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Assistant Manager - Kerala Financial Corporation question paper 2019

KERALA FINANCIAL CORPORATION    Alpha Code : A  Date Of Upload : 21/08/2019

Date of test
25/07/2019
Question paper code
29/2019/OL
Category No.
282/16
Questions
100
Answer key
Provisional Answer Key
Exam mode
Online (computer based)

Provisional key. Kerala PSC can change answers after reviewing complaints; the final key decides the marks.

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Source: Kerala PSC (keralapsc.gov.in) · official document· Last updated 25 Sept 2026· How we check content

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As published by the Kerala Public Service Commission.

All 100 questions with answers

Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer. Answers follow the official Kerala PSC answer key.

  1. 1.
    Which of the following is the big Indian notation?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    The lower significant byte is in higher address
    In big-endian notation, the most significant byte is stored at the lowest memory address (or lower significant byte is in higher address).
    Report a mistake
  2. 2.
    What is the access type used in Read Only Memory?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Random access
    ROM uses random access memory architecture where any memory location can be accessed directly.
    Report a mistake
  3. 3.
    As the hit ratio of a cache system increases, the speed of the execution of the program
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    increases
    Higher hit ratio means more data is found in the fast cache rather than slow main memory, increasing execution speed.
    Report a mistake
  4. 4.
    The direct mapping of cache algorithm is not used due to the following
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Cache replacement becomes necessary even if cache is not full
    Direct mapping suffers from conflict misses where cache replacement is needed even when cache is not completely full.
    Report a mistake
  5. 5.
    An operation on variable mark and max in C language is defined as ''if(max==mark)'' which logic gate can be used for this operation internally?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    XNOR gate
    Equality check (equivalence) of bits can be implemented using XNOR gates.
    Report a mistake
  6. 6.
    A 4 bit count sequences is like the following 0011, 1001, 1100, 0110 and its repeats, identify the counter
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Ring counter
    The given sequence corresponds to a ring counter pattern.
    Report a mistake
  7. 7.
    The binary code that is used in Karnaugh maps for simplification is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Gray code
    Gray code is used in K-maps because only one bit changes between adjacent cells.
    Report a mistake
  8. 8.
    For a binary number, traverse from right to left, keep the bits as such till a bit 1, negate all other bits. What will we if we follow the algorithm?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    2's complement of the number
    This describes the standard algorithm for finding the 2's complement of a binary number.
    Report a mistake
  9. 9.
    The octal representation of the hexadecimal number 34 FC is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    32374
    Converting hex 34FC to binary 0011 0100 1111 1100 and grouping in threes gives octal 32374.
    Report a mistake
  10. 10.
    The universal property of NAND gates find great applications in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    IC manufacturing
    NAND gates are universal gates widely used in IC manufacturing because any boolean function can be constructed using only NAND gates.
    Report a mistake
  11. 11.
    Which of the following is not a browser?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Windows Explorer
    Windows Explorer is a file manager, whereas the others are web browsers.
    Report a mistake
  12. 12.
    The extend option available in display settings while connecting a projector to laptop indicates that
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    the laptop screen will show some portion of the entire display and the remaining on projector screen
    Extend mode treats the projector as an extension of the laptop display desktop space.
    Report a mistake
  13. 13.
    Which of the following is not an input device?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Console
    A console is a terminal/interface system, whereas scanner, barcode reader, and touch screen are input devices.
    Report a mistake
  14. 14.
    Which of the following is a valid screen resolution?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    All listed options are standard screen resolutions.
    Report a mistake
  15. 15.
    How many printing pins are available in dot matrix printer head?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    24 pins
    Standard high-quality dot matrix printers feature 24 printing pins (while basic ones have 9 pins, 24 is a prominent standard category option).
    Report a mistake
  16. 16.
    The official name of a network switch is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    MAC Bridge
    A network switch operates at the data link layer and is formally known as a MAC bridge.
    Report a mistake
  17. 17.
    CIDR stands for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Classless Inter-Domain Routing
    CIDR stands for Classless Inter-Domain Routing.
    Report a mistake
  18. 18.
    Email was first introduced by the person
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Ray Tomlinson
    Ray Tomlinson is credited with inventing the first network email program on ARPANET.
    Report a mistake
  19. 19.
    Fusing is a process used in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Laser Printing
    Fusing is the process in laser printers where toner is melted and bonded to the paper using heat and pressure.
    Report a mistake
  20. 20.
    The connector used for connecting a cable to the computer network switch is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    RJ 45
    RJ-45 is the standard connector used for Ethernet cables connected to network switches.
    Report a mistake
  21. 21.
    Who among the following persons is known as 'Modern Manu'?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Dr. Ambedkar
    Dr. B.R. Ambedkar is widely referred to as the 'Modern Manu' for his pioneering role in drafting the Indian Constitution and social reform.
    Report a mistake
  22. 22.
    Which article of the Indian Constitution gives the guarantee of equality of opportunity in matters of public employment?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Article 16
    Article 16 provides for equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
    Report a mistake
  23. 23.
    What is the retirement age of the Supreme Court Chief Justice?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    65 years
    The retirement age for Supreme Court judges in India is 65 years.
    Report a mistake
  24. 24.
    What is the retention period for reply to R.T.I. (Right to Information) application?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    30 days
    Under the RTI Act, the public authority is required to provide information within 30 days.
    Report a mistake
  25. 25.
    Name the first Indian state to enact the food security legislation even before the National Food security Bill of 2013
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Chattisgarh
    Chhattisgarh was the first state to implement food security legislation in 2012.
    Report a mistake
  26. 26.
    'The Rajyasamacharam', first malayalam news paper was published from
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Thalassery
    Rajyasamacharam was started by Hermann Gundert in 1847 from Thalassery.
    Report a mistake
  27. 27.
    Who is the founder of the 'Namboothiri Yuvajanasangham'?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    V.T. Bhattathiripad
    V.T. Bhattathiripad was a key figure in the social reform movement among Namboothiris.
    Report a mistake
  28. 28.
    Who is the founder of the journal 'Abhinava Keralam'?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Vagbhatananda
    Vagbhatananda founded the journal 'Abhinava Keralam'.
    Report a mistake
  29. 29.
    Who was the president of the Guruvayoor Satyagraha Committee?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Mannath Padmanabhan
    Mannath Padmanabhan served as the president of the Guruvayoor Satyagraha Committee.
    Report a mistake
  30. 30.
    Who among the following poets is the court poet of Udayavarma of Kolathunadu?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Cherusseri Namboothiripad
    Cherusseri Namboothiripad is famous for 'Krishnagatha', written under the patronage of Udayavarma.
    Report a mistake
  31. 31.
    Who called Akkamma Cheriyan as the 'Jhansi Rani of Kerala'?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Mahatma Gandhi
    Mahatma Gandhi gave Akkamma Cheriyan the title 'Jhansi Rani of Travancore'.
    Report a mistake
  32. 32.
    Who among the renaissance leaders consecrated mirror for first time in South India?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Sree Narayana Guru
    Sree Narayana Guru consecrated a mirror at Kalavancode temple with the inscription 'Om Shanti'.
    Report a mistake
  33. 33.
    Who called the British rule as 'White Devil Rule'?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Vaikunda Swamikal
    Vaikunda Swamikal referred to the British rule as 'Ven Neethi' or 'White Devil Rule'.
    Report a mistake
  34. 34.
    Who is the author of the book, 'Treatment of Thiyyas in Travancore?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Dr. Palpu
    Dr. Palpu wrote the book 'Treatment of Thiyyas in Travancore'.
    Report a mistake
  35. 35.
    Who is known as 'Kerala Lincoln'?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    K.P. Karuppan
    K.P. Karuppan is known as the 'Kerala Lincoln' for his social reform efforts.
    Report a mistake
  36. 36.
    Who is the first Jnanpith Award winner, the highest Indian Literary honour?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    G. Sankara Kurup
    G. Sankara Kurup was the first recipient of the Jnanpith Award in 1965.
    Report a mistake
  37. 37.
    Name the operation carried out for the liberation of Goa in 1961
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Operation Vijay
    Operation Vijay was the military action that led to the liberation of Goa.
    Report a mistake
  38. 38.
    The Palaruvi waterfall is in which district of Kerala?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Kollam
    Palaruvi waterfall is located in the Kollam district.
    Report a mistake
  39. 39.
    The NITI Aayog, replacing the National planning commission was formed in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    2015
    NITI Aayog was formed on January 1, 2015.
    Report a mistake
  40. 40.
    Which of the following nation conducted the 'Miss Camel' contest, world's largest camel beauty contest?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Saudi Arabia
    Saudi Arabia hosts the King Abdulaziz Camel Festival, which includes camel beauty contests.
    Report a mistake
  41. 41.
    Reserve Bank of India (RBI) nationalized in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    1948
    The Reserve Bank of India was nationalized on January 1, 1949 (established in 1935, nationalized in Jan 1949/1948 context under specific acts, option B is correct as per key).
    Report a mistake
  42. 42.
    Which of the following is not an objective of Discount and Finance House of India (DFHI)?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Engaged in stock broking activities
    DFHI deals in money market instruments, not stock broking activities.
    Report a mistake
  43. 43.
    The minimum denomination for a Certificate of Deposit is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Rs. 1,00,000
    The minimum amount of a certificate of deposit issued by a bank is Rs. 1 lakh.
    Report a mistake
  44. 44.
    What are Stalwarts?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Shares of companies with growth rate greater that the growth rate of GDP of the country
    Stalwarts are large, well-known companies whose growth rates exceed the GDP growth rate.
    Report a mistake
  45. 45.
    Which of the following is not a method of Selective Credit Control by Reserve Bank of India?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Open market Operation
    Open market operation is a quantitative (general) credit control method, not selective.
    Report a mistake
  46. 46.
    Expand MIGA
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
    MIGA stands for Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency, an arm of the World Bank Group.
    Report a mistake
  47. 47.
    Which of the following is not a Counter Trade in Foreign Trade Transactions?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Forfeiting
    Forfeiting is a financing technique involving the purchase of receivables, not a form of counter trade.
    Report a mistake
  48. 48.
    What are the three basic theories of International business?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    The theory of Comparative Advantage, The Imperfect Market Theory and Product Life Cycle Theory
    These three represent foundational theories in international business economics.
    Report a mistake
  49. 49.
    Which of the following is an exchange rate system?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    All listed systems are recognized types of exchange rate regimes.
    Report a mistake
  50. 50.
    Comparative Cost Advantage Theory was propounded by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    David Ricardo
    David Ricardo propounded the Theory of Comparative Cost Advantage.
    Report a mistake
  51. 51.
    Research studies with an objective to portray accurately the characteristics of a particular individual, situation or group is known as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Descriptive Research
    Descriptive research aims to accurately describe characteristics of a population or phenomenon.
    Report a mistake
  52. 52.
    Systematic Sampling is a method of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Probability Sampling
    Systematic sampling is a probability sampling method where elements are selected from a larger population according to a random starting point and a fixed, periodic interval.
    Report a mistake
  53. 53.
    The basic principles of Experimental Research Designs are enumerated by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    R.A. Fisher
    Sir Ronald A. Fisher laid down the fundamental principles of experimental design (replication, randomization, and local control).
    Report a mistake
  54. 54.
    Interval scales have the mathematical properties of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Order and Distance only
    Interval scales possess order and equal intervals (distance), but lack an absolute zero.
    Report a mistake
  55. 55.
    Observation Method is a method of collecting
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Primary Data
    Observation is a primary data collection method.
    Report a mistake
  56. 56.
    Pantry Audit is associated with
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    A Method of Data Collection
    Pantry audit is a method of data collection used to measure consumer consumption patterns.
    Report a mistake
  57. 57.
    Standard Error is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Standard Deviation
    Standard error is the standard deviation of a sampling distribution.
    Report a mistake
  58. 58.
    Which Committee is known as ''Committee on Banking Sector Reforms''?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Narashimham Committee II
    Narasimham Committee II (1998) is referred to as the Committee on Banking Sector Reforms.
    Report a mistake
  59. 59.
    The provision requirement for Non performing Assets that are classified as Loss Assets is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    100%
    Loss assets require a 100% provision.
    Report a mistake
  60. 60.
    Parallel Loan is a technique used for hedging
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Transaction Exposure
    Parallel loans are used to hedge against transaction or translation foreign exchange risks.
    Report a mistake
  61. 61.
    A distribution having a relatively high peak is called
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Leptokurtic
    A leptokurtic distribution has a higher peak than a normal distribution.
    Report a mistake
  62. 62.
    In India, the National Income estimation is the responsibility of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Central Statistical Organisation
    The Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) computes national income estimates in India.
    Report a mistake
  63. 63.
    Power of a hypothesis test is the probability of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Not committing a type II error
    Power is 1−β1 - \beta, which is the probability of correctly rejecting a false null hypothesis (not committing a Type II error).
    Report a mistake
  64. 64.
    The N.K. Singh Committee (FRBM Review Committee) on fiscal discipline recommended the central government to reduce its fiscal deficit to ________ by 2023.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    2.5%
    The FRBM Review Committee recommended a fiscal deficit target of 2.5% of GDP by 2023.
    Report a mistake
  65. 65.
    Which among the following is NOT a correct interpretation of the p-value?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    A large p-value indicates strong evidence against the null hypothesis
    A large p-value indicates weak evidence against the null hypothesis, not strong evidence.
    Report a mistake
  66. 66.
    Personal income includes
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Transfer payments
    Transfer payments are included in personal income as they represent income received without providing current goods or services.
    Report a mistake
  67. 67.
    In a moderately symmetrical distribution, quartile deviation equals
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    0.6745 standard deviation
    In a normal or moderately symmetrical distribution, quartile deviation is approximately 0.6745 times the standard deviation.
    Report a mistake
  68. 68.
    "NNPFC""NNP_{FC}" equals
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    "GDP_{MP}" - Consumption of fixed capital - net indirect taxes + net factor income from abroad
    NNPFC=GDPMP−Depreciation−NIT+NFIANNP_{FC} = GDP_{MP} - \text{Depreciation} - \text{NIT} + \text{NFIA}.
    Report a mistake
  69. 69.
    Match the following :\ni. Chelliah Committee a. Introduction of value added tax (VAT) in India\nii. Vijay Kelkar Committee b. Introduction of GST\niii. LK Jha committee c. Reducing the cost of imported inputs\niv. Constitution (115th Amendment) Bill d. Empower CBDT with appropriate administrative and financial powers
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
    Matching committee recommendations and tax reforms correctly.
    Report a mistake
  70. 70.
    Which among the following is NOT a property of statistical variance?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    The variance is independent of the change of scale
    Variance is NOT independent of change of scale (it changes by the square of the scale factor).
    Report a mistake
  71. 71.
    Net economic welfare is derived from the real GNP by deducting the following components except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Value of non-market activities
    Value of non-market activities is added, not deducted, when calculating Net Economic Welfare.
    Report a mistake
  72. 72.
    Choose the correct statement/s about normal distribution
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All the above
    All statements correctly describe the normal distribution.
    Report a mistake
  73. 73.
    Arrange the following sectors in the correct descending order of their contribution to Gross value Added of India during 2016-17 at constant prices :\ni. Construction\nii. Manufacturing\niii. Agriculture, Forestry and Fishing\niv. Trade, hotel, Communication and services related to broadcasting
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    iv-ii-iii-i
    Services (iv) is the largest, followed by Manufacturing (ii), Agriculture (iii), and Construction (i).
    Report a mistake
  74. 74.
    The value of national output with a constant price level and adjusting the inflation rate is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Real GDP
    Real GDP measures national output adjusted for price changes (inflation).
    Report a mistake
  75. 75.
    Identify the correct statement related to Goods and Services Tax Bill
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Surcharge on supply of goods, cesses, special ad-on duty of customs, add-on duties of customs and excise and central excise duty would be replaced by Central Taxes GST
    Central indirect taxes like excise duty and central cesses are subsumed into Central GST.
    Report a mistake
  76. 76.
    Net factor income earned from abroad includes the following component/s
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All the above
    All components are part of Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA).
    Report a mistake
  77. 77.
    The statistical test used to determine whether two population means are different when the variances are known and the sample size is large is called
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    One tailed test
    Note: While z-test is standard for known variance and large sample, the answer key indicates C (One tailed test) as per official grading.
    Report a mistake
  78. 78.
    Consider the following statements related to incidence of a tax\nStatement I : The incidence of a unit tax on the buyers will be less than the amount of the tax when the commodity is being produced under increasing cost conditions.\nStatement II : The incidence of tax on the buyers will be greater than the tax when the commodity is being produced under decreasing cost conditions.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Statement I and II are correct
    Both statements regarding tax incidence under varying cost conditions are economically valid.
    Report a mistake
  79. 79.
    Identify the wrong criteria for the distribution of plan assistance according to Gadgil formula
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Tax efforts - 7%
    Tax effort weight under the original Gadgil formula was different, making option B the incorrect criteria statement.
    Report a mistake
  80. 80.
    In the simple linear regression model y=α+βx+εy = \alpha + \beta x + \varepsilon , the structural parameter is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    β\beta
    β\beta represents the structural slope parameter in the regression equation.
    Report a mistake
  81. 81.
    If fixed cost is Rs. 6,000, selling price is Rs. 5 per unit and variable cost is Rs. 2 per unit, the break-even point shall be ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    2000 units
    Contribution per unit = 5−2=35 - 2 = 3. BEP = 60003=2000\frac{6000}{3} = 2000 units.
    Report a mistake
  82. 82.
    _____________ is the amount at any given volume of output by which aggregate costs are changed if the volume of output is increased or decreased by one unit.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Marginal cost
    Marginal cost is the cost of producing one additional unit of output.
    Report a mistake
  83. 83.
    Angle of incidence is __________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Angle between total sales line and total cost line
    Angle of incidence in CVP analysis is the angle formed between the total sales line and total cost line at the break-even point.
    Report a mistake
  84. 84.
    Which of the following is not true?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Fixed Cost = Contribution + Profit
    Fixed Cost equals Contribution minus Profit, not Contribution plus Profit.
    Report a mistake
  85. 85.
    If profit is Rs. 8,000, selling price per unit is Rs. 10 and variable cost per unit is RS. 6, margin of safety shall be ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Rs. 20,000
    PV ratio = 10−610=40%\frac{10 - 6}{10} = 40\%. Margin of Safety = ProfitPV ratio=80000.4=Rs. 20,000\frac{\text{Profit}}{\text{PV ratio}} = \frac{8000}{0.4} = \text{Rs. } 20,000.
    Report a mistake
  86. 86.
    If sales revenue is Rs. 1,00,000, profit is Rs. 20,000 and PV ratio is 40%, the BEP shall be ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    RS. 50,000
    Contribution = 100000×0.4=40000100000 \times 0.4 = 40000. Fixed Cost = Contribution - Profit = 40000−20000=2000040000 - 20000 = 20000. BEP = 200000.4=Rs. 50,000\frac{20000}{0.4} = \text{Rs. } 50,000.
    Report a mistake
  87. 87.
    _______ is concerned with probable events likely to happen under anticipated conditions during a specified period of time.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Forecast
    Forecasting predicts probable future events based on anticipated conditions.
    Report a mistake
  88. 88.
    Flexible budget is ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of these
    A flexible budget is dynamic, variable, and acts as a sliding scale for different levels of activity.
    Report a mistake
  89. 89.
    The budget that summarises and integrates all the individual budgets within an organisation, is called as ______.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of these
    Master budget encompasses and summarizes all functional budgets.
    Report a mistake
  90. 90.
    Static budget is also called as _________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Fixed budget
    A static budget remains unaltered regardless of activity level and is also known as a fixed budget.
    Report a mistake
  91. 91.
    Who is the father zero-based budgeting?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Peter Pyhrr
    Peter Pyhrr developed and is credited as the father of zero-based budgeting.
    Report a mistake
  92. 92.
    _________ is the practice of preparing the budget based on evaluation of productivity of different operations in an organisation.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Performance budgeting
    Performance budgeting relates output/productivity to resource allocation.
    Report a mistake
  93. 93.
    If interest rate offered on an investment is 10% per annum and interest is payable half yearly, the effective rate of interest will be ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    10.25% per annum
    Effective interest rate = (1+0.102)2−1=(1.05)2−1=1.1025−1=10.25%(1 + \frac{0.10}{2})^2 - 1 = (1.05)^2 - 1 = 1.1025 - 1 = 10.25\%.
    Report a mistake
  94. 94.
    The proposals which compete each other are called as _________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Mutually exclusive proposals
    Mutually exclusive proposals compete with each other such that accepting one rules out the other.
    Report a mistake
  95. 95.
    __________ is the factor in the activities of an undertaking which at a particular point in time or over a period will limit the volume of output.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of these
    A key, limiting, or governing factor restricts the maximum volume of production.
    Report a mistake
  96. 96.
    _________ refers to a situation where a firm is not in a position to invest in all profitable projects due to the constraints on availability of funds.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Capital rationing
    Capital rationing occurs when limits are placed on the total amount of capital to be invested.
    Report a mistake
  97. 97.
    __________ is the ratio establishes relationship between present value of cash inflows and present value of cash outflows.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Profitability Index
    Profitability Index = Present value of cash inflows / Present value of cash outflows.
    Report a mistake
  98. 98.
    The length of time required to recover the initial investment is called as __________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of these
    Payback period or pay-off period refers to the time required to recover initial investment.
    Report a mistake
  99. 99.
    Benefit cost ratio is called as ________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Desirability factor
    Benefit-cost ratio (BCR) is also known as the desirability factor.
    Report a mistake
  100. 100.
    Return in ARR method refers to _________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Earnings after depreciation and after tax
    Accounting Rate of Return (ARR) uses net earnings (after depreciation and tax) in its numerator.
    Report a mistake

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How Kerala PSC marks objective papers

  • 1 mark for each right answer.
  • 1/3 mark is taken off for each wrong answer.
  • Questions you leave blank don’t lose marks.
  • Marks are counted with the final answer key, published after complaints on the provisional key.

Found a wrong answer or a typo on this page? Report it and we’ll check it against the official key.

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Not affiliated with the Kerala Public Service Commission. Questions and answers are copied from the official PDFs; always check the PDF.