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All 100 questions with answers

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  1. 1.
    All of the following are clearing agents except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    10% formalin
    10% formalin is a fixative, not a clearing agent.
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  2. 2.
    Toning in reticulin stain is done using
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Gold chloride
    Gold chloride is used for toning in silver impregnation stains like reticulin.
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  3. 3.
    PAS stain is used to demonstrate all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Collagen
    PAS stains glycogen, mucin, and fungal walls/amoeba, but collagen is typically demonstrated using trichrome or van Gieson stains.
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  4. 4.
    Fluid used for museum mounting is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Kaiserling's fluid
    Kaiserling's fluid is classically used for macroscopic museum preparation and mounting of specimens.
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  5. 5.
    Temperature of cryostat is
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    Answer: A —
    –15 - –20°C
    The standard operating temperature of a cryostat for frozen sectioning ranges between -15°C and -20°C.
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  6. 6.
    Number of sections cut by mm block at
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    Answer: C —
    750
    Based on standard calculations in microtomy, 750 sections correspond to the specified block thickness parameter.
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  7. 7.
    Following are types of necrosis
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of above
    Fat, coagulative, and liquefactive necrosis are all recognized main patterns of tissue necrosis.
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  8. 8.
    All are arachidonic acid metabolites except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Serotonin
    Serotonin is a vasoactive amine stored in platelets, whereas prostaglandins, leukotrienes, and thromboxanes are eicosanoids derived from arachidonic acid.
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  9. 9.
    All are causes of oedema except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Arteriolar obstruction
    Arteriolar obstruction causes ischemia/infarction, whereas lymphatic obstruction, sodium retention, and decreased plasma osmotic pressure are classic causes of edema.
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  10. 10.
    All are components of Virchow's triad except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Activation of fibrinolytic pathway
    Virchow's triad consists of endothelial injury, stasis/turbulent blood flow, and hypercoagulability. Activation of the fibrinolytic pathway would oppose thrombosis.
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  11. 11.
    Type III hypersensitivity is due to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    antigen antibody complexes
    Type III hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by the deposition of circulating immune complexes (antigen-antibody complexes).
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  12. 12.
    Following are components of CREST syndrome
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    CREST is an acronym for Calcinosis, Raynaud's phenomenon, Esophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia.
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  13. 13.
    All of the following are oncogenes except
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    Answer: D —
    gene
    c-myc and n-myc are well-known proto-oncogenes.
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  14. 14.
    All of the following are autosomal recessive syndromes of defective DNA repair except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Neurofibromatosis lac Z
    Xeroderma pigmentosum, Bloom syndrome, and Ataxia telangiectasia are classic autosomal recessive disorders of DNA repair.
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  15. 15.
    All of the following are chemical carcinogens except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Acetaldehyde
    Vinyl chloride, benzene, and nickel compounds are established occupational/chemical carcinogens.
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  16. 16.
    Special stain for tubercle bacilli is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    A7B stain
    Acid-fast bacilli (AFB) stain (such as Ziehl-Neelsen) is used for tubercle bacilli.
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  17. 17.
    Grenz zone is seen in which leprosy
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Lepromatous
    A subepidermal clear zone (Grenz zone) is characteristic of lepromatous leprosy.
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  18. 18.
    Massive necrosis with superadded putrefaction is the definition of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Gangrene
    Gangrene is ischemic necrosis of tissue coupled with bacterial invasion and secondary putrefaction.
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  19. 19.
    All are substances secreted in paraneoplastic syndrome except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Serotonin
    Ectopic hormone production in paraneoplastic syndromes includes ACTH, ADH, and calcitonin.
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  20. 20.
    All are DNA oncogenic viruses except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Hepatitis A virus
    Hepatitis A virus is an RNA enterovirus and is not oncogenic, whereas EBV, HBV, and HPV (or MPV variants) are linked to carcinogenesis.
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  21. 21.
    Following are criteria for diagnosis of cystic fibrosis
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Diagnosis of cystic fibrosis requires phenotypic features, family history or newborn screening, and elevated sweat chloride levels.
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  22. 22.
    Following are lysosomal storage disorders
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of above
    Tay-Sachs, Niemann-Pick, and Gaucher disease are classic lysosomal storage disorders.
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  23. 23.
    Guardian of the genome is
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    Answer: A —
    p53
    The p53 protein is widely known as the 'guardian of the genome'.
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  24. 24.
    All are fats of thrombus except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Stasis
    Stasis is a cause of thrombosis, not a fate of an existing thrombus.
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  25. 25.
    All are presentations of Wiskott Aldrich syndrome except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Embolism
    Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is characterized by the triad of eczema, thrombocytopenia, and immunodeficiency.
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  26. 26.
    All are three viral enzymes found in the viral cone of HIV virus except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    lipase
    HIV contains reverse transcriptase, protease, and integrase; lipase is not a viral enzyme.
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  27. 27.
    Which of the following tumour is CA IX positive
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Clear cell papillary renal cell carcinoma
    Clear cell papillary renal cell carcinoma typically shows diffuse CA IX positivity.
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  28. 28.
    Following are the examples of syndromes associated with Wilm's tumour except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Alport syndrome
    Alport syndrome is a hereditary nephritis, not associated with Wilms tumor.
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  29. 29.
    Hobnail appearance of glands is specific feature of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Clear cell carcinoma endometrium
    Hobnail cells are a characteristic feature of clear cell carcinoma.
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  30. 30.
    Which of the following is the stage of tumour for Neuroblastoma according to international staging system if the tumour is localized, grossly resected imcompletely, representative ipsilateral non adherant lymph nodes negative for tumour microscopically?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Stage 2A
    According to the INSS, Stage 2A is localized tumor with incomplete gross resection.
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  31. 31.
    The RS cells in classic Hodgkin's Lymphoma are positive for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    CD15, CD30, PAX5
    Reed-Sternberg cells in classic Hodgkin lymphoma are typically CD15+, CD30+, and PAX5+ (weakly).
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  32. 32.
    All the following are the causes of left sided cardiac failure except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Corpulmonale
    Cor pulmonale is defined as right-sided heart failure due to pulmonary disease.
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  33. 33.
    All the following are the conditions associated with Asbestos exposure except
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    Answer: A —
    Bronchial asthma
    Bronchial asthma is not a recognized consequence of asbestos exposure.
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  34. 34.
    Hairy Leukoplakia is caused by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    EBV
    Oral hairy leukoplakia is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV).
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  35. 35.
    Which of the following condition is characteristically associated with intra epithelial lymphocytosis?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Celiac disease
    Celiac disease is characterized by increased intraepithelial lymphocytes in the small intestinal mucosa.
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  36. 36.
    The following condition is associated with maplike pattern of strong cytoplasmic glutamine synthetase enzyme staining of cells
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Focal nodular hyperplasia liver
    Focal nodular hyperplasia (FNH) of the liver shows a characteristic map-like pattern of glutamine synthetase staining.
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  37. 37.
    Crystalloids of Reinke is associated with
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Leydig cell tumour
    Reinke crystals are pathognomonic cytoplasmic inclusions found in Leydig cell tumors.
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  38. 38.
    RAS mutation is commonly associated with the following neoplasm
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    Answer: B —
    Follicular carcinoma thyroid
    RAS mutations are frequently found in follicular thyroid carcinoma.
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  39. 39.
    Civatte bodies are characteristically seen in the following condition
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Lichen planus
    Civatte bodies (apoptotic keratinocytes) are a hallmark of lichen planus.
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  40. 40.
    The cytogenetic abnormality t(x:17)(p11.2;q2.5)t(x:17) (p11.2; q2.5) is specifically associated with the following tumour
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Alveolar soft part sarcoma
    Alveolar soft part sarcoma is characterized by the t(X;17)(p11.2;q25)t(X;17)(p11.2;q25) translocation.
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  41. 41.
    Lewy body is diagnostic hall mark of
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    Answer: D —
    Parkinson disease
    Lewy bodies are the pathological hallmark of Parkinson's disease.
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  42. 42.
    The retinal vasculopathy of diabetes mellitus can associated with all the following except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Cytoid bodies
    Cytoid bodies (cotton wool spots) are typically associated with hypertensive retinopathy, not diabetic retinopathy.
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  43. 43.
    Which of the following condition is closely associated with cardiac Rhabdomyoma?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Tuberous sclerosis
    Cardiac rhabdomyomas are strongly associated with tuberous sclerosis.
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  44. 44.
    The specific immuno histo chemical marker of chordoma is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Brachyury
    Brachyury is a highly specific nuclear marker for chordoma.
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  45. 45.
    The gene BRCA-1 responsible for familial breast cancer is located on
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Chromosome 17
    The BRCA1 gene is located on the long arm of chromosome 17.
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  46. 46.
    All the following immuno histochemical markers are positive for Embryonal carcinoma except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    C-KIT
    Embryonal carcinoma is typically CD30+, PLAP+, and CK+, but C-KIT is typically associated with seminoma.
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  47. 47.
    The collection of blood in capillaries of dependent parts of the body after death is termed as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Livor mortis
    Livor mortis (postmortem hypostasis) is the settling of blood in dependent parts of the body.
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  48. 48.
    Rigor mortis first appears in
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    Answer: D —
    Orbicularis oculi
    Rigor mortis typically appears first in the small muscles of the face, such as the orbicularis oculi.
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  49. 49.
    Grade 2 narrowing of lumen of coronary artery is characterised by narrowing
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    Answer: C —
    upto 50%
    In coronary artery grading, Grade 2 typically refers to narrowing up to 50%.
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  50. 50.
    The amount of preservative, sodium fluoride used for collection of blood during post mortem is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    250 mg/30 ml blood
    The standard amount of sodium fluoride used as a preservative for blood samples is 250 mg per 30 ml.
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  51. 51.
    The condition in which the kidneys are symmetrically contracted and diffusely granular cortical surface is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Chronic glomerulo nephritis
    Chronic glomerulonephritis leads to symmetrically contracted, granular kidneys.
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  52. 52.
    Protection against Plasmodium vivax is seen in the following
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    South east asian ovalocytosis
    Southeast Asian ovalocytosis provides protection against Plasmodium vivax malaria.
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  53. 53.
    The proliferation and survival of myeloma cells is dependent on
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    IL 6
    Interleukin-6 (IL-6) acts as a primary growth and survival factor for multiple myeloma plasma cells.
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  54. 54.
    Inheritance pattern of Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    None of the above
    Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) is an acquired clonal hematopoietic stem cell disorder caused by somatic PIGA gene mutations, hence it is non-inherited.
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  55. 55.
    Features of Anemia of chronic diseases include
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Anemia of chronic disease/inflammation features reticuloendothelial iron sequestration, high serum ferritin, and decreased TIBC.
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  56. 56.
    The following are included in the differential count in a case of Acute Myeloid Leukemia
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Myeloblast, monoblast, promonocyte and magakaryoblast
    AML blast and immature precursor differential counts encompass myeloblasts, monoblasts, promonocytes, and megakaryoblasts.
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  57. 57.
    42/F, K/C/O Rheumatoid Arthritis developed Hypochromic Microcytic Anemia and was given iron therapy. However, she did not improve and her peripheral blood picture showed hypochromic microcytic anemia. Which of the following statements regarding the persistence of blood picture is correct? (i) Presence of increased levels of IL6 (ii) Reduction in erythropoietin levels (iii) Iron sequestration
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Anemia of chronic disease in RA is mediated by elevated IL-6 (inducing hepcidin), relative EPO deficiency/blunted response, and iron sequestration.
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  58. 58.
    Which of the following statements is correct regarding HIV associated thrombocytopenia? (i) It is due to the presence of HIV receptors CD 4 and CXCR 4 on megakaryocytes. (ii) There is B cell hyperplasia and increased auto antibody production. (iii) There is immune complex deposition on platelet membrane
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    HIV-associated thrombocytopenia is multifactorial, involving direct infection of megakaryocytes via CD4/CXCR4, immune-mediated destruction, and immune complex deposition.
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  59. 59.
    EBV associated T cell Lymphoma include all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Enteropathy associated T cell Lymphoma
    Enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma (EATL) is typically associated with celiac disease, not Epstein-Barr virus.
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  60. 60.
    Langerhans cell histiocytosis cells express the following
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Langerhans cells express CD1a, langerin (CD207), S100 protein, vimentin, and CD68.
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  61. 61.
    The following is true about spherocytes They are seen in (i) Hereditary spherocytosis (ii) Delayed transfusion reaction (iii) ABO hemolytic disease of new born (iv) Auto immune hemolytic anemia (v) Bacterial toxins
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Spherocytes can be observed in hereditary spherocytosis, immune hemolytic anemias (autoimmune, delayed transfusion, ABO HDN), and various toxic/secondary insults.
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  62. 62.
    Different crises seen in Sickle cell anemia are
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Sickle cell crisis
    This question was cancelled in the final answer key.
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  63. 63.
    Diagnostic criteria of Essential Thrombocytosis include all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    BCR-ABL Translocation
    BCR-ABL1 translocation is diagnostic of Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) and excludes essential thrombocythemia.
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  64. 64.
    In a 7 part Automated Hematology Analyzer, in addition to Neutrophils, Lymphocytes, Eosinophil, Basophil and Monocyte, the differential counts include
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Large immature cells (including blasts and immature granulocytes) and atypical lymphocytes (including small blasts)
    Advanced 7-part hematology analyzers extend standard 5-part differentials by enumerating large immature cells and atypical lymphocytes.
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  65. 65.
    Quality control is defined as
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    Answer: C —
    Measures that must be included during each assay run to verify that the test is working properly
    Quality control (QC) specifically refers to operational techniques and analytical measures included during each assay run to verify proper test performance.
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  66. 66.
    Naphthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase shows strong staining of Auer rods in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    t(8:21)
    Specific esterase (Naphthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase) strongly stains Auer rods and myeloid cells in AML with t(8;21)(q22;q22).
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  67. 67.
    Cellular changes due to excess EDTA include all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    RBC and WBC swelling and degeneration
    Excess EDTA causes osmotic and chemical shrinkage of cells (and platelet satellitism/fragmentation), not swelling.
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  68. 68.
    Advantages of q RT-PCR in monitoring Minimal Residual Disease are
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Quantitative RT-PCR offers high sensitivity, precise quantification, closed-tube low contamination risk, and automation for MRD monitoring.
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  69. 69.
    Antiphospholipid Protein Antibodies (APA) are associated with the presence of Lupus Anticoagulant (LA), anti Cardiolipin Antibody (a CL) and antibodies to group I. They show the following except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Bleeding tendencies
    Antiphospholipid antibodies cause a hypercoagulable state leading to thrombosis (and recurrent pregnancy loss), not bleeding tendencies.
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  70. 70.
    Causes of ADAMTS13 deficiency include
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    ADAMTS13 deficiency/reduced activity can occur in sepsis, metastatic malignancies, pregnancy (thrombotic microangiopathy states), as well as autoimmune inhibition.
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  71. 71.
    All are true about Protein Z except
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    Answer: B —
    Reduced levels are seen in Nephrotic syndrome
    Protein Z is a vitamin K-dependent plasma glycoprotein whose deficiency is linked to thrombosis, fetal loss, and acute coronary syndromes.
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  72. 72.
    All are true about Cell Salvage
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    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Intraoperative and postoperative cell salvage involves anticoagulated blood collection under controlled suction, yielding functional RBCs with oxygen-carrying capacity.
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  73. 73.
    Hemovigilance includes
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    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Hemovigilance is a comprehensive surveillance system covering the entire transfusion chain from donor to recipient to improve safety.
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  74. 74.
    Carbohydrate blood groups include all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Rh blood group system
    The Rh blood group system consists of proteins, whereas ABO, Lewis, P, and I systems are carbohydrate-based blood group antigens.
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  75. 75.
    Examples of Therapeutic Apheresis include
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Therapeutic apheresis modalities include therapeutic plasma exchange, extracorporeal photopheresis, and specific selective adsorption columns.
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  76. 76.
    Basic elements of Quality Management System in Transfusion Medicine include,
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    A robust QMS in transfusion medicine encompasses documentation, material/supplier management, and continuous monitoring/evaluation.
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  77. 77.
    Types of probes which can be used for performing FISH include all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Taqman probes
    TaqMan probes are hydrolysis probes used in real-time PCR assays, not for Fluorescence In Situ Hybridization (FISH).
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  78. 78.
    Which of the following is false regarding C-ANCA?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Positivity is indicated by perinuclear fluorescence in alcohol fixed neutrophils
    C-ANCA shows a diffuse cytoplasmic fluorescence pattern in ethanol-fixed neutrophils, whereas perinuclear fluorescence is characteristic of P-ANCA.
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  79. 79.
    Which of the following is true regarding CISH?
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    Answer: D —
    Concurrent analysis of morphologic features of tumor cells and gene copy number can be studied
    Chromogenic In Situ Hybridization (CISH) utilizes bright-field microscopy, allowing simultaneous evaluation of tissue morphology and gene copy number.
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  80. 80.
    RT-PCR
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Used to amplify RNA targets
    Reverse Transcription PCR (RT-PCR) is specifically employed to convert and amplify RNA targets (via complementary DNA synthesis).
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  81. 81.
    Reactive mesothelial cells in effusions are
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Positive for CK and Calretinin and negative for Ber EP4
    Reactive mesothelial cells stain positive for cytokeratins and mesothelial markers like calretinin while remaining negative for epithelial carcinoma markers such as Ber-EP4.
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  82. 82.
    Cytological stain used to detect Barr body include all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Nile Blue Sulphate
    Nile blue sulfate is a lipid stain, whereas Biebrich scarlet, acetic orcein, and cresyl violet are used for sex chromatin/Barr body visualization.
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  83. 83.
    Which of the following is true regarding Diff-Quik stain?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Direct restaining with Papanicolaou stain is possible without prior destaining
    Diff-Quik is a Romanowsky-type stain where direct subsequent Papanicolaou staining on air-dried smears can be performed without prior destaining in specific protocols.
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  84. 84.
    Carnoy's fixative contain all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Polyethylene glycol
    Carnoy's fixative consists of absolute ethanol, chloroform, and glacial acetic acid; polyethylene glycol is not a component.
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  85. 85.
    Following are cytological features of pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Background cell debris and necrotic material
    Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors typically display uniform cells, plasmacytoid features, and delicate arborizing vasculature without dirty background necrosis (which is seen in carcinomas).
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  86. 86.
    Cytological features of chondroblastoma include all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Mononuclear cells with admixed osteoclast like giant cells having similar nuclear morphology
    Chondroblastoma features include mononuclear cells, nuclear grooves, and chondroid matrix; osteoclast-like giant cells are not the primary diagnostic feature.
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  87. 87.
    The presence of dispersed cells with scant cytoplasm and perinuclear deposits of cytokeratin positive IF buttons are characteristic of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Merkel cell carcinoma
    Merkel cell carcinoma is characterized by small blue cells with scant cytoplasm and characteristic perinuclear dot-like cytokeratin positivity.
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  88. 88.
    IHC positivity for CK7&CK20 in lymph node aspirate smears can be used to diagnose metastasis from
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Urothelial carcinoma
    Urothelial carcinoma typically shows a CK7+/CK20+ immunoprofile.
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  89. 89.
    Soderstrom bodies are best identified in air dried MGG stained smears of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Reactive hyperplasia lymph node
    Soderstrom bodies (or lymphoglandular bodies) are characteristic of lymphoid tissue and are best seen in reactive lymph node hyperplasia.
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  90. 90.
    Features of ASCUS include all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Densely keratinized squamous cells with pyknotic nuclei
    Densely keratinized cells with pyknotic nuclei are typically associated with atrophy or other benign changes, not ASCUS.
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  91. 91.
    "Minimally invasive" is the designation for thyroid neoplasms demonstrating
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Encapsulated follicular pattern with complete transcapsular penetration by neoplastic cells without vascular invasion
    Minimally invasive follicular thyroid carcinoma is defined by complete capsular penetration without vascular invasion.
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  92. 92.
    Feature of reactive gastropathy include all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Dense inflammatory infiltrate in lamina propria
    Reactive gastropathy is characterized by foveolar hyperplasia and edema, but typically lacks a dense inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria.
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  93. 93.
    All of the following are true regarding mesonephric adenocarcinoma of the female genital tract except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Histologically characterized by high grade nuclear atypia and areas of mucinous, squamous and ciliated differentiation
    Mesonephric adenocarcinoma has a distinct histological appearance and is not characterized by mucinous, squamous, or ciliated differentiation.
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  94. 94.
    The IHC marker positive in epithelioid sarcoma
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Cytokeratin AE1/AE3
    Epithelioid sarcoma is typically positive for cytokeratins (AE1/AE3) and vimentin.
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  95. 95.
    The characteristic genetic fusion in alveolar soft part sarcoma
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    ASPSCR1-TFE3
    Alveolar soft part sarcoma is characterized by the ASPSCR1−TFE3ASPSCR1-TFE3 fusion gene.
    Report a mistake
  96. 96.
    Which of the following is true regarding latest WHO classification of gliomas?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Loss of PTEN & EGFR amplification characterize higher grade gliomas
    In the WHO classification, EGFR amplification and PTEN loss are molecular features associated with higher-grade gliomas (e.g., Glioblastoma).
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  97. 97.
    SMARC A4 deficient neoplasms are characterized by all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Predominance of tumors with basaloid morphology
    SMARCA4-deficient tumors are typically undifferentiated and do not show a predominant basaloid morphology.
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  98. 98.
    Most common histologic type of lymphoma associated with breast implants
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    ALCL
    Breast implant-associated anaplastic large cell lymphoma (BIA-ALCL) is the most common lymphoma associated with breast implants.
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  99. 99.
    Monomorphic Epitheliotropic Intestinal T cell lymphoma (MEITL)
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Is CD56 positive
    MEITL is characterized by the expression of CD56 and is distinct from enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma (EATL).
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  100. 100.
    Which of the following is false regarding papillary RCC?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Presence of psammoma bodies, foamy macrophages and hemosiderin laden macrophages constitute the specific diagnostic microscopic feature
    While these features can be seen, they are not the specific diagnostic microscopic features for all papillary RCC cases.
    Report a mistake

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How Kerala PSC marks objective papers

  • 1 mark for each right answer.
  • 1/3 mark is taken off for each wrong answer.
  • Questions you leave blank don’t lose marks.
  • Marks are counted with the final answer key, published after complaints on the provisional key.

Found a wrong answer or a typo on this page? Report it and we’ll check it against the official key.

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Not affiliated with the Kerala Public Service Commission. Questions and answers are copied from the official PDFs; always check the PDF.