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100 questions with answersFinal answer keyKerala State Assistant Public Prosecuters Service

Assistant Public Prosecutor Grade-II - Kerala State Assistant Public Prosecuters Service question paper 2023

Kerala State Assistant Public Prosecuters Service

Date of test
29-05-2023
Question paper code
48/2023/OL
Category No.
659/2022
Questions
100
Answer key
Final Answer Key
Exam mode
Online (computer based)
See questions with answersPractise as a mock test

Source: Kerala PSC (keralapsc.gov.in) · official document· Last updated 25 Sept 2026· How we check content

Official PDFs

As published by the Kerala Public Service Commission.

All 100 questions with answers

Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer. Answers follow the official Kerala PSC answer key.

  1. 1.
    A commits theft on property in Z's possession; and, while committing this theft, he has a loaded pistol under his garment, having provided this pistol for the purpose of hurting Z in case Z should resist. A has committed the offence of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Theft after preparation made for causing death or hurt
    This falls under theft with preparation made for causing death, hurt, or restraint in order to commit theft.
    Report a mistake
  2. 2.
    Which of the following is correct ? i. Culpable homicide is genus and murder its specie. ii. All murder is culpable homicide but not vice versa. iii. All murder is culpable homicide and all culpable homicide is murder. iv. Generally, "culpable homicide" sans "special characteristics of murder" is "culpable homicide not amounting to murder".
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Only i, ii and iv are correct
    Statements i, ii, and iv correctly explain the relationship between culpable homicide and murder under the Indian Penal Code.
    Report a mistake
  3. 3.
    Adultery has been decriminalised in India as it violates
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Articles 14, 15 and 21
    Section 497 was struck down in Joseph Shine v. Union of India as violative of Articles 14, 15, and 21.
    Report a mistake
  4. 4.
    A finds the key of Z's house door, which Z had lost and commits house-trespass by entering Z's house, having opened the door with that key. A has committed the offence of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    House Breaking
    Entering by opening a lock with a key obtained in such a manner constitutes house-breaking.
    Report a mistake
  5. 5.
    Kidnapping from lawful guardianship can be committed against
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    A male under 16 years of age or female under 18 years of age or a person of unsound mind
    Under Section 361 IPC, kidnapping is from under eighteen years of age if a female, or under sixteen years of age if a male, or any person of unsound mind.
    Report a mistake
  6. 6.
    'A' is walking on the road. 'B' comes on a motorcycle from behind and pulls an earring from her ear and thereby tears A's ear. 'B' is guilty of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Robbery
    Theft becomes robbery when hurt is caused in committing theft or in attempting to carry away property.
    Report a mistake
  7. 7.
    Which is correct : As per the decision of the Supreme Court in Smruti Tukaram Badade v. State of Maharashtra, 2022 SCC Online SC 88; vulnerable witnesses include : i. Child witnesses. ii. Victims of sexual assault irrespective of their age. iii. Victims of sexual assault irrespective of their gender. iv. Victims suffering from mental illness. v. Any speech or hearing-impaired individual or a person suffering from any other disability who is considered to be a vulnerable witness by the competent court.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    i, ii, iii, iv and v are correct
    All listed categories are recognized as vulnerable witnesses under the guidelines laid down by the Supreme Court.
    Report a mistake
  8. 8.
    Proprietary rights mean a person's right in relation to his own property whereas personal rights are rights arising out of any contractual obligation or rights that relate to status. Based on the above statement, which is correct ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Proprietary rights are transferable whereas personal rights are non-transferable
    Proprietary rights possess economic value and are transferable, whereas personal rights relate to status or obligations and are non-transferable.
    Report a mistake
  9. 9.
    Companies can be held liable for offences punishable with i. Fine only ii. Imprisonment only iii. Fine or imprisonment iv. Fine and imprisonment Which of the following is correct ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    i, iii and iv
    Companies can be prosecuted for offences even if they carry mandatory imprisonment, by imposing fines.
    Report a mistake
  10. 10.
    'A' goes to a marriage function and finds a valuable ring on the table, not knowing to whom it belongs. He picks it up and puts it in his pocket without attempting to discover the owner of the ring. The next day he sells it. 'A' is liable for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Criminal misappropriation
    Dishonest misappropriation of property found constitutes criminal misappropriation under Section 403 IPC.
    Report a mistake
  11. 11.
    The Constitutional validity of section 124 A of IPC has been challenged in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    S. G. Vombatkere v. Union of India, (2022) 7 SCC 433
    S. G. Vombatkere v. Union of India challenged the constitutional validity of Section 124A IPC.
    Report a mistake
  12. 12.
    The Supreme Court in the case of _____________ held that reverse application of the principle of "alter ego" is not permissible.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Sunil Bharti Mittal v. CBI, (2015) 4 SCC 609
    In Sunil Bharti Mittal v. CBI, the Supreme Court held that the alter ego principle cannot be applied in reverse to make a company an accused based on the acts of its directors.
    Report a mistake
  13. 13.
    'A' was a Superintendent in the Public Works Department of the State Government. A friend of his wanted a file from the Public Works Department for removing certain unfavourable documents and putting documents which were more favourable to him. The file was in the Secretariat of the Department concerned which was under the charge of the Chief Engineering. 'A' was one of the officers working in the department. The file was removed by 'A' and the documents were tempered. 'A' is liable for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Theft
    Moving movable property out of the possession of any person without consent constitutes theft.
    Report a mistake
  14. 14.
    Under Section 410 of IPC, a property is called stolen property if its possession has been transferred by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Theft or extortion or robbery or criminal breach of trust
    Section 410 IPC defines stolen property as property whose possession has been transferred by theft, extortion, robbery, criminal misappropriation, or criminal breach of trust.
    Report a mistake
  15. 15.
    Dead men are not persons in the eye of law. However, the law protects a dead man's interest over his
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Body, reputation and estate
    Legal systems generally protect the interests of the deceased regarding their body, reputation, and estate.
    Report a mistake
  16. 16.
    The Supreme Court in Independent Thought v. UOI, (2017) 10 SCC 800 held that
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Sexual intercourse between a man and his wife being a girl between 15 and 18 years of age is rape
    The Supreme Court held that sexual intercourse with a wife who is between 15 and 18 years of age constitutes rape.
    Report a mistake
  17. 17.
    In respect of bailor and bailee, the right of the bailor and bailee are
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Bailor has rights in re-propria but the bailee has rights in re-aliena
    The bailor retains ownership (rights in re-propria), while the bailee holds possession (rights in re-aliena).
    Report a mistake
  18. 18.
    In one of the famous cases, the Supreme Court held that the bar on disclosure of name and identity of victims of sexual offences provided Under Section 228 A of IPC, applies even to dead victims. The case is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Nipun Saxena v. UOI, (2019) 2 SCC 703
    In Nipun Saxena v. UOI, the Supreme Court clarified that the identity of sexual assault victims, including deceased victims, must be protected.
    Report a mistake
  19. 19.
    'A' sells and conveys an estate to 'B'. 'A', knowing that in consequence of such a sale, he has no right to the property, sells and mortgages the same to 'Z', without disclosing the fact of the previous sale and conveyance to 'B', and receives the purchase or mortgage money from 'Z'. 'A' is guilty of the offence of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Cheating
    By deceiving 'Z' into paying for property he no longer owns, 'A' commits the offence of cheating.
    Report a mistake
  20. 20.
    'A' puts a biscuit as bait for a dog in his pocket and shows the biscuit to his neighbour's dog thereby inducing him. The dog begins to follow 'A'. 'A' is guilty of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Theft
    Moving the animal with the intent to take it dishonestly out of the possession of the owner constitutes theft.
    Report a mistake
  21. 21.
    Choose the correct statement(s) about the Differential Association theory of Sutherland : i. Criminal behaviour is acquired by birth. ii. Differential association does not vary in frequency, duration, priority and intensity. iii. The process of learning of criminal behavior is different from other learnings.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All are incorrect
    Sutherland's theory posits that criminal behavior is learned through social interaction, not birth, and varies in frequency, duration, priority, and intensity.
    Report a mistake
  22. 22.
    Which of the following constitutes white collar crime ? i. Bribery ii. Identity theft iii. Criminal Intimidation iv. Sedition
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    i and ii
    Bribery and identity theft are classic examples of white-collar crimes, which are typically non-violent, financially motivated crimes.
    Report a mistake
  23. 23.
    Which of the following statement is correct regarding death sentence in India ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Its constitutionality was upheld for the first time in Jagmohan Singh v. State of UP AIR (1973) 1 SCC 20
    The constitutionality of the death penalty was first upheld by the Supreme Court in Jagmohan Singh v. State of UP (1973).
    Report a mistake
  24. 24.
    Mark the correctly paired match :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Lombroso – Atavism
    Cesare Lombroso is associated with the theory of Atavism in criminology.
    Report a mistake
  25. 25.
    In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court supported the institution of open prisons ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Dharambir v. State of U.P . (1979) 3 SCC 645
    The Supreme Court in Dharambir v. State of U.P. emphasized the importance of open prisons for rehabilitation.
    Report a mistake
  26. 26.
    Consider the following statements about actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea : i. It is a latin maxim ii. It was cited as a principle of natural justice for the first time by Lord Kenyon in Fowler v. Pedget iii. It was cited as a principle of criminal law by Lord Goddard in Fowler v. Pedget iv. It has been derived from the maxim actus me invito factus non est mens actus Choose the correct statement.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    i and ii
    The maxim is a fundamental principle of criminal law, and its historical citation in Fowler v. Pedget is recognized.
    Report a mistake
  27. 27.
    Consider the following pairs consisting of words depicting mens rea under the Indian Penal Code 1860 and the respective provision : i. Voluntarily – S 40 ii. Dishonestly – S 24 iii. Fraudulently – S 26 iv. Wantonly – S 153 Choose the correctly matched pair.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    ii and iv
    Dishonestly is defined in Section 24, and Wantonly is associated with Section 153 of the IPC.
    Report a mistake
  28. 28.
    Which of the following statement is true regarding the offence of criminal conspiracy ? i. Criminal Conspiracy under Chapter V-A was added by the Criminal Law (Amendment Act) 1915 ii. The definition of criminal conspiracy has been taken from Willes J. observation in Mulcahy v. R (1868) 3 H. L 306 iii. Mere conspiracy without any overt act is punishable under S 120B, IPC iv. Mere conspiracy without any overt act is punishable under S 107, IPC
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    ii and iii
    The definition of criminal conspiracy in the IPC is derived from the observation in Mulcahy v. R, and Section 120B makes the agreement itself punishable.
    Report a mistake
  29. 29.
    Which of the following is correct ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    S 149, IPC creates a substantive offence while S 34 is merely a rule of evidence
    Section 34 is a rule of evidence (common intention), whereas Section 149 creates a specific substantive offence (common object).
    Report a mistake
  30. 30.
    "X" purchased a stamp paper in the name of a person whose name he intended to forge. "X" is guilty of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    None of the above
    Purchasing a stamp paper is a preparatory act and does not constitute the offence of forgery or attempt to forgery under the IPC.
    Report a mistake
  31. 31.
    Anu is lawfully married to Raghu. She is unknown to the fact that Raghu has died in an accident. Mistakenly, believing Raghu to be alive, Anu still goes through a marriage ceremony with Vinay as she was deeply in love with him. Anu is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Liable for attempting bigamy as the mistake of fact is not applicable
    Bigamy is a strict liability offence in certain contexts, and the mistake of fact regarding the spouse's death does not negate the intent to enter a second marriage while the first is legally subsisting.
    Report a mistake
  32. 32.
    'A' and 'B' administered themselves LSD. On account of hallucinations, A imagined himself being attacked by snakes and as a result ended up killing B. Which of the following case contains the above facts ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    R v. Lipman
    R v. Lipman is the landmark case involving self-induced intoxication through LSD leading to a killing during a hallucination.
    Report a mistake
  33. 33.
    The principle of "duress per minas" is contained in which provision of the Indian Penal Code 1860 ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Section 94
    Section 94 of the IPC provides the defense of compulsion (duress per minas) for acts done under threat of instant death.
    Report a mistake
  34. 34.
    In which of the following cases, the court accepted premenstrual syndrome as a valid defense under Section 84 of the Indian Penal Code ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Kumari Chandra v. State of Rajasthan 2018 (3) RLW 2382 (Raj)
    Kumari Chandra v. State of Rajasthan is the cited case where PMS was considered in the context of Section 84.
    Report a mistake
  35. 35.
    Soni with an intent to murder Parul, instigates her 6 year old servant Rani to do an act which will cause death of Parul. Rani does the act, but in the absence of Soni. The act of Rani resulted in the death of Parul.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Soni is liable
    Under the doctrine of agency in criminal law, Soni is liable for the act committed by an innocent agent (the 6-year-old child).
    Report a mistake
  36. 36.
    Which of the following statement is true regarding 'Durham rule' ? i. It is in line with legal insanity. ii. It is in line with medical insanity. iii. An accused is not criminally responsible if his unlawful act was the product of mental disease or defect. iv. It is in consonance with and an extension of McNaughten rules.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    ii and iii
    The Durham rule focuses on whether the act was a product of mental disease or defect, aligning with medical insanity concepts.
    Report a mistake
  37. 37.
    The 'Lubeck-Apple' proof method if made applicable in India, then it will be in relation to which provision of the Indian Penal Code 1860 ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Section 83
    Section 83 deals with the capacity of a child of immature understanding, which relates to the assessment of maturity in the Lubeck-Apple context.
    Report a mistake
  38. 38.
    Who said "A drunkard who is voluntariotes dareman, has no privilege thereby, but what hurt or ill so ever he doth, his drunkenness does aggravate it" ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Edward Coke
    This famous quote regarding voluntary drunkenness is attributed to Sir Edward Coke.
    Report a mistake
  39. 39.
    In case of a free fight between the two parties
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    No right of private defence is available to either party
    In a free fight, both parties are considered aggressors, and therefore, the right of private defence is not available to either side.
    Report a mistake
  40. 40.
    Act of a judge acting judicially is protected from criminal proceedings under : i. S 77, Indian Penal Code, 1860 ii. S 78, Indian Penal Code, 1860 iii. S 3, Judges Protection Act, 1985 iv. S 1, Judicial Officers Protection Act, 1850 Choose the correct answer.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    i and iii
    Judicial acts are protected under Section 77 of the IPC and the Judges Protection Act, 1985.
    Report a mistake
  41. 41.
    As from the commencement of this Code, which of the following Presidency-towns or city shall be deemed to be declared under sub-section (1) of Section 8 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to be a metropolitan area ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    1 and 2 both
    Under the CrPC, certain major cities were deemed metropolitan areas upon the commencement of the Code.
    Report a mistake
  42. 42.
    Which of the following is empowered to establish Courts of Judicial Magistrates of the first class and of the second class in every district ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    The State Government, after consultation with the High Court, by notification
    Section 11 of the CrPC empowers the State Government, after consultation with the High Court, to establish such courts by notification.
    Report a mistake
  43. 43.
    Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the Section 24 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    For every High Court the Central Government, after consultation with the High Court, appoints a Public Prosecutor and may also appoint one or more Additional Public Prosecutors.
    Section 24(1) of the CrPC mandates the Central Government to appoint a Public Prosecutor for the High Court after consultation with the High Court.
    Report a mistake
  44. 44.
    Who can appoint a Judge of a Session Court ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    High Court
    Under Section 9 of the CrPC, the High Court establishes a Court of Session for every sessions division and appoints a judge to it.
    Report a mistake
  45. 45.
    Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Section 360 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Section 360 of the CrPC deals with the release of offenders on probation of good conduct or after admonition.
    Report a mistake
  46. 46.
    Any person accused of an offence before a Criminal Court shall be a competent witness for the defence and may give evidence on oath
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    He can be called as a witness only on his own request in writing
    Under Section 315 of the CrPC, an accused is a competent witness for the defence only upon his own request in writing.
    Report a mistake
  47. 47.
    Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the provisions as to Bail and Bonds under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    A person who is indigent and is unable to furnish surety, instead of taking bail from such person, shall be discharged by officer in charge of police station or Court on his executing a bond without sureties.
    Section 436A and related provisions address the release of indigent persons on personal bonds.
    Report a mistake
  48. 48.
    Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the Examination of Complainant under the Code of the Criminal Procedure, 1973 ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Section 200 of the CrPC provides for the examination of the complainant and the exceptions thereto.
    Report a mistake
  49. 49.
    A Court of Sessions may take cognizance of an offence, without the case being committed to it, under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 when the offence is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Defamation of high dignitaries
    Section 199(2) of the CrPC allows a Court of Session to take cognizance of defamation of high dignitaries without committal.
    Report a mistake
  50. 50.
    "Alternative jurisdiction" of the Criminal Courts means that an offence may be inquired into or tried by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Any one of the courts having Jurisdiction
    Alternative jurisdiction refers to the situation where multiple courts have the authority to try the same offence.
    Report a mistake
  51. 51.
    Which of the following section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 provides 'Duty of the High Court to exercise continuous superintendence over Courts of Judicial Magistrates' ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Section 483 of the Code
    Section 483 of the CrPC mandates the High Court to exercise continuous superintendence over the courts of Judicial Magistrates.
    Report a mistake
  52. 52.
    Addition or alteration of charge by the Court has been provided under
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Section 216 of Cr.P .C.
    Section 216 of the CrPC empowers the court to alter or add to any charge at any time before judgment is pronounced.
    Report a mistake
  53. 53.
    Which one of the following is the first step in trial of summons case by Magistrate ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Substance of accusation to be stated
    Under Section 251 of the CrPC, the first step in a summons case trial is stating the substance of the accusation to the accused.
    Report a mistake
  54. 54.
    Any person, aggrieved by a refusal on the part of an officer in charge of police station to record the information referred to in sub-section (1) of Section 154 may send the substance of such information
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    In writing and by post, to the Superintendent of Police Officer, if satisfied that such information discloses the commission of a cognizable offence, shall either investigate the case himself or direct an investigation to be made by a subordinate police officer.
    Under Section 154(3) Cr.P.C., such information can be sent in writing and by post to the Superintendent of Police.
    Report a mistake
  55. 55.
    According to Section 225 of the Code of Criminal Procedure who is empowered to conduct prosecution before a court of session ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    A Public Prosecutor
    Section 225 Cr.P.C. mandates that in every trial before a Court of Session, the prosecution shall be conducted by a Public Prosecutor.
    Report a mistake
  56. 56.
    Under Clause 2 of the Section 242 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, which of the following statements is/are correct ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    On the application of the prosecution, the magistrate may issue a summons to any of its witnesses directing him to attend or to produce any document of the other thing.
    Under Section 242(2) Cr.P.C., the Magistrate may, on the application of the prosecution, issue a summons to any witness directing him to attend or to produce any document or other thing.
    Report a mistake
  57. 57.
    Under which of the following situations a summary trial cannot be conducted under Section 260 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Offence not punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding 2 years
    Question Cancelled in final answer key.
    Report a mistake
  58. 58.
    Who can withdraw a case from prosecution under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    The Public Prosecutor in charge of a case with the permission of the court
    Section 321 Cr.P.C. allows the Public Prosecutor or Assistant Public Prosecutor in charge of a case to withdraw from the prosecution with the consent of the court.
    Report a mistake
  59. 59.
    Any offence of kidnapping or abduction of a person may be inquired into and tied
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Either of the above two places
    According to Section 181(3) Cr.P.C., the offense of kidnapping or abduction may be inquired into or tried by a court within whose local jurisdiction the person was kidnapped, abducted, conveyed, concealed, or detained.
    Report a mistake
  60. 60.
    When the Sessions Judge or the High Court calls for to examine the record of any proceeding before any inferior criminal court, it is known as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Revision
    Section 397 Cr.P.C. empowers the High Court or any Sessions Judge to call for and examine the record of any proceeding before any inferior criminal court for the purpose of satisfying itself as to the correctness, legality or propriety of any finding, sentence or order, known as Revision.
    Report a mistake
  61. 61.
    "Autre Fois Acquit" principle is related to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Double Jeopardy tried and conviction
    Autrefois acquit means a plea by an accused person that they have been previously acquitted of the same offense, relating to the principle against double jeopardy.
    Report a mistake
  62. 62.
    The Judgement in every trial shall be
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Section 353 Cr.P.C. details the provisions relating to the pronouncement of judgment, including delivery in open court and making copies available.
    Report a mistake
  63. 63.
    Which is the correct language of Article 20(2) of the Constitution ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once
    Article 20(2) states that no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
    Report a mistake
  64. 64.
    The doctrine against self-incrimination under Article 20(3) runs to state that "no person accused of an offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself." With respect to the above, response the following
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Protection is against the statement made under compulsion
    Article 20(3) protects an accused person from being compelled to give incriminating evidence against themselves.
    Report a mistake
  65. 65.
    Narcoanalysis, polygraph test and brain electrical activation profile test conducted against will of the person subjected to such tests, violates his right protected under Article 20(3), and right to personal liberty protected under Article 21 of the Constitution of India, was held by the Supreme Court in which fo the following cases ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Selvi and Others v. State of Karnataka, (2010) 7 SCC 263
    In Selvi v. State of Karnataka, the Supreme Court held that involuntary administration of narco-analysis, polygraph tests, and BEAP tests violates Articles 20(3) and 21.
    Report a mistake
  66. 66.
    Under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution an accused person has been guaranteed the right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Article 22(1)
    Article 22(1) of the Constitution of India guarantees that no person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such arrest.
    Report a mistake
  67. 67.
    In which of the following cases the Supreme Court called Article 22 of the Constitution as "Ugly provision of the Constitution" ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    A. K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
    In A. K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (1950), the Supreme Court referred to the provisions of Article 22 regarding preventive detention as an 'ugly provision'.
    Report a mistake
  68. 68.
    Under Article 22(4) of the Constitution of India, with the exception of certain provisions stated therein, what is the maximum period for detention of a person under preventive detention ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    3 months
    Article 22(4) stipulates that no law providing for preventive detention shall authorize the detention of a person for a longer period than three months unless an Advisory Board has reported that there is sufficient cause for such detention.
    Report a mistake
  69. 69.
    Every person who is arrested or detained is required to be produced before the nearest Magistrate within a period of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    24 Hours
    Article 22(2) of the Constitution requires every person who is arrested and detained in custody to be produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of twenty-four hours.
    Report a mistake
  70. 70.
    Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Protections available to an accused person : Includes protection against ex-post facto laws in civil matters
    Article 20(1) provides protection against ex-post facto laws only in criminal matters, not civil matters.
    Report a mistake
  71. 71.
    'X' intentionally and falsely leads 'Y' to believe that certain land belongs to 'X', and thereby induces 'Y' to buy and pay for it. The land afterwards becomes the property of 'X', and 'X' seeks to set aside the sale on the ground that, at the time of the sale, 'X' had no title. Applying Section 115, Indian Evidence Act
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    He must not be allowed to prove his want of title
    Section 115 of the Indian Evidence Act deals with Estoppel, which prevents a person from denying the truth of a statement they previously made.
    Report a mistake
  72. 72.
    Relevancy of facts forming part of same transaction is dealt under which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Section 6
    Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, covers the doctrine of res gestae, which relates to facts forming part of the same transaction.
    Report a mistake
  73. 73.
    The principle on which a dying declaration is admitted in evidence is indicated in legal maxim
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Nemo moriturus proesumitur mentiri
    The maxim 'Nemo moriturus proesumitur mentiri' means 'a man will not meet his maker with a lie in his mouth'.
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  74. 74.
    A is accused of a crime committed by him at Bangaluru. He produces a letter written by himself and dated at Chennai on that day, and bearing the Lahore post-mark of that day. Applying Section 21, Indian Evidence Act, which of the following is possible ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    The statement in the date of the letter is admissible, because, if A were dead, it would be admissible under Section 32, clauses (2)
    Section 32(2) of the Indian Evidence Act makes statements relevant when made in the ordinary course of business.
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  75. 75.
    Under Indian Law, a person is presumed to be dead if he is not traceable for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    7 years
    Section 108 of the Indian Evidence Act provides that if a person has not been heard of for seven years by those who would naturally have heard of him if he had been alive, the burden of proving that he is alive is shifted to the person who affirms it.
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  76. 76.
    Burden of introducing evidence under section 102 of the Evidence Act, 1872
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Constantly shifts
    Under Section 102, the burden of proof (burden of introducing evidence) shifts as the trial progresses depending on the evidence produced by the parties.
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  77. 77.
    'X' sues 'Y' for land of which B is in possession, and which, as 'X' asserts, was left to 'X' by the will of 'Z', Y's father. If no evidence were given on either side
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    'Y' would be entitled to retain his possession
    According to Section 102, the burden of proof lies on the person who would fail if no evidence were given on either side. Since Y is in possession, X must prove his title.
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  78. 78.
    Communication made without prejudice is protected under
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Under S. 23 of Indian Evidence Act
    Section 23 of the Indian Evidence Act provides that in civil cases, no admission is relevant if it is made upon an express condition that evidence of it is not to be given, or under circumstances from which the Court can infer that the parties agreed together that evidence of it should not be given.
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  79. 79.
    Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, permits the use of discovery evidence, which lays down strictly as to how much of the information contained in the statement of the accused is made admissible. Which one of the following information is relevant under this Section ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Information given by the accused, as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered
    Section 27 is an exception to Sections 25 and 26, allowing the admission of information received from an accused in police custody, provided it relates distinctly to the fact discovered.
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  80. 80.
    Accused wants to submit a document for consideration under Section 35 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. In which of the following cases will the document become irrelevant ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    It is not an entry made in public or other official book, register or record
    Section 35 deals with the relevancy of entries in public records made by a public servant in the discharge of his official duty.
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  81. 81.
    Which of the following statements is/are correct about amendments ? i. There are three ways in which the Constitution can be amended. ii. An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and in the state legislatures. iii. A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 268. iv. If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of the House present and voting.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Only i and iv
    The Constitution of India can be amended in three ways, and federal provisions require ratification by half of the state legislatures.
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  82. 82.
    Which of the following statements is/are correct about Fundamental Duties ? i. Ten duties were enumerated. However, the Constitution mentions about enforcing these duties. ii. The inclusion of fundamental duties has not changed the status of our fundamental rights. iii. Our Constitution make the enjoyment of rights dependent or conditional upon fulfillment of duties.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Only ii
    Fundamental duties were added to the Constitution, but they do not alter the status of fundamental rights.
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  83. 83.
    Which of the following statements is/are correct about Policies of Directive Principles ? i. Equal pay for equal work ii. Promotion of village panchayats iii. Free legal aid iv. Promotion of international peace
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All are correct
    All listed items are recognized as Directive Principles of State Policy under the Indian Constitution.
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  84. 84.
    Which of the following statements is/are correct about Accamma Cherian ? i. She was popularly known as the Jhansi Rani of Travancore ii. Also known as Joan of Arc of India iii. She was the Founder of Desa Sevika Sangh iv. Jeevitam Oru Pendulam' is the autobiography of - Accamma Cheriyan
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Only i and iii
    Accamma Cherian is known as the Jhansi Rani of Travancore and founded the Desa Sevika Sangh.
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  85. 85.
    Which of the following statements is/are correct about Chattampi Swamikal ? i. He was born on 25 August 1888 ii. The famous works of Chattampi Swamikal are Vedadikara Nirupanam, Pracheena Malayalam iii. On August 5, 1925, at Panmana in Kollam district, he took Mahasamadhi iv. He was deputed as the 'Chattampi' (monitor) of the class when studying at the 'Patasala' of Pettayil Raman Pillai Asan.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Only ii and iv
    Chattampi Swamikal authored Vedadikara Nirupanam and Pracheena Malayalam and was known as the class monitor (Chattampi).
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  86. 86.
    Consider the following leaders and their founding institutions which of the following pairs is/are correct ? i. Vaikunda Swamikal – Saiva Prakasha Sabha ii. Sree Narayana Guru – SNDP iii. Agamananda Swami – Suguna Vardhini Movement iv. Dr. Palpu – Travancore Ezhava Sabha
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Only ii and iv
    Sree Narayana Guru founded the SNDP and Dr. Palpu was instrumental in the Travancore Ezhava Sabha.
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  87. 87.
    Here are some of the guiding values of the Constitution and their meaning. Match them correctly. a. Sovereign i. Government will not favour any religion b. Republic ii. People have the supreme right to make decisions c. Fraternity iii. Head of the state is an elected person d. Secular iv. People should live like brothers and sisters
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    a – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d – i
    Sovereign means supreme decision-making power, Republic means elected head, Fraternity means brotherhood, and Secular means no state religion.
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  88. 88.
    Which of the following statements is/are incorrect about MALAYALI MEMORIAL ? i. First Organized Political Movement of Travancore for social justice. ii. Submitted to – Karthika Thirunal Rama Varma iii. Malayali Memorial was written and Drafted by : C. V. Raman Pillai
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Only ii
    The Malayali Memorial was submitted to the Maharaja of Travancore, Moolam Thirunal Rama Varma, not Karthika Thirunal.
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  89. 89.
    Consider the following. Which of the following is/are incorrect about National Food Security Act ? i. Act converts into legal entitlements for existing food security programmes of the government of India. ii. Under this act, 50% of the rural population and 75% of the urban population have been categorised as eligible households for food security. iii. The National Food Security Act 2013, also known as Right to Food Act.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Only ii
    The Act covers 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population, making statement ii incorrect.
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  90. 90.
    Here are the authors and their famous literary works given below. Find the correct pair/pairs ? a. G. Sankara Kurup i. Sabdikkunna Kalappa b. Ponkunnam Varkey ii. Abrayakutty c. Ulloor S. Parameswara Iyer iii. Odakkuzhal d. Kandathil Varghese Mappillai iv. Karna Bhooshanam
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    a – iii, b – i, c – iv, d – ii
    G. Sankara Kurup wrote Odakkuzhal, Ponkunnam Varkey wrote Sabdikkunna Kalappa, Ulloor wrote Karna Bhooshanam, and Kandathil Varghese Mappillai wrote Abrayakutty.
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  91. 91.
    Replace the highlighted word with a suitable phrase : He was reprimanded by his employer for his persistent tardiness.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Taken to task
    To be 'taken to task' means to be reprimanded or scolded.
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  92. 92.
    Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option : You'd rather be spending time with them, ____________ ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Wouldn't you ?
    The contraction 'You'd' stands for 'You would', so the question tag should be 'wouldn't you'.
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  93. 93.
    Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate option : ____________ the scandal, the public called __________ her resignation.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    After, for
    The correct prepositions are 'After' the scandal and 'called for' her resignation.
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  94. 94.
    Choose the passive form of this statement : Your performance disappoints me.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    I am disappointed by your performance.
    The passive voice of 'Your performance disappoints me' is 'I am disappointed by your performance'.
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  95. 95.
    Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option : By 2025, we ___________ in this house for twenty years.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Will have been living
    Future perfect continuous tense is used with 'By [future time]' and 'for [duration]'.
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  96. 96.
    Choose the reported form of this sentence : "Do you think you're better than us ?" she asked him.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    She asked him whether he thought he was better than them.
    Direct question in present tense shifts to past tense and appropriate pronouns in reported speech.
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  97. 97.
    Choose the word similar in meaning to the highlighted word : He was reluctantly roped into abetting the group of miscreants.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Assisting
    Abetting means assisting or encouraging someone in committing a crime.
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  98. 98.
    Choose the word opposite in meaning to the highlighted word : She was saddened to hear them loudly denigrate their own institution.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Extol
    Denigrate means to criticize unfairly (disparage), and its antonym is 'extol' (praise enthusiastically).
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  99. 99.
    Choose the word which means "an unfortunate, unhappy or despicable person."
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Wretch
    A 'wretch' is an unfortunate or unhappy person.
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  100. 100.
    Choose a phrase to replace the highlighted words : Due to her experience in the field, she had been given free rein over the project.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Carte blanche
    'Carte blanche' means complete freedom to act as one wishes (free rein).
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