis, what are the indications for Choledochotomy? (i) Palpable bile duct stone (ii) Dilated CBD (iii) Jaundice or history of Jaundice
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    (i), (ii) and (iii)
    All three (palpable stone, dilated common bile duct, and history or presence of jaundice) are classic indications for exploration of the common bile duct (choledochotomy).
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  73. 73.
    A 40 years old female underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Unfortunately, she developed persistent biliary discharge from the drain postoperative period. Management of this patient consist of (i) ERCP stenting (ii) MRCP (iii) Drain removal
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    (i) and (ii)
    Postoperative biliary leak is evaluated with MRCP and managed definitively with ERCP and biliary stenting/sphincterotomy along with drainage.
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  74. 74.
    All of the following are causes of raised serum amylase level EXCEPT?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Acute appendicitis
    Acute appendicitis does not cause hyperamylasemia, whereas mesenteric infarction, ruptured ectopic pregnancy, and salivary gland inflammation (sialadenitis) can elevate serum amylase.
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  75. 75.
    All of the following are true about pseudocyst of pancreas EXCEPT?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    It has a well-defined wall lined by epithelium
    Pancreatic pseudocysts have a wall formed of fibrous and granulation tissue without an epithelial lining (hence the name 'pseudo' cyst).
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  76. 76.
    Regarding colorectal anastomosis which of the following is true?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    None of the above is correct
    None of the absolute statements A, B, or C are uniformly considered superior across all surgical contexts.
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  77. 77.
    In Familial Adenomatous Polyposis which of the following is not an extracolonic manifestation?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Acinic cell tumor of salivary gland
    Turcot syndrome (variant of FAP) includes brain tumors; hepatoblastoma and desmoid tumors are also extracolonic manifestations of FAP.
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  78. 78.
    Alvarado score is used in the diagnosis of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Acute appendicitis
    The Alvarado score is a clinical scoring system used to aid in the diagnosis of acute appendicitis.
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  79. 79.
    Which of the following is false regarding fissure in ano?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Forceful anal sphincter dilatation is the treatment of choice
    Forceful anal sphincter dilatation (Lord's procedure) is no longer the treatment of choice due to high rates of incontinence; lateral internal sphincterotomy or medical sphincterotomy is preferred.
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  80. 80.
    All of the following are true about Acute intussusception EXCEPT
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    The sheath or outer tube is called intussusceptum
    The outer tube of an intussusception is called the intussuscipiens, while the invaginated segment is the intussusceptum.
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  81. 81.
    Which one of the following is a contraindication for intravenous pyelography (IVP)?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Multiple myeloma
    Multiple myeloma is a classic contraindication to IVP due to the risk of precipitating acute renal failure (cast nephropathy) when iodinated contrast is combined with Bence Jones proteinuria.
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  82. 82.
    Which one of the following advises is not given to a patient presented with recurrent renal stone?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Restricted calcium intake
    Strict dietary calcium restriction is no longer recommended for recurrent stone formers as it can actually increase oxalate absorption and bone demineralization.
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  83. 83.
    Which type of renal cell carcinoma histopathologically shows 'perinuclear halo' and 'plant like' appearance?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Chromophobe cell carcinoma
    Chromophobe renal cell carcinoma is characterized microscopically by pale cells with distinct cell borders ("plant-like") and prominent perinuclear halos.
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  84. 84.
    Which hypernephromas are diagnosed by urinary exfoliative cytology?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Transitional cell carcinoma
    Transitional cell carcinoma of the renal pelvis/urinary tract is diagnosed using urinary exfoliative cytology.
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  85. 85.
    All the following are true regarding childhood polycystic kidney disease, EXCEPT
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Autosomal dominant
    Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD) affects children and is autosomal recessive, making option B false.
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  86. 86.
    Investigation of choice for vesicoureteric reflux is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Micturating cystourethrogram
    Micturating cystourethrogram (MCU) is the gold standard and investigation of choice for diagnosing and grading vesicoureteral reflux.
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  87. 87.
    Which one of the following is not true about ectopia vesicae?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Peyronie's disease
    Peyronie's disease is a fibrotic condition of the penile tunica albuginea in adults and is not associated with bladder exstrophy (ectopia vesicae).
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  88. 88.
    Which statement is correct about transitional cell carcinoma of bladder?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Industrial carcinogens predisposes
    Exposure to industrial carcinogens (such as aniline dyes and aromatic amines) is a well-established major predisposing factor for bladder transitional cell carcinoma.
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  89. 89.
    Most common site of development of carcinoma of prostate is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Peripheral zone
    The peripheral zone of the prostate is the most common site for the development of prostatic adenocarcinoma.
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  90. 90.
    72 year-old gentleman came to the casualty with urinary retention and significant back pain. Which one of the investigation is performed?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Serum acid phosphatase
    In an elderly male presenting with urinary retention and back pain (suggesting prostate cancer with bony metastasis), serum acid phosphatase (or PSA) is a key investigation.
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  91. 91.
    Which one of the following is true about obstructive azoospermia?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Normal FSH and LH
    In obstructive azoospermia, spermatogenesis in the testes is normal, so serum FSH, LH, and testosterone levels remain within normal limits.
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  92. 92.
    Usual composition of prostatic calculi is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Calcium phosphate
    Endogenous prostatic calculi are typically composed of calcium phosphate (hydroxyapatite).
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  93. 93.
    All are true about hypospadias except,
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    Answer: B —
    Avoid surgery till puberty
    Surgery for hypospadias is ideally performed during early childhood (typically between 6 and 18 months of age), not delayed until puberty.
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  94. 94.
    For collecting urine specimen, most reliable method is
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    Answer: D —
    Suprapubic aspiration
    Suprapubic aspiration provides an uncontaminated urine sample directly from the bladder, making it the most reliable method to avoid urethral flora contamination.
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  95. 95.
    Which one of the following investigation is not opted in a case of urethral structure?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    MRI
    MRI is generally not required or opted for routine evaluation of urethral strictures, whereas RUG, MCU, and sonourethrography are standard.
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  96. 96.
    Commonest cause of mortality in a case of carcinoma penis is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Hemorrhage
    Hemorrhage resulting from erosion of major inguinal/femoral vessels by fungating secondary inguinal lymph node metastases is a notorious and common cause of mortality in penile cancer.
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  97. 97.
    Which one of the following statement is true about undescended testis?
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    Answer: D —
    Incidence of malignancy is higher
    An undescended testis carries an increased long-term risk of malignant transformation (seminoma and germ cell tumors) even after orchidopexy.
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  98. 98.
    Renal cell carcinoma can predispose to cause varicocele. Which statement is true?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Does not decompress in supine position
    A symptomatic varicocele caused by a renal cell carcinoma obstructing the gonadal vein typically does not empty or decompress when the patient lies down in the supine position.
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  99. 99.
    T esticular dermoid arises from _______ ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    T otipotent cell
    Testicular dermoid cysts (mature teratomas) arise from totipotent germ cells.
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  100. 100.
    Which one of the following is not correct regarding seminoma testis?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Radioresistant
    Seminoma is notoriously radiosensitive, making option B incorrect as it states they are radioresistant.
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