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All 100 questions with answers

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  1. 1.
    Following are examples of fibrous joint except (i) Syndesmosis (ii) Gomphosis (iii) Synchondrosis
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Only (iii)
    Synchondrosis is an example of a cartilaginous joint, whereas syndesmosis and gomphosis are fibrous joints.
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  2. 2.
    What are the factors regulating myelinogenesis in adult central nervous system? (i) Increasing consumption of saturated fat (ii) Exercise alone (iii) Increase consumption of fat and sedentary life (iv) Piano playing, abacus training and juggling
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    only (i, ii & iv)
    Activities such as piano playing, abacus training, and juggling along with certain physiological conditions regulate myelinogenesis.
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  3. 3.
    Hassall's corpuscles are formed by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Type 6 epitheliocyte
    Hassall's corpuscles in the thymus are formed by type VI (6) epitheliocytes.
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  4. 4.
    Name the protein constituting intermediate filaments in Muscle.
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    Answer: B —
    Desmin
    Desmin is the major intermediate filament protein found in muscle cells.
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  5. 5.
    Which of the following is/are true about Kartagener's syndrome? (i) Autosomal recessive genetic ciliary disorder (ii) Comprising triad of situs, inversus, chronic sinusitis and Bronchiectasis (iii) Autosomal dominant genetic ciliary disorder
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Only (i) and (ii)
    Kartagener's syndrome is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder involving primary ciliary dyskinesia with the classic triad.
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  6. 6.
    Under Mononuclear phagocyte system, all of the statements below are true regarding naming of macrophages in different tissues except
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    Answer: B —
    Kupffer cell in kidney
    Kupffer cells are located in the liver, not in the kidney.
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  7. 7.
    Gene regulating chondrogenesis
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    SOX9
    SOX9 is a master transcription factor and key regulator of chondrogenesis.
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  8. 8.
    What is the hollow area underneath an osteoclast called?
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    Answer: C —
    Howship's lacuna
    Howship's lacuna is the resorption pit formed underneath an active osteoclast.
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  9. 9.
    Name the part of myofibril between two consecutive Z bands.
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    Answer: C —
    Sarcomere
    The segment of a myofibril between two successive Z lines (or Z bands) is called a sarcomere.
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  10. 10.
    Pericytes are seen in
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    Answer: D —
    Post capillary venules
    Pericytes are contractile cells wrapped around endothelial cells of capillaries and post-capillary venules.
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  11. 11.
    Which of the following structure is a primary organizer?
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    Answer: B —
    Primitive streak
    The primitive streak functions as the primary organizer in avian and mammalian embryos.
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  12. 12.
    What are the functions of sertoli cells? (i) Provide nutrition to the developing spermatozoa (ii) Phagocytose excess cytoplasm of spermatids (iii) Produce hormone inhibin (iv) Secrete male hormone testosterone
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
    Sertoli cells provide nutrition, phagocytose residual cytoplasm, and secrete inhibin, whereas testosterone is secreted by Leydig cells.
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  13. 13.
    Viability of ovum released at ovulation is
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    Answer: A —
    24-48 hours
    An ovum is generally viable for fertilization for about 24 to 48 hours after ovulation.
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  14. 14.
    What are the correct order of barriers through which sperm has to pass through?
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    Answer: C —
    Corona radiata, Zona pellucida, Vitelline membrane
    A fertilizing sperm must first traverse the corona radiata, then the zona pellucida, and finally the oocyte (vitelline) membrane.
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  15. 15.
    Primitive streak first appears at the beginning of
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    Answer: C —
    Third week
    The primitive streak appears at the beginning of the third week of development.
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  16. 16.
    Umbilical vesicle develop from
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    Answer: B —
    Endoderm
    The umbilical vesicle (yolk sac) is lined by hypoblast/endoderm.
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  17. 17.
    All of the following investigations are performed during Second trimester to assess the condition of the developing Fetus in utero except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Chorionic villus sampling
    Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is typically performed during the first trimester (around 10-13 weeks).
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  18. 18.
    Human placenta is
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    Answer: A —
    Hemo chorial
    The human placenta is hemochorial, where chorionic villus epithelium is bathed directly in maternal blood.
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  19. 19.
    The spectrum "Cantrell pentalogy" include: (i) Ectopia cordis (ii) Gastroschisis (iii) Defect in anterior region of diaphragm and sternum (iv) Absence of pericardium
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Pentalogy of Cantrell includes defects in the sternum, diaphragm, pericardium, abdominal wall (gastroschisis/omphalocele), and the heart (ectopia cordis).
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  20. 20.
    Oligoamnios is associated with
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Renal agenesis
    Oligoamnios (low amniotic fluid) is frequently associated with renal agenesis because fetal urine production is a major contributor to amniotic fluid volume.
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  21. 21.
    Which of the following is Transcription initiation codon?
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    Answer: C —
    ATG
    ATG is the standard initiation codon in DNA, which corresponds to AUG in mRNA.
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  22. 22.
    Which of the following disorders are examples of Autosomal recessive disorder? (i) Sickle cell anaemia (ii) Phenyl ketone urea (iii) Cystic fibrosis (iv) Polycystic kidney
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
    Sickle cell anemia, phenylketonuria, and cystic fibrosis are autosomal recessive, while polycystic kidney disease can be autosomal dominant or recessive depending on the type.
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  23. 23.
    Mutation of which chromosome occurs in sickle cell anemia?
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    Answer: D —
    Chromosome 11
    Sickle cell anemia is caused by a mutation in the HBB gene located on chromosome 11.
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  24. 24.
    All are various types of mitochondrial cytopathies except
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    Answer: C —
    Hurler's syndrome
    Hurler's syndrome is a lysosomal storage disease, not a mitochondrial cytopathy.
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  25. 25.
    In finger prints, all of the following are patterns of whorls except
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    Answer: A —
    T ented loops
    Tented loops are a type of arch pattern, not a whorl pattern.
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  26. 26.
    The dermatome over the great toe is
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    Answer: B —
    L5
    The L5 dermatome covers the dorsum of the foot and the great toe.
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  27. 27.
    Os Vesalius is an accessory bone related to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Fifth Metatarsal
    Os Vesalianum (Os Vesalius) is an accessory ossicle located at the base of the fifth metatarsal.
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  28. 28.
    The following structure pierces the roof of the adductor canal
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    Answer: C —
    Saphenous nerve
    The saphenous nerve pierces the roof of the adductor canal to become superficial.
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  29. 29.
    Which Nerve supplies the second lumbrical of foot?
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    Answer: B —
    Lateral plantar
    The lateral plantar nerve supplies the second, third, and fourth lumbricals of the foot.
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  30. 30.
    Oblique popliteal ligament is an extension of the following muscle
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    Answer: C —
    Semimembranosus
    The oblique popliteal ligament is a fibrous expansion derived from the tendon of the semimembranosus muscle.
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  31. 31.
    Which of the following is a hybrid muscle?
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    Answer: C —
    Pectineus
    The pectineus is considered a hybrid muscle because it is often supplied by both the femoral and obturator nerves.
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  32. 32.
    Regarding Anterior Cruciate ligament, the following statement is TRUE
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    Answer: C —
    It prevents posterior dislocation of femur on the tibia
    The ACL prevents anterior displacement of the tibia on the femur (or posterior displacement of the femur on the tibia).
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  33. 33.
    Knee joint is innervated by all the following except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Anterior division of Obturator Nerve
    The knee joint is innervated by the femoral, tibial, and common peroneal nerves, but not the anterior division of the obturator nerve.
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  34. 34.
    Which of the following joint is of ball and socket type?
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    Answer: A —
    T alocalcaneonavicular
    The talocalcaneonavicular joint is a compound joint that functions as a ball-and-socket joint.
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  35. 35.
    The Nerve to Popliteus also supplies which of the following structure
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    Answer: B —
    Tibialis posterior
    The nerve to the popliteus muscle also provides innervation to the tibialis posterior muscle.
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  36. 36.
    The ____________ nerve is vulnerable to injury when the axillary tail of breast is removed during mastectomy.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Thoraco dorsal
    The thoracodorsal nerve is at risk during axillary lymph node dissection or removal of the axillary tail of the breast.
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  37. 37.
    In flexed forearm, the most powerful supinator is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Biceps brachii
    The biceps brachii is the most powerful supinator of the forearm, especially when the elbow is flexed.
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  38. 38.
    Dislocation of ___________ produces carpal tunnel syndrome.
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    Answer: B —
    Lunate
    Dislocation of the lunate bone can compress the median nerve within the carpal tunnel, leading to carpal tunnel syndrome.
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  39. 39.
    Which of the following is NOT a content of the fourth compartment of extensor retinaculum of the hand?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Posterior interosseous artery
    The fourth compartment contains the tendons of extensor digitorum and extensor indicis, along with the posterior interosseous nerve; the posterior interosseous artery is not a content.
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  40. 40.
    The medial epicondyle of humerus fuses with the shaft during the __________ year.
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    Answer: D —
    Twentieth
    The medial epicondyle is the last part of the distal humerus to fuse, typically occurring around the 20th year.
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  41. 41.
    Avascular necrosis may occur in the fracture of _______ carpal bone.
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    Answer: A —
    Scaphoid
    Fractures of the scaphoid bone are prone to avascular necrosis due to its retrograde blood supply.
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  42. 42.
    The main nerve roots involved in Erb's paralysis is
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    Answer: A —
    C5
    Erb's palsy (Erb-Duchenne paralysis) typically involves injury to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus, primarily the C5 and C6 nerve roots.
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  43. 43.
    ___________ Intercostal space form the floor of the triangle of auscultation.
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    Answer: B —
    7th
    The floor of the triangle of auscultation is formed by the 6th and 7th intercostal spaces.
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  44. 44.
    The intercosto brachial nerve is closely related to the _________ group of axillary lymph nodes.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Central
    The intercostobrachial nerve is closely related to the central group of axillary lymph nodes.
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  45. 45.
    __________ is the post axial vein of the upper limb.
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    Answer: B —
    Basilic
    The basilic vein is the post-axial vein of the upper limb, while the cephalic vein is the pre-axial vein.
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  46. 46.
    Which among the following is the least dilatable part of male urethra?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Membranous
    The membranous part of the male urethra is the narrowest and least dilatable portion.
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  47. 47.
    The only perineal muscle not attached to the perineal body is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Ischiocavernosus
    The ischiocavernosus muscle is the only perineal muscle that does not attach to the perineal body.
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  48. 48.
    Below the pectinate line, anal canal is drained by the following lymph nodes
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    Answer: C —
    Superficial inguinal
    Lymphatic drainage below the pectinate line is to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes.
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  49. 49.
    Which of the following sphincter has bony attachment?
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    Answer: B —
    Superficial part of sphincter ani externus
    The superficial part of the external anal sphincter has a bony attachment to the coccyx via the anococcygeal ligament.
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  50. 50.
    Fibrosis of which muscle causes Alcock's canal syndrome?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Obturator internus
    Alcock's canal (pudendal canal) is formed by the fascia of the obturator internus muscle; fibrosis here can cause pudendal nerve entrapment.
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  51. 51.
    Source of chronic pain in myofascial pain syndromes is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    The serratus posterior superior
    The serratus posterior superior is often implicated as a source of chronic myofascial pain in the upper back/thoracic region.
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  52. 52.
    Intercostal space (ICS) is characterized by all facts except
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    Answer: D —
    The intercostal space lies between ribs 11 and 12
    The space between ribs 11 and 12 is not considered a standard intercostal space as there are no intercostal muscles connecting them.
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  53. 53.
    Which of the following muscles of the thoracic wall is not involved in the elevation of ribs in active respiration?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Interosseous part of the internal intercostal
    The interosseous part of the internal intercostal muscles acts to depress the ribs, not elevate them.
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  54. 54.
    Which fact is incorrect about the cervical pleura?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    It is continuous with the parietal pleura at the hilum of the lung
    The cervical pleura is continuous with the costal and mediastinal pleura at the thoracic inlet, not the hilum.
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  55. 55.
    The tracheobronchial tree is characterized by all features except that
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    The bronchi and pulmonary arteries branch independently
    Bronchi and pulmonary arteries branch in a coordinated, parallel fashion to supply the bronchopulmonary segments.
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  56. 56.
    Fibrous pericardium shows all anatomical relationships except that
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    Answer: D —
    The pericardial cavity lies between it and parietal pericardium
    The pericardial cavity lies between the parietal and visceral layers of the serous pericardium, not between the fibrous and parietal layers.
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  57. 57.
    Which fact is correct about the alveolar epithelium in the lungs?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Type II pneumocytes account for 60% of the alveolar lining cells
    Type II pneumocytes are more numerous than Type I, though Type I cover the majority of the surface area.
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  58. 58.
    Which does not occur during development of the heart?
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    Answer: C —
    The cardiogenic region results from induction of the PHF by splanchnic mesoderm
    The cardiogenic region is induced by the underlying endoderm, not the splanchnic mesoderm.
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  59. 59.
    The fate of the aortic arches follows all steps except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    The external carotid artery is a sprout of the remnants of the 2nd aortic arch
    The external carotid artery is derived from the third aortic arch, not the second.
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  60. 60.
    Which is incorrect about the branches of the intercostal nerve (ICN)?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    The intercostobrachial nerve is an anterior cutaneous branch of the 2nd ICN
    The intercostobrachial nerve is the lateral cutaneous branch of the 2nd intercostal nerve, not the anterior cutaneous branch.
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  61. 61.
    The correct pair of innervations of the muscles of abdominal wall is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    External oblique: T7-T11 spinal nerves and subcostal nerve
    The external oblique is innervated by the lower thoracic nerves (T7-T12).
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  62. 62.
    Which of the following statement is incorrect about the organisation of hepatic plate-sinusoid interface?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Large fenestrae with diaphragms are present within the endothelial cells
    Hepatic sinusoids have large fenestrae that typically lack diaphragms, allowing free exchange.
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  63. 63.
    Anatomical features of the associated hepatic, pancreatic and gallbladder ducts shows all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Thinning of muscularis externa of the duodenum at the ampulla of Vater
    The muscularis externa of the duodenum is thickened, not thinned, at the ampulla of Vater to form the sphincter of Oddi.
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  64. 64.
    Midgut rotation is characterized by all steps except
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    Answer: C —
    The first to reenter comes to lie on the right of the abdominal cavity
    The first part of the midgut to re-enter the abdominal cavity (the proximal jejunum) moves to the left side, not the right.
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  65. 65.
    Which fact is incorrect about the enteroendocrine cells?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Most of these cells are clustered in specific parts of the gut
    Enteroendocrine cells are typically scattered individually throughout the gut epithelium, not clustered in specific parts.
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  66. 66.
    The diffuse neuroendocrine system in the gut includes all except
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    Answer: D —
    The pancreas is the most common site of origin for neuroendocrine tumors
    The gastrointestinal tract (specifically the small intestine and rectum) is the most common site for neuroendocrine (carcinoid) tumors, not the pancreas.
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  67. 67.
    Which statement is incorrect about the actions of gastrointestinal hormones?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Cholecystokinin stimulates gastric emptying
    Cholecystokinin (CCK) actually inhibits gastric emptying to allow time for digestion and absorption in the small intestine.
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  68. 68.
    Which statement is correct about the cardiac glands of the gastric mucosa?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    They are tubular, somewhat tortuous and occasionally branched
    Cardiac glands of the stomach are simple or compound tubular, tortuous glands situated near the gastroesophageal junction.
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  69. 69.
    A cross-section through the large intestine shows all histological features except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    The epithelium consists of absorptive cells, goblet cells and paneth cells
    Paneth cells are typically found in the small intestine (crypts of Lieberkühn) and are normally absent in the large intestine.
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  70. 70.
    Lipoprotein receptors (CLA-1) of Sertoli cells are present in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Crystalloid inclusions of Charcot-Böttcher
    Charcot-Böttcher crystalloid inclusions in Sertoli cells contain lipoprotein receptors (CLA-1/SR-BI).
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  71. 71.
    Which fact is incorrect about the uterus dynamics?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    The angle of flexion increases when a distended bladder temporarily retroverts it
    A distended urinary bladder pushes the uterus backward (retroversion), which decreases or straightens the angle of anteflexion rather than increasing it.
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  72. 72.
    Development of the vagina includes all steps except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Vaginal fornices are formed by vacuolization of the sinovaginal bulbs
    Vaginal fornices are formed by vacuolization of the paramesonephric (mullerian) duct solid terminal portion / surrounding tissue, whereas sinovaginal bulbs form the vaginal plate.
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  73. 73.
    All features are present in late primary ovarian follicles except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Hyaluronan and proteoglycan rich Call-Exner body
    Call-Exner bodies appear later, characteristic of secondary (antral/vesicular) follicles, not late primary follicles.
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  74. 74.
    Which is not a usual function of muscles of posterior abdominal wall?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    The iliacus produces flexion/lateral bending of lumbar vertebral column
    The iliacus muscle flexes the thigh at the hip joint and does not flex or laterally bend the lumbar vertebral column (which is the action of psoas major and quadratus lumborum).
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  75. 75.
    Match the incorrect pairing of the origin (IN CAPITAL) of vascular branches
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Superior pancreaticoduodenal: SUPERIOR MESENTERIC ARTERY
    The superior pancreaticoduodenal artery is a branch of the gastroduodenal artery (from the celiac trunk), whereas the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery arises from the superior mesenteric artery.
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  76. 76.
    Which of the following muscles is not supplied by the dorsal ramus of the suboccipital nerve?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Splenius Capitis
    Splenius capitis is supplied by the lateral branches of the posterior rami of middle/lower cervical nerves, not the suboccipital nerve (C1 dorsal ramus).
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  77. 77.
    The plane passing through the infraorbital margin and upper margin of the external auditory meatus is called
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Frankfurt Plane
    The Frankfurt horizontal plane connects the inferior margin of the orbit (infraorbitale) with the upper margin of the external auditory meatus (porion).
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  78. 78.
    Sylvian Point is
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    Answer: D —
    The central point of the pterion situated above the zygomatic arch behind the frontozygomatic suture
    The Sylvian point corresponds to the stem of the lateral sulcus (Sylvian fissure) and overlies the pterion.
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  79. 79.
    Following structures pass through the posterior part of the foramen magnum except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Membrana Tectoria
    Membrana tectoria attaches to the clivus and anterior margin/surroundings, not passing through the posterior part of the foramen magnum like neural and spinal artery structures.
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  80. 80.
    All are branches from the ophthalmic nerve except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Infraorbital nerve
    The infraorbital nerve is a terminal branch of the maxillary nerve (V2V_2), not the ophthalmic nerve (V1V_1).
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  81. 81.
    Foramen transversarium of the seventh cervical vertebra transmits
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Accessory Vertebral Vein
    The foramen transversarium of C7 typically transmits only the accessory vertebral vein (vertebral artery passes through C1-C6).
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  82. 82.
    The posterior division of retromandibular vein unites with the posterior auricular vein to form
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    External jugular vein
    The posterior division of the retromandibular vein joins the posterior auricular vein to form the external jugular vein.
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  83. 83.
    Following muscles are inserted into the modiolus except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Zygomaticus minor
    Zygomaticus minor inserts into the upper lip, whereas zygomaticus major, buccinator, and risorius converge and insert into the modiolus.
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  84. 84.
    The submandibular salivary gland is a type of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Compound tubuloalveolar gland
    The submandibular gland is a mixed compound tubuloalveolar (tubuloacinar) salivary gland.
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  85. 85.
    The following muscles are supplied by the ansa cervicalis except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Thyrohyoid
    Thyrohyoid is supplied by C1 fibers running with the hypoglossal nerve, not by the ansa cervicalis loop directly.
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  86. 86.
    All the following are related medially to the hyoglossus muscle except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Submandibular ganglion
    The submandibular ganglion is suspended from the lingual nerve lateral to the hyoglossus muscle.
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  87. 87.
    The inferior parathyroid gland develops from the following
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    Answer: C —
    Endoderm of third pharyngeal pouch
    The inferior parathyroid glands develop from the dorsal wing of the third pharyngeal pouch (along with the thymus), while superior parathyroids come from the fourth pouch.
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  88. 88.
    The following arteries arise from the first part of subclavian artery except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Dorsal scapular artery
    The dorsal scapular artery typically arises from the third part of the subclavian artery (or from the transverse cervical artery).
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  89. 89.
    (i) Superior cervical ganglion is the largest and is formed by the fusion of the upper four cervical ganglia (ii) It is a relay station for the long preganglionic fibres from T1 to T2 segments (iii) It lies in front of the transverse process of third and fourth cervical vertebrae (iv) Branches from the ganglion to the common carotid and external carotid arteries form plexuses around these arteries Which of the following are true?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    (i), (ii), (iv)
    Statements (i), (ii), and (iv) are correct characteristics of the superior cervical sympathetic ganglion.
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  90. 90.
    The following structures are seen in relation to the medial wall of middle ear except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Pyramid
    The pyramid is a feature of the posterior wall of the tympanic cavity, whereas promontory, processus cochleariformis, and sinus tympani are on the medial wall.
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  91. 91.
    The interpeduncular fossa at the base of brain contains the following structures except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Olfactory bulb
    The olfactory bulb is located anteriorly on the base of the frontal lobe, far away from the interpeduncular fossa.
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  92. 92.
    The deep cerebellar nucleus located most medially is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Fastigial Nucleus
    The fastigial nucleus is the most medially placed deep cerebellar nucleus.
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  93. 93.
    Which of the following is not a component of Epithalamus?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Lateral Geniculate body
    The lateral geniculate body is part of the metathalamus, whereas the pineal gland, habenular nuclei, and posterior commissure belong to the epithalamus.
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  94. 94.
    The premotor cortex located in front of the precentral gyrus is named as which area according to Brodmann?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Area 6
    Brodmann area 6 corresponds to the premotor cortex and supplementary motor area.
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  95. 95.
    Which of the following is not a branch of the basilar artery?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Posterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery
    The posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) is a branch of the vertebral artery, not the basilar artery.
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  96. 96.
    All the following areas of the brain are devoid of the blood brain barrier except:
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    Answer: D —
    None of the above
    All listed regions (tuber cinereum, area postrema, posterior pituitary) are circumventricular organs and lack a traditional blood-brain barrier.
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  97. 97.
    The Calcar Avis is seen in relation to which horn of the lateral ventricle?
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    Answer: C —
    Posterior horn
    The calcar avis is an elevation on the medial wall of the posterior horn of the lateral ventricle produced by the calcarine sulcus.
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  98. 98.
    Which of the following is not a part of the Papez Circuit?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Hypothalamus
    The hypothalamus as a general term is too broad, but specific parts like the mammillary bodies are part of the Papez circuit. (Note: standard options analysis points to specific components; mamillary body is part of hypothalamus included in the circuit, but option C was keyed as the answer in the official key).
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  99. 99.
    The main efferent tract arising from the Amygdaloid nucleus is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Stria terminalis
    The stria terminalis is the primary efferent pathway connecting the amygdala to the hypothalamus and septal nuclei.
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  100. 100.
    The following nucleus belongs to the Special Visceral Afferent column
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Nucleus of Tractus Solitarius
    The rostral part of the nucleus of the tractus solitarius (NTS) receives special visceral afferent (taste) fibers.
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