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ASSISTANT (Universities in Kerala) question paper 2026

ASSISTANT (Universities in Kerala)

Date of test
14-Oct-2026
Question paper code
91/26 - K
Category No.
454/2025
Questions
100
Answer key
Provisional Answer Key
Exam mode
OMR (pen and paper)

Provisional key. Kerala PSC can change answers after reviewing complaints; the final key decides the marks.

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Source: Kerala PSC (keralapsc.gov.in) · official document· Last updated 6 Nov 2026· How we check content· ⚑ Report a problem

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As published by the Kerala Public Service Commission.

All 100 questions with answers

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  1. 1.
    Sree Narayana Guru’s “daiva dasakam” is primarily characterized by which of the following ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    A universal prayer expressing devotion beyond caste and creed.
    Daiva Dasakam is a universal prayer written by Sree Narayana Guru that transcends religious and caste boundaries.
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  2. 2.
    Which of the following statements regarding literary contributions to Indian Nationalism are correct ? 1. Rabindranath Tagore’s Gora explored questions of identity, religion, and nationhood. 2. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay’s Anandamath advocated constitutional reforms through legislative councils. 3.dinabandhu mitra’s Nil Darpan exposed the exploitation of indigo cultivators under colonial
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    1 and 3 only
    Rabindranath Tagore's Gora and Dinabandhu Mitra's Nil Darpan are correctly identified with their themes, whereas Anandamath is a novel about the Sannyasi Rebellion, not constitutional reforms.
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  3. 3.
    Which of the following statement/s about mahatma Gandhi is/are incorrect ? 1. Gandhi returned to India from South Africa in 1915 at the invitation of Gopal Krishna Gokhale. 2. The Champaran Satyagraha (1917) was Gandhi’s first major mass movement in India. 3. Gandhi presided over the lahore Session of the Indian National Congress where the demand for Purna Swaraj was adopted. 4. From the year 1919 onwards, Gandhiji began publishing the journal Navjeevan in Hindi.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    3 and 4 only
    Gandhi did not preside over the Lahore Session (Jawaharlal Nehru did), and Navjeevan was primarily published in Gujarati.
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  4. 4.
    Which of the following statement/s about the French Revolution is/are incorrect ? 1. The ‘Tennis Court Oath’ was taken after the representatives of the Third Estate found themselves locked out of the meeting hall of the Estates-General. 2. ‘The declaration of the Rights of man and of the Citizen’ proclaimed equality before law but did not initially grant political rights to women. 3. The ‘Reign of Terror’ was primarily associated with the political dominance of maximilien Robespierre and the Jacobins. 4. The directory was established immediately after the fall of the Bastille in 1789.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    4 only
    The Directory was established in 1795, not immediately after the fall of the Bastille in 1789.
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  5. 5.
    Which of the following statement/s about India’s foreign policy is/are true ? 1. The Shimla Agreement was signed between India and Pakistan in 1972 following the 1971 war. 2. India conducted its first nuclear test, code-named “Smiling Buddha”, in 1974. 3. India became a permanent member of the United Nations Security Council in 1991. 4. India was among the founding members of the Non-Aligned movement.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    1, 2 and 4 only
    India is not a permanent member of the UN Security Council.
    Report a mistake
  6. 6.
    2026- മാർച്ച്-ഏപ്രിൽ മാസങ്ങളിൽ നടന്ന ജി-20 ഉച്ചകോടിയുമായി ബന്ധപ്പെട്ട താഴെ പറയുന്ന പ്രസ്താവനകൾ പരിശോധിക്കുക. 1. ശതമാനം കുറഞ്ഞ രാജ്യങ്ങൾക്കായുള്ള സാംസ്കാരിക സംരക്ഷണവും സാംസ്കാരിക പൈതൃക സംരക്ഷണവും ഉൾപ്പെടെയുള്ള വിഷയങ്ങൾ ചർച്ച ചെയ്തു. 2. നയപരമായ ജി-20 ഉച്ചകോടി യോഗങ്ങൾക്കായുള്ള യോഗങ്ങൾ സുസ്ഥിര വികസനത്തിനായി രൂപകൽപ്പന ചെയ്തു. 3. ഇന്ത്യയുടെ എല്ലാ ശതമാനം കുറഞ്ഞ രാജ്യങ്ങളും ജി-20 ഉച്ചകോടിയുമായി ബന്ധപ്പെട്ട വിഷയങ്ങൾ ചർച്ച ചെയ്തു. 4. ഉച്ചകോടിക്കായുള്ള നയപരമായ വിഷയങ്ങൾക്കായി ഇന്ത്യയുടെ വിദേശകാര്യ മന്ത്രാലയമാണ് നേതൃത്വം നൽകിയത്. ഓരോന്നിലും നൽകിയിട്ടുള്ള പ്രസ്താവനകളിൽ ഏതാണ് ശരി?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    1, 2, 4 ശരി
    ജി-20 ഉച്ചകോടിയുടെ നയപരമായ തീരുമാനങ്ങൾ ഇന്ത്യയുടെ വിദേശകാര്യ മന്ത്രാലയത്തിന്റെ നേതൃത്വത്തിലാണ് നടന്നത്.
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  7. 7.
    Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Gneiss – Sedimentary rock
    Gneiss is a metamorphic rock, not a sedimentary rock.
    Report a mistake
  8. 8.
    The meeting of the labrador Current and the Gulf Stream creates
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Rich fishing grounds
    The convergence of warm and cold currents creates ideal conditions for plankton growth, supporting rich fishing grounds.
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  9. 9.
    Consider the following Assertion and reason. Which one of the following statements is/are true ? Assertion (A) : Temperate deciduous forests shed their leaves during autumn. reason (r) : These forests occur in regions with moderate rainfall.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    Both statements are factually correct, but the shedding of leaves is an adaptation to cold/winter, not directly caused by moderate rainfall.
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  10. 10.
    അതിരപ്പിള്ളി, വാഴച്ചാൽ വെള്ളച്ചാട്ടങ്ങളുമായി ബന്ധപ്പെട്ട നദി ഏതാണ് ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    ചാലക്കുടി
    അതിരപ്പിള്ളി, വാഴച്ചാൽ വെള്ളച്ചാട്ടങ്ങൾ ചാലക്കുടി പുഴയിലാണ് സ്ഥിതി ചെയ്യുന്നത്.
    Report a mistake
  11. 11.
    ഏറ്റവും കൂടുതൽ ഉയരമുള്ള കൊടുമുടികൾ സ്ഥിതി ചെയ്യുന്ന ഹിമാലയൻ നിര ഏതാണ് ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    ഹിമാദ്രി
    ഹിമാദ്രി അഥവാ ഗ്രേറ്റർ ഹിമാലയയിലാണ് ലോകത്തിലെ ഏറ്റവും ഉയരമുള്ള കൊടുമുടികൾ സ്ഥിതി ചെയ്യുന്നത്.
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  12. 12.
    താഴെ പറയുന്നവയിൽ ഏതാണ് ഇന്ത്യൻ കാലാവസ്ഥാ വകുപ്പ് (IMD) പൊതുജനങ്ങൾക്ക് കാലാവസ്ഥാ സേവനങ്ങൾ നൽകാനായി വികസിപ്പിക്കാത്ത മൊബൈൽ ആപ്ലിക്കേഷൻ ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    ഭുവൻ
    ഭുവൻ ഐ.എസ്.ആർ.ഒ (ISRO) വികസിപ്പിച്ചെടുത്ത ഒരു ജിയോ-പോർട്ടലാണ്, ഐ.എം.ഡി (IMD) യുടേതല്ല.
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  13. 13.
    കഴിഞ്ഞ ദശകങ്ങളിൽ, ഇന്ത്യൻ സമ്പദ്‌വ്യവസ്ഥ വ്യാപാരം, ഗതാഗതം, ഐടി, ധനകാര്യം എന്നീ മേഖലകളിൽ വലിയ വളർച്ച നേടി. എന്നാൽ കൃഷിയും അനുബന്ധ മേഖലകളും ഇന്ത്യയുടെ ദേശീയ വരുമാനത്തിന്റെ അഞ്ചിലൊന്ന് മാത്രമാണ് സംഭാവന ചെയ്യുന്നത്. വികസ്വര സമ്പദ്‌വ്യവസ്ഥയുടെ ഏത് സവിശേഷതയാണ് ഈ രണ്ട് പ്രസ്താവനകളിൽ പ്രതിഫലിക്കുന്നത് ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    ഘടനപരമായ മാറ്റം
    സമ്പദ്‌വ്യവസ്ഥയിൽ കാർഷിക മേഖലയിൽ നിന്ന് സേവന മേഖലയിലേക്കുള്ള മാറ്റത്തെ ഘടനാപരമായ മാറ്റം (Structural transformation) എന്ന് വിളിക്കുന്നു.
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  14. 14.
    1991-ലെ സാമ്പത്തിക പരിഷ്കാരങ്ങൾക്ക് ശേഷം, സർക്കാർ നിയന്ത്രണങ്ങളിൽ നിന്ന് കൂടുതൽ ഉദാരവൽക്കരിക്കപ്പെട്ട വിപണി അധിഷ്ഠിത സമ്പദ്‌വ്യവസ്ഥയിലേക്ക് മാറി. MRTP ആക്ടിന് പകരമായി വന്ന നിയമം ഏതാണ് ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    കോമ്പറ്റീഷൻ ആക്ട്, 2002
    MRTP ആക്ടിന് പകരമായി 2002-ൽ കോമ്പറ്റീഷൻ ആക്ട് കൊണ്ടുവന്നു.
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  15. 15.
    1960-കളുടെ മധ്യത്തിൽ ഇന്ത്യയിൽ ആരംഭിച്ച ഹരിത വിപ്ലവത്തെക്കുറിച്ച് ശരിയായ പ്രസ്താവന താഴെ പറയുന്നവയിൽ ഏതാണ് ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    ആധുനിക കാർഷിക ഇൻപുട്ടുകൾ ശാസ്ത്രീയ വിള മാനേജ്മെന്റുമായി സംയോജിപ്പിച്ചു.
    ഹരിത വിപ്ലവം ആധുനിക സാങ്കേതികവിദ്യ, രാസവളങ്ങൾ, ഉയർന്ന വിളവ് തരുന്ന വിത്തുകൾ എന്നിവയുടെ സംയോജനമായിരുന്നു.
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  16. 16.
    സുസ്ഥിര വികസന ലക്ഷ്യങ്ങൾ (SDG) കൈവരിക്കുന്നതിൽ ഇന്ത്യയുടെയും സംസ്ഥാനങ്ങളുടെയും കേന്ദ്രഭരണ പ്രദേശങ്ങളുടെയും പ്രകടനം വിലയിരുത്തുന്നതിനായി SDG ഇന്ത്യ ഇൻഡക്സ് വികസിപ്പിച്ച സ്ഥാപനം ഏതാണ് ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    നിതി ആയോഗ്
    നിതി ആയോഗാണ് SDG ഇന്ത്യ ഇൻഡക്സ് തയ്യാറാക്കുന്നത്.
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  17. 17.
    The Government of India intends to increase tax revenue by taxing the consumption of goods and services rather than directly taxing the income of individuals. Which type of tax would best achieve this objective ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Goods and Services Tax
    Goods and Services Tax (GST) is an indirect tax levied on the consumption of goods and services.
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  18. 18.
    Which Act/Scheme of Government of India provides a legal guarantee of 125 days of unskilled wage employment per rural household per financial year ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Viksit Bharat Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Act, 2025
    The Viksit Bharat Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Act, 2025, provides for 125 days of employment.
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  19. 19.
    Which one of the following statements is/are correct ? i. Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution. ii. This was upheld in Berubari Union Case, 1960. iii. Preamble has been amended by 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Only i
    The Preamble was amended only once by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, not the 44th.
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  20. 20.
    Which of the following are exclusive powers of Rajya Sabha ? i. Legislate on state list subject if it is expedient in case of national interest. ii. Introduction of money bill. iii. Removal of the Vice President. iv. Creation of All India Services.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    i, iii and iv
    Rajya Sabha has exclusive powers under Article 249 (State list), Article 67 (Removal of VP), and Article 312 (All India Services).
    Report a mistake
  21. 21.
    Assertion (A) : The President of India is not a member of either House of Parliament. Reasoning (R) : The Constitution of India provides that Parliament consists of the President and the two Houses of Parliament.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    The President is an integral part of Parliament under Article 79, though not a member of either house.
    Report a mistake
  22. 22.
    Match the following : i. Right to life a. Statutory presumption of offence ii. Positive discrimination b. Procedure Established by law iii. Abolition of Untouchability c. Right to Freedom iv. Double jeopardy d. Equal Protection of the Laws
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c
    Right to life is linked to procedure established by law (Art 21), Positive discrimination to equal protection (Art 14), Untouchability to Art 17, and Double jeopardy to Art 20.
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  23. 23.
    Which one of the following statements are correct with regard to the Constitution of India ? i. Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is binding on the President of India. ii. Inter-State Council is a statutory body. iii. GST came into being through simple majority amendment procedure. iv. Under Art. 32 person can directly approach the Supreme Court when a fundamental right is violated.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    iv only
    Only statement iv is correct. Advisory opinion is not binding, Inter-State Council is constitutional (Art 263), and GST required special majority.
    Report a mistake
  24. 24.
    Which of the following statements are true with regard to Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam ? i. Mandates 33 percent reservation for women in Lok Sabha, state legislative assemblies and legislative assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi. ii. Its implementation requires the completion of the official population census. iii. It is based on 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    ii only
    The Act (128th Amendment Bill) mandates 33% reservation and is linked to the census and delimitation process.
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  25. 25.
    Match the following list – I with list – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below. List – I List – II a. State Human Rights Commission 1. V. Hari Nair b. State Election Commission 2. Sekharan Miniyodan c. The Kerala State Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes 3. Sri. Seshadrinathan N. d. Chief Information Commissioner (RTI) 4. K. Somaprasad e. Kerala State Senior Citizens Commission 5. Shri. Justice Alexander Thomas
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    a-5, b-3, c-2, d-1, e-4
    Matching based on the current appointments for the respective commissions in Kerala.
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  26. 26.
    Which of the following pair/s is/are not matching? 1. digi Keralam : Kerala State literacy mission 2. Aksharasagaram : local Self Government department 3. Gender Responsive Budgeting (GRB) : Started in 2005 by the Government of Kerala 4. The malabar literary Tourism Circuit : Connecting homes of many malayalam literary giants of the districts of Kozhikode, malappuram and Palakkad 5. Kozhikode : City of literature and Kerala literature Festival
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    1, 2 and 3
    The matching pairs provided in the options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect based on the official answer key.
    Report a mistake
  27. 27.
    Which Principle/s of Natural Justice of the following is/are not a correct match? 1. Nemo Judex in Causa Sua – no person should be a judge in his own cause. 2. Audi Alteram Partem – means “hear the other side.” 3. Reasoned decision – the requirement of reasoned decisions ensuring transparency, fairness, and accountability.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    None of the above
    All the principles of natural justice listed are correctly matched.
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  28. 28.
    Match the following list – I (Articles of the Constitution) with list – II (Provisions/Content) and select the correct answer using the codes given below. List – I | List – II a. Article 13 (3) | 1. Power of Supreme Court to enforce Fundamental Rights and to issue writs. b. Article 13 (4) | 2. Procedure established by the law. c. Article 21 | 3. Constitutional amendments under Article 368 are not Considered “law” under Article 13. d. Article 32 | 4. Power of the High Courts to issue writs. e. Article 226 | 5. laws, orders, bye-laws, rules, regulations, notifications, customs, or usages having the force of law inconsistent with Fundamental Rights is void.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    a-5, b-3, c-2, d-1, e-4
    This matches the constitutional articles with their respective legal provisions.
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  29. 29.
    Match the following and select the answer from the codes given below. List – I | List – II a. Habeas Corpus | 1. A writ that quashes administrative or quasi-judicial orders that exceed jurisdiction or violate natural justice, or restrains ongoing excessive proceedings b. Mandamus | 2. Writ issued by a higher court to a lower court, tribunal, or quasi-judicial authority, directing them to transfer the records of a case for review c. Certiorari | 3. A writ issued by a court to a public authority, government body, tribunal, or officer, directing them to perform a duty that they are legally obligated to carry out d. Prohibition | 4. Writ issued by a court to a person who occupies a public office without legal authority
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    a-2, b-3, c-1, d-5
    The writs are matched with their legal definitions.
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  30. 30.
    Which of the following statement/s is/are not correct with regards to Administrative Tribunals ? 1. Article 323-A contained in Part XIV A of the Constitution stipulates that Parliament by, law, provide for the adjudication or trial by Administrative Tribunals. 2. By section 46 of the Indian Constitution (44 th Amendment) Act, Part XIV A was inserted. 3. Administrative Tribunal Act 1985 was enacted by the Parliament. 4. The Kerala Administrative Tribunal was started functioning on 22-12-2009 with Honourable mr. Justice K. Balakrishnan Nair as the First Chairman.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Only 2 and 4
    Part XIV A was inserted by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, not the 44th. The Administrative Tribunals Act was enacted in 1985.
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  31. 31.
    Consider the following two statements (I) and (II) and select the correct option. I. Small intestine is shorter than the large intestine. II. Small intestine is thinner than large intestine.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Statement II is correct, I is wrong
    The small intestine is longer than the large intestine but smaller in diameter (thinner).
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  32. 32.
    Identify the diseases based on their symptoms given below. | Disease | Symptom | | --- | --- | | X | Severe diarrhoea and vomiting followed by dehydration | | Y | yellowish eyes, dark yellow urine and Enlarged liver |
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    X – Cholera, Y – Hepatitis
    Cholera causes severe dehydration through diarrhea/vomiting, and Hepatitis causes jaundice (yellow eyes/urine) and liver enlargement.
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  33. 33.
    Which of the following statements hold true about hormone leptin ? i. This hormone is found in higher levels in obese individuals and involved in regulation of appetite. ii. It tells the brain how much fat is stored in the body. iii. low leptin levels during weight loss trigger intense hunger and slower metabolism.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All the above
    Leptin is a hormone predominantly made by adipose cells that helps to regulate energy balance by inhibiting hunger.
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  34. 34.
    A Central Sector micro-credit scheme providing collateral-free working capital loans to urban street vendors
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Pm SVANidhi
    PM SVANidhi (Prime Minister Street Vendor's AtmaNirbhar Nidhi) provides affordable working capital loans.
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  35. 35.
    According to WMO what is the expected duration of current very strong ‘El Nino’ event ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Till February 2027
    Based on WMO reports regarding the specific event cycle.
    Report a mistake
  36. 36.
    Reverberation in an auditorium can be reduced by using
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Thick curtains and sound-absorbing materials
    Sound-absorbing materials reduce the reflection of sound waves, thereby decreasing reverberation.
    Report a mistake
  37. 37.
    Which mirror is commonly used as a rear-view mirror in vehicles ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Convex mirror
    Convex mirrors are used as rear-view mirrors because they provide a wider field of view and form erect, diminished images.
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  38. 38.
    Hydraulic brakes work on the principle of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Pascal’s law
    Hydraulic systems operate on Pascal's Law, which states that pressure applied to an enclosed fluid is transmitted undiminished to every part of the fluid.
    Report a mistake
  39. 39.
    India became the fourth country to successfully demonstrate autonomous docking and undocking of two spacecraft through which ISRO mission ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    SpadeX
    The SPADEX (Space Docking Experiment) mission is designed to demonstrate autonomous docking and undocking capabilities.
    Report a mistake
  40. 40.
    Arrange the following oxoacids, in the order of their strength HClO4,HClO3,HClO2,HClOHClO_4, HClO_3, HClO_2, HClO i. HClO>HClO2>HClO3>HClO4HClO > HClO_2 > HClO_3 > HClO_4 ii. HClO4>HClO3>HClO>HClO2HClO_4 > HClO_3 > HClO > HClO_2 iii. HClO4>HClO3>HClO2>HClOHClO_4 > HClO_3 > HClO_2 > HClO iv. HClO4>HClO>HClO3>HClO2HClO_4 > HClO > HClO_3 > HClO_2
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    iii
    The acidic strength of oxoacids of chlorine increases with the number of oxygen atoms attached to the central chlorine atom (HClO4>HClO3>HClO2>HClOHClO_4 > HClO_3 > HClO_2 > HClO).
    Report a mistake
  41. 41.
    In the spectrum of Hydrogen atom, which spectral lines lies in the visible region ? i. lyman ii. Paschen iii. Pfund
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    None of the above
    The Balmer series is the only series in the hydrogen spectrum that lies in the visible region.
    Report a mistake
  42. 42.
    Which of the following reagent is used for the detection of alkaloids ? i. mayer’s Reagent. ii. Erdmann’s Reagent. iii. marqui’s Reagent.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    All the above (i, ii and iii)
    Mayer's, Erdmann's, and Marqui's reagents are all commonly used in the qualitative analysis and detection of alkaloids.
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  43. 43.
    Which organisation is primarily responsible for research and development of ministry of defence ? i. ISRO ii. dAE iii. dRdO iv. CSIR
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    iii
    DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organisation) is the agency under the Ministry of Defence responsible for military R&D.
    Report a mistake
  44. 44.
    The famous verse “Kanakam moolam Kamini moolam Kalaham Palavidham Ulakil Sulabham” is taken from which Thullal ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Kiratham
    This famous line is from the Thullal work 'Kiratham' written by Kunchan Nambiar.
    Report a mistake
  45. 45.
    Who upset defending Champion Carlos Alcaraz in the quarter finals of the US Open Tennis ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Ben Shelton
    Ben Shelton defeated Carlos Alcaraz in the 2023 US Open quarter-finals.
    Report a mistake
  46. 46.
    In which novel does the character Gopal Baruah appear ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Thapomayiyude Achan
    The character Gopal Baruah appears in the novel 'Aarachaar' by K.R. Meera.
    Report a mistake
  47. 47.
    “Angane Valarnna Amara Valliya” This is the opening line of which famous malayalam literary work ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Aalahayude Pennmakkal
    This is the opening line of the novel 'Aalahayude Pennmakkal' by Sarah Joseph.
    Report a mistake
  48. 48.
    From which language did the word ‘Koodasha’ come into malayalam ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Syriac
    The word 'Koodasha' (Sacrament) is derived from the Syriac language.
    Report a mistake
  49. 49.
    Which of the following statement is/are correct about M-Sahajeevanam portal ? i. The portal is related to malappuram district. ii. It is a portal for orphaned persons. iii. The portal is developed by district Administration and Social Justice.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Only i and iii
    The M-Sahajeevanam portal is an initiative of the Malappuram district administration and the Social Justice Department for the welfare of orphaned persons.
    Report a mistake
  50. 50.
    Which country was represented by Abiy Ahmed Ali at the 18 th BRICS Summit ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Ethiopia
    Abiy Ahmed Ali is the Prime Minister of Ethiopia.
    Report a mistake
  51. 51.
    Which of the following is an input device primarily used for entering text and numerical data into a computer ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Keyboard
    A keyboard is the primary input device used for typing text and numerical data.
    Report a mistake
  52. 52.
    Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes a web browser from a search engine ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    A browser is used to access web pages, while a search engine helps locate information on the web.
    A web browser is software used to access the internet, while a search engine is a service used to find information.
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  53. 53.
    A person receives an apparently genuine email asking them to click a link and provide their bank login credentials. The email is actually designed to steal the information. This cyber wrong is best described as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Phishing
    Phishing is a fraudulent attempt to obtain sensitive information by disguising as a trustworthy entity in an electronic communication.
    Report a mistake
  54. 54.
    In September 2026, India was reported to be preparing a framework that would allow Al agents to conduct certain small digital payments through UPI. What is the key technology trend represented by this development ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Agentic Al-enabled digital payments
    The development refers to the integration of AI agents into digital payment systems like UPI.
    Report a mistake
  55. 55.
    Which of the following Indian government initiatives, launched in August 2026, is an Al-powered conversational assistant intended to make information about tribal welfare schemes and programmes easier to access ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Jago
    AlKosh is the AI-powered conversational assistant designed for tribal welfare information.
    Report a mistake
  56. 56.
    Which of the following statements regarding the University Education Commission (1948) is/are correct ? 1. Recommended the creation of a University Grants Commission (UGC) modelled on the British University Grant Committee to allocate grants to Universities. 2. It advocated for the complete abolition of all moral and spiritual instruction in colleges to maintain strict secularism. 3. It suggested that a University academic year should have at least 180 working days, excluding examination periods.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Only statements 1 and 3 are correct
    The commission recommended the UGC and 180 working days, but did not advocate for the complete abolition of moral/spiritual instruction.
    Report a mistake
  57. 57.
    Who was the prominent Indian Educationalist who served as a member in the University Education Commission (1948-1949) and the Chairman of Secondary Education Commission (1952-53) ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    dr. A. lakshmanaswami mudaliar
    Dr. A. Lakshmanaswami Mudaliar was a member of the University Education Commission and chaired the Secondary Education Commission.
    Report a mistake
  58. 58.
    UGC ആക്ട്, 1956-നെ സംബന്ധിച്ച് താഴെ പറയുന്ന പ്രസ്താവനകളിൽ ശരിയായത് ഏത്? a. 1956-ലെ UGC ആക്ട് 2(f) പ്രകാരം കേന്ദ്ര/സംസ്ഥാന സർവ്വകലാശാലകൾ സ്ഥാപിക്കുന്നു. b. 1956-ലെ UGC ആക്ട് പ്രകാരം സെക്ഷൻ (3) പ്രകാരം, UGC-യുടെ ഉപദേശപ്രകാരം കേന്ദ്ര സർക്കാർ വിജ്ഞാപനം ചെയ്യുന്ന സർവ്വകലാശാലകളെ 'deemed to be University' എന്ന് വിളിക്കുന്നു.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    പ്രസ്താവന a ഉം b ഉം ശരിയാണ്
    UGC ആക്ട് 1956-ലെ സെക്ഷൻ 2(f) സർവ്വകലാശാലകളെയും സെക്ഷൻ 3 'deemed to be University'-യെയും നിർവചിക്കുന്നു.
    Report a mistake
  59. 59.
    താഴെ പറയുന്നവയിൽ 1964-66-ലെ കോത്താരി കമ്മീഷൻ നിർദ്ദേശങ്ങളിൽ ഉൾപ്പെടാത്തത് ഏത്?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    നവോദയ വിദ്യാലയം
    നവോദയ വിദ്യാലയങ്ങൾ 1986-ലെ ദേശീയ വിദ്യാഭ്യാസ നയത്തിന്റെ ഭാഗമായാണ് ആരംഭിച്ചത്.
    Report a mistake
  60. 60.
    2005-ലെ നാഷണൽ നോളജ് കമ്മീഷനെ സംബന്ധിച്ച് താഴെ പറയുന്ന പ്രസ്താവനകളിൽ ശരിയായത് ഏത്? 1. ഇതിനെ അന്നത്തെ പ്രധാനമന്ത്രി മൻമോഹൻ സിംഗ് 2005 ജൂൺ 13-ന് രൂപീകരിച്ചു. 2. സാം പിത്രോദയായിരുന്നു അധ്യക്ഷൻ. 3. 2014 ജൂലൈയിൽ നാഷണൽ നോളജ് കമ്മീഷൻ പിരിച്ചുവിട്ടു. 4. ഇന്ത്യയെ വിജ്ഞാനാധിഷ്ഠിത സമ്പദ്‌വ്യവസ്ഥയാക്കി മാറ്റുക എന്ന ലക്ഷ്യത്തോടെയാണ് ഇത് പ്രവർത്തിച്ചത്.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    പ്രസ്താവനകൾ 1, 2, 3, 4 എന്നിവ ശരിയാണ്
    നാഷണൽ നോളജ് കമ്മീഷനെക്കുറിച്ചുള്ള എല്ലാ പ്രസ്താവനകളും വസ്തുതാപരമായി ശരിയാണ്.
    Report a mistake
  61. 61.
    താഴെ നൽകിയിരിക്കുന്ന പ്രസ്താവനകളുടെ അടിസ്ഥാനത്തിൽ, ശരിയായ ഉത്തരം തിരഞ്ഞെടുക്കുക. പ്രസ്താവന (I) : യൂണിവേഴ്സിറ്റി ഗ്രാന്റ്സ് കമ്മീഷൻ (UGC) 1953 ഡിസംബർ 28-ന് നിലവിൽ വന്നു. 1956-ൽ പാർലമെന്റ് പാസാക്കിയ നിയമത്തിലൂടെ ഇത് ഒരു സ്റ്റാറ്റ്യൂട്ടറി സംഘടനയായി മാറി. പ്രസ്താവന (II) : രാജ്യത്തുടനീളമുള്ള സർവ്വകലാശാലകൾക്കും കോളേജുകൾക്കും ഗ്രാന്റുകളും സാമ്പത്തിക സഹായവും നൽകുന്നത് UGC-യുടെ പ്രവർത്തനങ്ങളിൽ ഉൾപ്പെടുന്നില്ല. പ്രസ്താവന (III) : സർവ്വകലാശാല വിദ്യാഭ്യാസത്തിന്റെ പ്രോത്സാഹനത്തിനും ഏകോപനത്തിനും, സർവ്വകലാശാലകളിലെ അധ്യാപനം, പരീക്ഷ, ഗവേഷണം എന്നിവയുടെ നിലവാരം നിർണ്ണയിക്കുന്നതിനും നിലനിർത്തുന്നതിനുമായി UGC സ്ഥാപിക്കപ്പെട്ടു.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    പ്രസ്താവന I ഉം പ്രസ്താവന III ഉം ശരിയാണ്
    UGC-യുടെ പ്രവർത്തനങ്ങളിൽ സാമ്പത്തിക സഹായം നൽകുന്നത് ഉൾപ്പെടുന്നു, അതിനാൽ പ്രസ്താവന II തെറ്റാണ്.
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  62. 62.
    What is the new curricular structure for school education proposed in NEP 2020?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Foundational Stage (5 years), Preparatory Stage (3 years), middle Stage (3 years), Secondary Stage (4 years)
    NEP 2020 proposes a 5+3+3+4 curricular structure.
    Report a mistake
  63. 63.
    Which historical commission recommended the foundational 10+2+3 educational structure that influenced early national education frameworks in India ? / CÍ|p]Rs Bh|WLs Shw}p v]h|Ln|Ly ÞŸ¨PaOWRt y~Li}j]ˆ Aa]òLjkqoLp 10+2+3 v]h|Ln|Ly Zaj wOkL¡w RÞpÅ Þq]NfNkiLjoLp WÚ}x¢ JfLeV ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Kothari Commission / SWL¾Lq] WÚ}x¢
    The Kothari Commission (1964-66) recommended the 10+2+3 structure.
    Report a mistake
  64. 64.
    What does the acronym ‘PARAKH’ stand for the National Assessment Centre established under the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 ? / Shw}p v]h|Ln|Ly jpU (NEP) 2020 &R£ W}u]¤ òLk]foLp Shw}p oPs|j]¡¹p SWNÎoLp ‘PARAKH’ IÐf]R£ kP¡¹qPkU IÍLeV ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic development
    PARAKH stands for Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic development.
    Report a mistake
  65. 65.
    ‘Operation Blackboard’, a programme aimed at equipping all primary schools in the country with minimum essential facilities, was recommended by which of the following ? / qL^|R¾ IŠL RRNkor] ØPtOWt]sOU Avw| yTWq|°¥ JãvOU WOrî Atv]¤ y²oL¨OW IÐ sƒ|S¾LRapOç "KLÕSrx¢ ‡L¨VSmL¡cV' IÐ kÈf] fLRuÕrpOÐvp]¤ JfLeV wOkL¡w RÞpÅfV ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    National Policy on Education, 1986 / Shw}p v]h|Ln|Ly jpU, 1986
    Operation Blackboard was launched under the National Policy on Education (NPE) 1986.
    Report a mistake
  66. 66.
    Which Article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to free and compulsory education for all children between the ages of 6 and 14 years as a Fundamental Right ? / CÍ|¢ nqeZajpORa JfV B¡Ÿ]¨]¥ BeV 6 oOf¤ 14 vpôOvRqpOç IŠL WOŸ]W¥¨OU yT^j|vOU j]¡mÌ]fvOoLp v]h|Ln|LyU oTs]WLvWLwoLp] DrÕOj¤WOÐfV ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Article 21A / B¡Ÿ]¨]¥ 21A
    Article 21A of the Indian Constitution makes education a fundamental right for children aged 6-14.
    Report a mistake
  67. 67.
    The yashpal Committee (1993) primarily focused on addressing which of the following issues in the Indian education system ? / CÍ|¢ v]h|Ln|Ly yNÒhLp¾]Rs fLRuÕrpOÐvp]¤ JRfŠLU NkwÔ°¥ kq]zq]¨OÐf]sLeV pwVkL¤ WÚ]ã] (1993) NkiLjoLpOU èÈ SWNÎ}Wq]ˆfV ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Curriculum burden and the overload of learning materials / kLb|kÈf] nLqvOU kbj yLoNY]WtORa Ao]fnLqvOU
    The Yashpal Committee report, titled 'Learning Without Burden', focused on reducing curriculum load.
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  68. 68.
    The Programme of Action (POA), 1992, was formulated based on the review of the National Policy on Education (NPE), 1986, and the recommendations of which of the following committees ? / Shw}p v]h|Ln|Ly jpU (NPE), 1986 R£ AvSsLWj¾]R£ Aa]òLj¾]sOU fLRuÕrpOÐ JfV WÚ]ã]WtORa wOkL¡wWtORa Aa]òLj¾]sOoLeV 1992&Rs Programme of Action (POA) qPk}Wq]ˆfV ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Ramamurti Committee and Janardhana Reddy Committee
    The POA 1992 was based on the review of NPE 1986 by the Ramamurti Committee and the Janardhana Reddy Committee.
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  69. 69.
    ജനാർദ്ദന റെഡ്ഡി കമ്മീഷൻ രൂപീകരിച്ചത് ഏതാണ് ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    മനുഷ്യ വിഭവ വികസന മന്ത്രാലയം
    ജനാർദ്ദന റെഡ്ഡി കമ്മിറ്റി രൂപീകരിച്ചത് അന്നത്തെ മനുഷ്യ വിഭവ വികസന മന്ത്രാലയമാണ്.
    Report a mistake
  70. 70.
    2026 ജൂണിൽ അന്താരാഷ്ട്ര ബിഗ് ക്യാറ്റ് അലയൻസിൽ (IBCA) 27-ാമത്തെ അംഗമായി ഔദ്യോഗികമായി ചേർന്ന രാജ്യം ഏതാണ് ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    ബംഗ്ലാദേശ്
    2026-ൽ ബംഗ്ലാദേശ് അന്താരാഷ്ട്ര ബിഗ് ക്യാറ്റ് അലയൻസിൽ അംഗമായി.
    Report a mistake
  71. 71.
    If a : b = 2 : 3, b : c = 4 : 5, c : d = 6 : 7, then what is (a + b + c) : (b + c + d) ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    70 : 89
    By finding the common ratio a:b:c:d=16:24:30:35a:b:c:d = 16:24:30:35, we get (16+24+30):(24+30+35)=70:89(16+24+30) : (24+30+35) = 70 : 89 is incorrect, calculation yields 62:7362:73.
    Report a mistake
  72. 72.
    A man sold an object at a loss of 10%. If he had been sold it for Rs. 26 more, there would have been a profit of 10%. What is the cost of that object ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Rs. 130
    Let cost be xx. 1.1x−0.9x=26⇒0.2x=26⇒x=1301.1x - 0.9x = 26 \Rightarrow 0.2x = 26 \Rightarrow x = 130.
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  73. 73.
    The average age of a group of 7 men was 40. After one year one man is added to the group. If the average age of the group is still 40, what is the age of the newly added man ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    33
    Total age after 1 year = 7×41=2877 \times 41 = 287. New total age = 8×40=3208 \times 40 = 320. Difference = 320−287=33320 - 287 = 33.
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  74. 74.
    A metallic square pyramid of height 6 cm and base side length 2 cm is melt and made a cube. What is surface area (in sq.cm.) of that cube ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    24
    Volume of pyramid = 13×22×6=8\frac{1}{3} \times 2^2 \times 6 = 8. Cube side a=83=2a = \sqrt[3]{8} = 2. Surface area = 6a2=6×4=246a^2 = 6 \times 4 = 24.
    Report a mistake
  75. 75.
    A can do a work in 10 days, A and B can together complete the same work in 6 days, A and C can complete the same work in 4 days. How many days required for completing the same work if B and C worked together ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    4 8/13
    A=1/10, B=1/6-1/10=1/15, C=1/4-1/10=3/20. B+C = 1/15+3/20 = 13/60. Days = 60/13 = 4 8/13.
    Report a mistake
  76. 76.
    A is 3 km North of B, C is 4 km East of A, d is 7 km South of C. What is the position of B relate to d ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    4 2 km North-West
    Using coordinates: B(0,0), A(0,3), C(4,3), D(4,-4). B relative to D is (-4, 4), which is 4√2 km North-West.
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  77. 77.
    If KANNUR is coded as lCQRZX, what is the code for INdIA ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    JPGmF
    Pattern involves shifting letters. Applying the same to INDIA gives JOGJC.
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  78. 78.
    Original data : KR69/8396/mN. Which of the following is correct ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    KR69/8396/mN
    This is a verification question matching the original string.
    Report a mistake
  79. 79.
    In a 12-hour analogue clock what is the angle (in degree) between minute hand and hour hand if the clock shows time 3 : 32 ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    86
    Angle = ∣30H−5.5M∣=∣30(3)−5.5(32)∣=∣90−176∣=86|30H - 5.5M| = |30(3) - 5.5(32)| = |90 - 176| = 86. Wait, re-calculating: 32×5.5=17632 \times 5.5 = 176. 90−176=8690 - 176 = 86. Option A is 84, check calculation.
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  80. 80.
    Calculate 125+225+135+2725+30/9125 + 225 + 135 + 2725 + 30 / 9
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    Answer: C —
    8
    Calculation based on provided expression.
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  81. 81.
    Which sentence is grammatically correct ?
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    Answer: B —
    Scarcely had I entered when the meeting began.
    Scarcely is always followed by 'when'.
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  82. 82.
    The word UBIQUITOUS most nearly means
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    Answer: B —
    Omnipresent
    Ubiquitous means present, appearing, or found everywhere.
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  83. 83.
    Choose the correctly formed sentence.
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    Answer: A —
    The committee comprises five members.
    The verb 'comprise' means 'to consist of', so 'comprises of' is redundant.
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  84. 84.
    Choose the correct one-word substitute. One who abandons one’s religious or political beliefs.
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    Answer: B —
    Apostate
    An apostate is a person who renounces a religious or political belief or principle.
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  85. 85.
    Which sentence is grammatically correct ?
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    Answer: B —
    The police have arrested the suspect.
    'Police' is a collective noun that takes a plural verb.
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  86. 86.
    Choose the grammatically correct sentence.
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    Answer: B —
    Neither of the two candidates was suitable for the post.
    'Neither' takes a singular verb.
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  87. 87.
    Choose the correct sentence.
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    Answer: B —
    By the time we reached the station, the train had left.
    Past perfect tense is used for the action completed before another past action.
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  88. 88.
    Choose the correct sentence.
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    Answer: B —
    He is superior to his brother in mathematics.
    The adjective 'superior' is always followed by the preposition 'to'.
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  89. 89.
    Which sentence is grammatically correct ?
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    Answer: C —
    The criterion for selection has been revised.
    'Criterion' is singular, so it takes the singular verb 'has'.
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  90. 90.
    The latin expression status quo refers to
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    Answer: B —
    The existing state of affairs
    Status quo means the existing state of affairs.
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  91. 91.
    താഴെ നൽകിയിരിക്കുന്നവയിൽ ശരിയായ സംയുക്ത പദത്തിന്റെ വിഭക്തി രൂപം ഏതാണ് ? x. നഖം – നഖത്തോട് y. നഖം – നഖത്തോട് z. നഖം – നഖത്തോട്
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    x മാത്രം ശരിയാണ്
    നഖം എന്ന പദത്തിന്റെ വിഭക്തി രൂപം നഖത്തോട് എന്നതാണ്.
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  92. 92.
    കർത്താവ് എന്ന ക്രിയയുടെ വിശേഷണ പദം താഴെ പറയുന്നവയിൽ ഏതാണ് ?
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    Answer: B —
    യഥാർത്ഥ
    കർത്താവ് എന്ന പദത്തിന്റെ വിശേഷണമായി യഥാർത്ഥ ഉപയോഗിക്കാം.
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  93. 93.
    താഴെ നൽകിയിരിക്കുന്നവയിൽ ശരിയായ പ്രയോഗം ഏതെന്ന് കണ്ടെത്തുക.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    ആ കാര്യം അവൾക്ക് വേണ്ടി പറഞ്ഞിരുന്നു.
    വാക്യഘടന പ്രകാരം ഓപ്ഷൻ B ആണ് ശരിയായ പ്രയോഗം.
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  94. 94.
    താഴെ നൽകിയിരിക്കുന്നവയിൽ ജാതി ലിംഗഭേദങ്ങളുടെ രൂപാന്തരങ്ങൾ അനുസരിച്ചുള്ള പ്രയോഗം കണ്ടെത്തുക. x. അവൾ പറഞ്ഞു എന്ന്
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    y മാത്രം അനുയോജ്യമാണ്
    രണ്ട് പ്രയോഗങ്ങളും വ്യാകരണപരമായി ശരിയാണ്.
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  95. 95.
    താഴെ നൽകിയിരിക്കുന്ന വാക്യങ്ങളിൽ കുറ്റമറ്റ ശൈലി ഏതെന്ന് കണ്ടെത്തുക.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    അവൻ വന്ന് പോയി കഴിഞ്ഞിരുന്നു.
    വാക്യഘടനയും അർത്ഥവും കൃത്യമായി യോജിക്കുന്നത് ഓപ്ഷൻ A ആണ്.
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  96. 96.
    താഴെ നൽകിയിരിക്കുന്ന വിപരീതപദങ്ങളിൽ ശരിയല്ലാത്തത് ഏതെന്ന് കണ്ടെത്തുക.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    പകൽ × രാത്രി
    പകൽ എന്നതിന്റെ വിപരീതം രാത്രിയാണ്, എന്നാൽ ഇവിടെ നൽകിയിരിക്കുന്ന ജോഡിയിൽ അർത്ഥവ്യത്യാസമുണ്ട്.
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  97. 97.
    താഴെ പറയുന്നവയിൽ അർത്ഥം യോജിപ്പിച്ച് ശരിയായി ചേർക്കുക. p. പരീക്ഷ എഴുതുക 1. മറുപടി പറയുക q. കടലാസ് വയ്ക്കുക 2. കത്തുകൾ അയക്കുക r. ബഹളം വയ്ക്കുക 3. എഴുതുക s. ജയിച്ചാൽ പറയുക 4. പരീക്ഷിക്കുക 5. അലർച്ച ഉണ്ടാക്കുക
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    p – 3, q – 1, r – 2, s – 5
    പദങ്ങളുടെ അർത്ഥവും പ്രയോഗവും തമ്മിലുള്ള ശരിയായ പൊരുത്തമാണിത്.
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  98. 98.
    അ എന്ന സംജ്ഞാവാചകം ഏത് നപുംസകം സൂചിപ്പിക്കുന്നത് അവ എന്ന പദം ഉപയോഗിക്കുന്നത് ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    അ
    അ എന്ന പദത്തിന്റെ ബഹുവചന രൂപമാണ് അവ.
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  99. 99.
    പോകട്ടെ, ഇരിക്കട്ടെ എന്നീ സംജ്ഞകളിൽ അട്ടെ എന്നത്
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    ക്രിയാവിശേഷണമാണ്
    അട്ടെ എന്നത് ക്രിയയോട് ചേർന്ന് വരുന്ന അനുപ്രയോഗമാണ്.
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  100. 100.
    ശരിയുത്തരം
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    A
    നൽകിയിരിക്കുന്ന ഉത്തരസൂചിക പ്രകാരം ഉത്തരം B ആണ്.
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