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Assistant Professor in Community Dentistry - NCA - Kerala Medical Education question paper 2019

Date of test
13/12/2019
Question paper code
63/2019/OL
Questions
100
Answer key
Provisional Answer Key
Exam mode
Online (computer based)

Provisional key. Kerala PSC can change answers after reviewing complaints; the final key decides the marks.

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Source: Kerala PSC (keralapsc.gov.in) · official document· Last updated 25 Sept 2026· How we check content

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As published by the Kerala Public Service Commission.

All 100 questions with answers

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  1. 1.
    The World Health Day Theme for the year 2019 was
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Universal Health Coverage: everyone, everywhere
    The theme for World Health Day 2019 was 'Universal Health Coverage: everyone, everywhere'.
    Report a mistake
  2. 2.
    Deficiency of Thiamine (Vitamin B1) causes
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Wernicke's encephalopathy
    Thiamine deficiency leads to conditions such as Wernicke's encephalopathy and Beriberi.
    Report a mistake
  3. 3.
    In a balanced diet, the proportion of fats should be
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    20-30%
    In a balanced diet, fats should contribute roughly 20-30% of the total daily energy intake.
    Report a mistake
  4. 4.
    Which among the following trace elements is caries promoting
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Magnesium
    Magnesium is considered a caries-promoting trace element.
    Report a mistake
  5. 5.
    Iron is required for all of the following EXCEPT
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Coagulation of blood
    Iron is essential for oxygen transport, brain development, muscle activity, and temperature regulation, but not directly for blood coagulation.
    Report a mistake
  6. 6.
    All of the following are theories of behaviour change EXCEPT
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Lifestyle and Oral Health Model
    Lifestyle and Oral Health Model is not recognized as a standard theory of behavior change among the options listed.
    Report a mistake
  7. 7.
    The Stages of Change Model was developed by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Prochaska and DiClemente in 1983
    The Stages of Change (Transtheoretical) Model was developed by Prochaska and DiClemente in 1983.
    Report a mistake
  8. 8.
    Which among the following is the requirement for care as determined by expert opinion
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Normative Need
    Normative need is defined as the need for health care as assessed by health professionals or experts.
    Report a mistake
  9. 9.
    The theory of Operant Conditioning was put forward by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    B.F. Skinner
    B.F. Skinner formulated the theory of Operant Conditioning.
    Report a mistake
  10. 10.
    The technique of Systematic Desensitization in behaviour management of children was developed by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Wolpe in 1952
    Systematic desensitization was developed by Joseph Wolpe in 1952.
    Report a mistake
  11. 11.
    BCG vaccine can be given in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Assymptomatic HIV positive infants in high endemic areas
    BCG vaccine is recommended for asymptomatic HIV-positive infants in areas with a high burden of tuberculosis.
    Report a mistake
  12. 12.
    Which among the following DOES NOT come under Hill's (Surgeon Genaral's) criteria of causal association
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Sensitivity of association
    Sensitivity is a diagnostic test characteristic, not one of Bradford Hill's criteria for causation.
    Report a mistake
  13. 13.
    The term "Social structure" can be defined as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Patterns of interrelationships between persons in a society
    Social structure refers to the stable patterns of social behavior and interrelationships among individuals within a society.
    Report a mistake
  14. 14.
    Which among the following DOES NOT come under behavioural sciences
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Cultural anthropology
    Behavioral sciences typically include psychology, sociology, and social anthropology, while cultural anthropology is often grouped more broadly under general anthropology/humanities.
    Report a mistake
  15. 15.
    Acculturation can occur through all of the following ways EXCEPT
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Crime and corruption
    Crime and corruption are not standard mechanisms through which cultural modification and adaptation (acculturation) occur.
    Report a mistake
  16. 16.
    Which among the following DOES NOT come under theories in Sociology
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Freudian Theory
    Freudian theory is a psychological/psychoanalytical theory rather than a sociological theory.
    Report a mistake
  17. 17.
    According to Stern's IQ test, IQ was calculated for children as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    IQ = (Mental age / Chronological age) x 100
    William Stern formulated the intelligence quotient formula as (Mental Age / Chronological Age) × 100.
    Report a mistake
  18. 18.
    Kuppuswamy scale is NOT based on
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Gender
    The Kuppuswamy urban socioeconomic status scale utilizes education, occupation, and income, but does not include gender.
    Report a mistake
  19. 19.
    Which among the following comes under "Rural Socio Economic Status Scales"
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Modified B.G. Prasad Scale
    Modified B.G. Prasad scale is commonly applied in rural/semi-urban settings based on per capita monthly income.
    Report a mistake
  20. 20.
    Comparison of costs of different interventions that are assumed to provide equivalent benefits is done in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Cost Minimization Analysis
    Cost Minimization Analysis is used when the health outcomes or benefits of the interventions being compared are identical.
    Report a mistake
  21. 21.
    Zeihl Neelsen staining is used for the diagnosis of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Tuberculosis
    Ziehl-Neelsen staining is an acid-fast stain primarily used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Mycobacterium leprae (though tuberculosis is the classic primary match here).
    Report a mistake
  22. 22.
    The National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP) covers all of the following diseases EXCEPT
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    H1N1(Swine Flu)
    H1N1 is a viral respiratory disease and is not classified as a vector-borne disease under the NVBDCP.
    Report a mistake
  23. 23.
    Kala azar is transmitted by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Sandfly
    Kala-azar (Visceral Leishmaniasis) is transmitted by the bite of an infected female Phlebotomine sandfly.
    Report a mistake
  24. 24.
    National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was launched in the year
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    2005
    The National Rural Health Mission was launched by the Government of India in April 2005.
    Report a mistake
  25. 25.
    Which among the following statements is NOT true about Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY)
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Launched in the year 2012
    Janani Suraksha Yojana was launched in 2005, not 2012.
    Report a mistake
  26. 26.
    Which among the following drugs is NOT used in Multi Drug Therapy (MDT) in the treatment of leprosy
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Minocycline
    Standard MDT for leprosy consists of Rifampicin, Clofazimine, and Dapsone.
    Report a mistake
  27. 27.
    Which among the following is a synonym for Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY)
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    National Health Insurance Scheme
    RSBY is a government-run health insurance program for BPL families in India.
    Report a mistake
  28. 28.
    Which among the following committees for health planning in India is known as "Committee on Multipurpose Workers under Health and Family Planning"
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Kartar Singh Committee
    The Kartar Singh Committee (1973) recommended the concept of multipurpose workers.
    Report a mistake
  29. 29.
    Each Community Health Centre acts as a referral centre for how many Primary Health Centres
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    4
    A Community Health Centre (CHC) is designed to serve as a referral unit for 4 Primary Health Centres (PHCs).
    Report a mistake
  30. 30.
    The bed strength of a Community Health Centre is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    30
    A standard Community Health Centre in India has a bed strength of 30.
    Report a mistake
  31. 31.
    Who is the chairperson of National Planning Commission of India (NITI Aayog)
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    The Prime Minister of India
    The Prime Minister of India serves as the ex-officio Chairperson of NITI Aayog.
    Report a mistake
  32. 32.
    Who gave the definition of epidemiology as "The study of distribution and determinants of disease frequency in man"
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Mac Mohan and Pugh
    MacMahon and Pugh provided this classic definition of epidemiology.
    Report a mistake
  33. 33.
    The theory of Multifactorial Causation of disease was put forward by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Pettenkofer of Munich
    Pettenkofer is associated with the early concepts of multifactorial disease causation.
    Report a mistake
  34. 34.
    Efficiency evaluation refers to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Attempts made to relate the results obtained from a specific programme to the resources expended to maintain the programme
    Efficiency evaluation focuses on the relationship between inputs (resources) and outputs (results).
    Report a mistake
  35. 35.
    Which among the following DOES NOT come under the WHO recommended approaches for the primary prevention of chronic diseases where the risk factors are established
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Individual strategy
    WHO strategies for chronic disease prevention primarily focus on population and high-risk approaches, not individual clinical strategies.
    Report a mistake
  36. 36.
    Defluoridation is an example of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Primary prevention
    Defluoridation is a primary prevention measure to prevent dental fluorosis.
    Report a mistake
  37. 37.
    Which among the following study designs give the underlying cause (why and how)
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Analytical study
    Analytical studies are designed to test hypotheses and determine the causes of disease.
    Report a mistake
  38. 38.
    Which among the following is an uncontrolled characteristic of a study
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Dependent Variable
    The dependent variable is the outcome being measured, which is observed rather than manipulated by the researcher.
    Report a mistake
  39. 39.
    Which among the following statements is NOT applicable to probability sampling method
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Sampling error remains unknown
    In probability sampling, the sampling error can be calculated because the selection probability is known.
    Report a mistake
  40. 40.
    Systematic sampling is NOT used when the population is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Homogenous
    Systematic sampling is most effective when the population is ordered or heterogeneous; if it is perfectly homogeneous, the sampling method is less critical.
    Report a mistake
  41. 41.
    Sentinel surveillance is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Monitoring of rate of occurrence of specific conditions to assess the stability or change in health
    Sentinel surveillance involves monitoring specific sites or groups to provide early warning of health trends.
    Report a mistake
  42. 42.
    Which among the following is a characteristic of cross sectional studies
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Cause and effect relationship can't be established
    Cross-sectional studies provide a snapshot in time and cannot establish temporal sequence, thus cause-effect cannot be determined.
    Report a mistake
  43. 43.
    Relative risk, attributable risk and incidence rate can be calculated in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Cohort study
    Cohort studies follow groups over time, allowing for the direct calculation of incidence and relative risk.
    Report a mistake
  44. 44.
    Pygmalion effect is another name for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Interviewer's bias
    The Pygmalion effect (or observer-expectancy effect) is a form of interviewer bias where expectations influence the outcome.
    Report a mistake
  45. 45.
    Absolute zero and meaningful ratio of scores exist in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Ratio scale
    The ratio scale is the only level of measurement that possesses a true absolute zero point.
    Report a mistake
  46. 46.
    Prevalence = Incidence in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Acute diseases like influenza
    For acute diseases of short duration, prevalence is approximately equal to incidence.
    Report a mistake
  47. 47.
    Which among the following is used to represent continuous type of quantitative data
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Histogram
    Histograms are specifically designed to represent the frequency distribution of continuous data.
    Report a mistake
  48. 48.
    In Correlation, the shape of the curve is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Dumbbell shaped
    In the context of bivariate normal distribution, the scatter plot often appears as an elliptical or dumbbell shape.
    Report a mistake
  49. 49.
    Mean<Median in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Negatively skewed distribution
    In a negatively skewed distribution, the tail is on the left, pulling the mean below the median.
    Report a mistake
  50. 50.
    In a standard normal distribution, Mean ±3 Standard Deviation which covers about 99% of data, the Z-score is taken as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    2.5
    While 3 standard deviations cover 99.7%, the question refers to the Z-score associated with the 99% confidence interval, which is approximately 2.576.
    Report a mistake
  51. 51.
    Which among the following is NOT a feature of parametric tests
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    The correlation test used in Spearman's correlation
    Spearman's correlation is a non-parametric test, whereas Pearson's correlation is parametric.
    Report a mistake
  52. 52.
    Sensitivity of a biochemical test is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    The ability to identify correctly all those who have the disease
    Sensitivity is defined as the proportion of true positives correctly identified by the test.
    Report a mistake
  53. 53.
    Reliability and repeatability can be measured by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Correlation
    Correlation coefficients (like ICC) are standard measures for assessing reliability and repeatability.
    Report a mistake
  54. 54.
    Fluoride as an element was discovered by H.V. Churchill in the year
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    1931
    H.V. Churchill identified fluoride as the causative agent of mottled enamel in 1931.
    Report a mistake
  55. 55.
    The Turku sugar study on diet and dental caries was conducted by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Scheinin and Makinen in 1975
    The Turku sugar study, a landmark clinical trial on xylitol, was published by Scheinin and Makinen in 1975.
    Report a mistake
  56. 56.
    In the Lactobacillus count test, which reading is inferred as moderate risk
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    5000-10000
    In the Lactobacillus count test, 5000-10000 CFU/ml is typically categorized as moderate caries risk.
    Report a mistake
  57. 57.
    The indicator dye used in Ora test is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Methylene blue
    The Ora test utilizes methylene blue as an indicator dye to assess bacterial activity.
    Report a mistake
  58. 58.
    Which among the following is a simplified substitute for Snyder test
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Alban test
    The Alban test is a simplified version of the Snyder test used to estimate caries activity.
    Report a mistake
  59. 59.
    The Swab test was developed by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Grainger et al in 1965
    The Swab test for caries activity was developed by Grainger et al. in 1965.
    Report a mistake
  60. 60.
    Salt fluoridation comes under which level of prevention
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Primary prevention
    Salt fluoridation is a population-based primary prevention strategy to reduce dental caries.
    Report a mistake
  61. 61.
    Acidulated Phosphate Fluoride acts through the following reaction products
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All the above
    APF treatment results in the formation of calcium fluoride and fluorapatite on the enamel surface.
    Report a mistake
  62. 62.
    Which among the following is NOT a disadvantage of Stannous Fluoride
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Causes etching of porcelain restorations
    Stannous fluoride is known for its instability, metallic taste, and staining properties, but it does not cause etching of porcelain.
    Report a mistake
  63. 63.
    Which among the following has antimicrobial properties
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    SnF2SnF_2
    Stannous fluoride (SnF2SnF_2) possesses significant antimicrobial properties due to the stannous ion.
    Report a mistake
  64. 64.
    The concentration of fluoride in Fluor protector varnish is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    7000 ppm
    Fluor protector varnish contains 0.1% fluoride, which is equivalent to 7000 ppm.
    Report a mistake
  65. 65.
    According to DMFS index proposed in 1938, the total number of surfaces examined are
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    128
    The original DMFS index proposed by Klein and Palmer in 1938 examines 128 surfaces.
    Report a mistake
  66. 66.
    According to the Debris Index component of OHI-S proposed by Greene and Vermillion, presence of extrinsic stains regardless of surface area covered should be given a score of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    1
    In the OHI-S Debris Index, a score of 1 is assigned for soft debris covering not more than one-third of the tooth surface or presence of extrinsic stains.
    Report a mistake
  67. 67.
    The index age of 15 years in National Pathfinder survey signifies
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Used for the assessment of periodontal disease indicators in adolescents
    In WHO Pathfinder surveys, age 15 is specifically used for the assessment of periodontal disease indicators in adolescents.
    Report a mistake
  68. 68.
    The Thylstrup and Fejerskov Index for fluorosis was modified by O. Fejerskov in the year
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    1988
    The Thylstrup and Fejerskov (TF) index was modified by Fejerskov et al in 1988.
    Report a mistake
  69. 69.
    As per Dunning's classification, bite wing X-rays are used in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Type 2 examination
    Type 2 examination involves the use of a mouth mirror, explorer, adequate illumination, and bitewing radiographs.
    Report a mistake
  70. 70.
    Which among the following is NOT an abrasive agent used in dentrifice
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Sodium lauryl sulphate
    Sodium lauryl sulphate is a surfactant (detergent) used in toothpaste, not an abrasive agent.
    Report a mistake
  71. 71.
    The meaning of the word "Comprehension" in principles of health education is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Level of understanding
    In the context of health education principles, comprehension refers to the level of understanding of the information provided.
    Report a mistake
  72. 72.
    In the phrase of "Soil, Seed and Sower" in health education, soil indicates
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    The receiver
    In this analogy, the sower is the educator, the seed is the message, and the soil is the receiver (the community).
    Report a mistake
  73. 73.
    Which among the following methods of health education is called "problem solving method"
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Workshop
    A workshop is an interactive method that focuses on solving specific problems through group activity.
    Report a mistake
  74. 74.
    The public program Medicaid is proposed in which title of the Social Security Society Amendments Act of 1965
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Title XIX
    Medicaid was established under Title XIX of the Social Security Act of 1965.
    Report a mistake
  75. 75.
    Which among the following methods of payment is called as "front-end-payment"
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Deductible
    A deductible is a fixed amount that the insured must pay before the insurance company starts to pay, often referred to as a front-end payment.
    Report a mistake
  76. 76.
    Which among the following is a non-operating dental auxiliary
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Dental assistant
    A dental assistant is classified as a non-operating dental auxiliary as they do not perform clinical procedures directly on patients.
    Report a mistake
  77. 77.
    Refuse is the term used to describe
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Solid and semi-solid waste matters of a community except excrements
    Refuse refers to the solid or semi-solid waste materials of a community, excluding human excreta.
    Report a mistake
  78. 78.
    The temperature used to burn combustibles in an incinerator is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    1300-1500°C
    High-temperature incineration for medical waste typically requires temperatures between 1300°C and 1500°C.
    Report a mistake
  79. 79.
    Gudakhu is the smokeless form of tobacco described in terms of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Paste of tobacco powder used to clean the teeth mainly by women of Bihar
    Gudakhu is a tobacco-based paste used primarily for dental cleaning in parts of India like Bihar.
    Report a mistake
  80. 80.
    The Headquarters of UNICEF is at
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    New York
    The headquarters of UNICEF is located in New York City.
    Report a mistake
  81. 81.
    The Colombo plan of commonwealth countries for co-operative economics in South-East Asia was established in the year
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    1950
    The Colombo Plan was established in 1950.
    Report a mistake
  82. 82.
    The Indian Red Cross Society was established in the year
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    1920
    The Indian Red Cross Society was established in 1920.
    Report a mistake
  83. 83.
    Which among the following committees was established for malaria eradiacation at the PHC level
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Chadha Committee
    The Chadha Committee (1963) was formed to advise on the maintenance phase of the National Malaria Eradication Programme.
    Report a mistake
  84. 84.
    All of the following indicators are included in Human Development Index (HDI) EXCEPT
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Infant mortality rate
    The HDI is composed of health (life expectancy), education (literacy/schooling), and standard of living (GNI per capita). Infant mortality is not a direct component.
    Report a mistake
  85. 85.
    Sullivan's index measures
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Life expectancy free of disability
    Sullivan's index is a health expectancy measure that calculates life expectancy free of disability.
    Report a mistake
  86. 86.
    Implied consent is otherwise called as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Tacit consent
    Implied consent is often referred to as tacit consent, where actions suggest agreement.
    Report a mistake
  87. 87.
    Bolam test is the term used in connection with
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Professional Negligence
    The Bolam test is a legal test used to determine whether a medical professional has been negligent.
    Report a mistake
  88. 88.
    Which among the following DOES NOT come under the principles of epidemiology
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Randomization
    Randomization is a feature of experimental studies, not a fundamental principle of epidemiology itself.
    Report a mistake
  89. 89.
    "Precede-Proceed" model is used in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Planning and evaluation of health education
    The PRECEDE-PROCEED model is a comprehensive framework for health promotion planning and evaluation.
    Report a mistake
  90. 90.
    The world's first dental hygienist was
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Irene Newman
    Irene Newman was trained by Alfred C. Fones and became the world's first dental hygienist.
    Report a mistake
  91. 91.
    Fluoride containing pit and fissure sealants are
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Fourth generation
    Fluoride-releasing sealants are classified as fourth-generation sealants.
    Report a mistake
  92. 92.
    Which among the following is NOT a priority area of Health Promotion
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Intersectoral co-ordination
    The Ottawa Charter identifies five priority areas; intersectoral coordination is a strategy, but not one of the five core priority areas listed in the charter.
    Report a mistake
  93. 93.
    Z-test is used to compare the means of two groups when
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    The data sets in the groups are related to each other and the sample is large
    A Z-test is typically used for large samples where the population variance is known.
    Report a mistake
  94. 94.
    Which among the following is NOT an application of Chi-square test in statistics
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    None of the above
    The Chi-square test is used for all these applications: testing proportions, associations, and goodness of fit.
    Report a mistake
  95. 95.
    Which among the following is the dye used in Modified Quigley Hein Plaque Index
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Basic fuschin
    Basic fuchsin is commonly used as a disclosing agent for the Quigley-Hein Plaque Index.
    Report a mistake
  96. 96.
    The Employees State Insurance (ESI) Act was introduced in the year
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    1948
    The ESI Act was passed in 1948.
    Report a mistake
  97. 97.
    Trench method is used in which following methods of waste disposal
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Controlled tipping
    The trench method is a technique used in controlled tipping (sanitary landfilling).
    Report a mistake
  98. 98.
    Third hand smoke is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    The chemical residue of tobacco smoke that gets attached to clothing, wall, furniture and other materials after the cigarette is extinguished.
    Third-hand smoke refers to the residual nicotine and other chemicals left on surfaces after smoking.
    Report a mistake
  99. 99.
    Askov Dental Demonstration was a school dental health program implemented for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    A Danish community
    The Askov Dental Demonstration was a well-known school-based dental health program conducted in Denmark.
    Report a mistake
  100. 100.
    The Declaration of Helsinki was developed by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    World Medical Association
    The Declaration of Helsinki, a set of ethical principles regarding human experimentation, was developed by the World Medical Association.
    Report a mistake

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