Which of the following pair is correct about solubilizers and the bond they disrupt?

B) Urea - hydrogen bond, SDS - hydrophobic interaction, β - mercaptoethanol - disulpide bridges

Give the right sequence of RT-PCR (i) Taq polymerase extends target sequences (ii) Extract poly(A)+RNA (iii) Oligo primers bind to target sequences (iv) Extend with reverse transcriptase to form cDNA (v) ds cDNA denaturated by heating to >94°C (vi) Anneal Poly(dT) primer

A) (ii), (vi), (iv), (v), (iii), (i)

Select the correct pair of luminescence system and measured moiety.

C) Firefly luminescence-ATP, bacterial luminescence-NADH, Chemiluminescence- $H_2O_2$

Choose the right facts in Connection to PAGE

B) Stacking gel has 2-3% acylamide and pH 6.7, Running gel has 5-10% acrylamide and pH 8.3

Select the group consisting of compounds belonging to alkaloid class

A) Quinine, papaverine, nicotine, cocaine

Choose the set of secondary metabolites.

C) Malaxin, quercetin, Napthoquinones

Which of the following statement is correct?

B) In Competitive inhibition Vmax is unchanged, Km increases

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100 questions with answersProvisional keyKerala PSC Exam

Research Officer- Chemistry/ Biochemistry - Ayurveda Medical Education Drugs Standardisation Unit question paper 2023

Ayurveda Medical Education Drugs Standardisation Unit

Date of test: 28-04-2023
Question paper code: 27/2023/OL
Category No.: 130/2020
Questions: 100
Answer key: Provisional Answer Key
Exam mode: Online (computer based)

Provisional key. Kerala PSC can change answers after reviewing complaints; the final key decides the marks.

See questions with answers Practise as a mock test

Source: Kerala PSC (keralapsc.gov.in) · official document· Last updated 25 Sept 2026· How we check content

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All 100 questions with answers

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1.
Which of the following pair is correct about solubilizers and the bond they disrupt?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B —
Urea - hydrogen bond, SDS - hydrophobic interaction, β - mercaptoethanol - disulpide bridges
Urea disrupts hydrogen bonds, SDS disrupts hydrophobic interactions, and β-mercaptoethanol reduces/disrupts disulfide bridges in proteins.
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2.
Which among the following substituents enhance fluorescence of a compound? (i) -OH (ii) $-NO_2$ (iv) -COOH
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A —
(i) and (iii)
Electron-donating groups like -OH enhance fluorescence, whereas electron-withdrawing groups like $-NO_2$ and -COOH generally quench fluorescence.
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3.
Nuclei that do not have possess spin property includes (i) $^{12}C$ (ii) $^{13}C$ (iii) $^{16}O$ (iv) $^{31}P$
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C —
(i) and (iv)
Nuclei with even mass number and even atomic number (like $^{12}C$ and $^{16}O$ ) have zero nuclear spin.
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4.
Give the right sequence of RT-PCR (i) Taq polymerase extends target sequences (ii) Extract poly(A)+RNA (iii) Oligo primers bind to target sequences (iv) Extend with reverse transcriptase to form cDNA (v) ds cDNA denaturated by heating to >94°C (vi) Anneal Poly(dT) primer
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A —
(ii), (vi), (iv), (v), (iii), (i)
The correct sequence for RT-PCR starts with mRNA extraction, annealing poly(dT) primer, synthesis of cDNA using reverse transcriptase, denaturation of ds cDNA, primer binding, and extension by Taq polymerase.
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5.
Which of the following is true for achromat objective lenses in a microscope? (i) They are cheapest objective lens (ii) They are corrected for spherical aberrations with green light (iii) They are best used when the light source utilizes a green filter and images are collected in grayscale (iv) They are spherically corrected for three wavelengths
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D —
(i), (ii), (iii)
Achromat lenses are the simplest/cheapest, corrected for chromatic aberration for two wavelengths and spherical aberration for green light, making them optimal with green filters.
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6.
Select the correct pair of luminescence system and measured moiety.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C —
Firefly luminescence-ATP, bacterial luminescence-NADH, Chemiluminescence- $H_2O_2$
Firefly luciferase assay measures ATP, bacterial luminescence measures $FMNH_2$ /NADH dependent systems, and many chemiluminescence assays measure hydrogen peroxide or related species.
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7.
Choose the right facts in Connection to PAGE
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B —
Stacking gel has 2-3% acylamide and pH 6.7, Running gel has 5-10% acrylamide and pH 8.3
In discontinuous PAGE, the stacking gel has a lower acrylamide concentration (2-3%) and lower pH (6.7), while the running/resolving gel has a higher concentration (5-10% or more) and higher pH (8.3).
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8.
Match the following:
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Answer: A —
i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
Matched correctly as per standard protocol in the answer key.
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9.
Select the group consisting of compounds belonging to alkaloid class
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A —
Quinine, papaverine, nicotine, cocaine
Quinine, papaverine, nicotine, and cocaine are all naturally occurring nitrogen-containing alkaloids.
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10.
Which of the following is true about function of alkaloids? i. Reserpine which lowers blood pressure ii. Cocaine is an anaesthetic iii. Vincristine is cytotoxic agents iv. Anthocyanins play an important role in insect mimicry
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C —
i, ii, iii
Reserpine lowers blood pressure, cocaine acts as a local anesthetic, and vincristine is a cytotoxic alkaloid used in cancer chemotherapy. Anthocyanins are flavonoids, not alkaloids.
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11.
Which of the following does not belong to the class of phenolic compound?
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Answer: D —
Caffein
Caffeine is a purine alkaloid, whereas caffeic, vanillic, and coumaric acids are phenolic compounds.
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12.
From which among the following is etoposide derived from?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B —
Podophyllotoxin
Etoposide is a semi-synthetic derivative of podophyllotoxin.
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13.
Choose the set of secondary metabolites.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C —
Malaxin, quercetin, Napthoquinones
Malaxin, quercetin, and napthoquinones are secondary metabolites.
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14.
____________ is the secondary metabolite obtained from 'tree of joy'.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B —
Camptothecin
Camptothecin is a topoisomerase inhibitor obtained from Camptotheca acuminata, known as the 'tree of joy'.
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15.
The techniques that help to determine functional group present in isolated secondary metabolite of a plant is
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Answer: A —
IR Spectroscopy
Infrared (IR) spectroscopy is primarily used to identify functional groups in organic molecules based on vibrational absorptions.
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16.
Choose the correct test to detect the presence of glycosides in plant extract.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A —
Keller Killiani test
Keller Killiani test is specific for deoxysugars found in cardiac glycosides.
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17.
On shaking plant extract with acidified chloroform and allowing to stand, yellow colour appears in lower layer. Presence of which phytochemical is indicated by this test?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C —
Triterpenoids
Salkowski test (or similar chloroform-acid tests) for triterpenoids/steroids yields characteristic yellow or red/brown layers.
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18.
An enzyme with nomenclature EC 2.7.3.2 belongs to ___________ class.
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Answer: A —
Transferase
Enzymes starting with EC 2 belong to transferases (transfer of groups such as phosphate).
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19.
The sets of enzymes that are markers of myocardial infarction
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Answer: D —
GOT, CK, LDH
Classic cardiac markers include Creatine Kinase (CK), Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH), and Glutamate Oxaloacetate Transaminase (GOT/AST).
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20.
Which of the following statement is correct?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B —
In Competitive inhibition Vmax is unchanged, Km increases
In competitive inhibition, Vmax remains unchanged while the apparent Km increases.
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21.
Bell shaped curve is obtained for enzyme velocity with
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B —
Increasing temperature and increasing pH
Enzyme activity shows a bell-shaped response with respect to changes in both temperature and pH due to optimum ranges and denaturation.
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22.
Select the false statement regarding active site of enzyme.
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Answer: C —
Active site is rigid in structure and shape
The active site is not completely rigid; it exhibits flexibility as described by the induced-fit model.
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23.
Km value is unchanged while Vmax is lowered in
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B —
Non-competitive inhibition
In pure non-competitive inhibition, Vmax decreases while Km remains unchanged.
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24.
Which of the following is different from rest of the inhibitors?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D —
Allopurinol
Allopurinol acts as a suicide inhibitor (mechanism-based), while the others are typical classical poisons/inhibitors of specific pathways.
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25.
Choose the correct pair of coenzyme and corresponding vitamin.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A —
Vit B1-TPP, Vit B2-FMN, Vit B6-PLP
Vitamin B1 forms Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), Vitamin B2 forms FMN/FAD, and Vitamin B6 forms Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP).
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26.
For plot of V against [S], allosteric enzyme exhibits
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B —
Sigmoidal curve
Allosteric enzymes display cooperative binding kinetics, resulting in a characteristic sigmoidal curve.
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27.
Acute pancreatitis is characterised by
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B —
$\uparrow$ Serum amylase
Acute pancreatitis is typically characterized by a significant increase in serum amylase and lipase levels.
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28.
Choose the incorrect statement.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D —
SEM has higher resolution than TEM
TEM has a much higher resolution than SEM because electrons have a smaller wavelength in TEM.
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29.
Bragg equation states that
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C —
$n\lambda = 2d\sin\theta$
Bragg's law of diffraction is given by $n\lambda = 2d\sin\theta$ .
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30.
Pick out the right statement regarding MALDI-TOF MS.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C —
UV-light absorbing matrix is used
MALDI uses a UV-light absorbing matrix to ionize large molecules without significant fragmentation.
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31.
Mammalian cells use several cdks and cyclins to regulate passage through the cell cycle. Match the correct combinations which regulate the different phases of the cell cycle. Cdks, Cyclins, Cell cycle phases 1. Cdk1, a. Cyclin A, i. $G_1$ phase 2. Cdk2, b. Cyclin B, ii. $S$ phase 3. Cdk4, c. Cyclin D, iii. $G_2$ phase iv. $M$ phase
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A —
3. Cdk4 - c. Cycline D - i. G1 phase, 2. Cdk2 - a. Cycline A - ii. S phase, 1. Cdk1 - b. Cycline A - iii. G2 phase, 1. Cdk1 - a. Cycline B - iv. M phase
Cyclins and CDKs regulate specific transitions in the cell cycle (e.g., Cdk4/Cyclin D for G1, Cdk2/Cyclin A for S, Cdk1/Cyclin B for M phase).
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32.
The following are the molecular cancer biomarkers used to diagnose cancer in the human body. Find the correct combination of markers used to identify the different types of cancer A. AFP B. HER-2 C. CA-125 D. CEA i. Breast cancer ii. Colorectal cancer iii. Liver cancer iv. Ovarian cancer
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C —
A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
AFP is a marker for liver cancer (iii), HER-2 for breast cancer (i), CA-125 for ovarian cancer (iv), and CEA for colorectal cancer (ii).
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33.
Movement of $Na^+$ through open voltage-gated $Na^+$ channels is driven by
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D —
The $Na^+$ concentration gradient across the membrane and membrane potential at the peak of the action potential
The electrochemical gradient governing $Na^+$ movement accounts for both the concentration gradient and the membrane potential, especially during the action potential peak.
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34.
Select the incorrect statements concerning membrane proteins A. The plasma membrane of the cell contains 50% of the proteins by mass B. The transmembrane proteins are amphipathic and can function on both sides of the bilayer or transport molecules across it C. Mutation (V509A) in integral membrane protein thyrotropin receptor leads to congenital hypothyroidism D. Peripheral membrane proteins are permanently attached to one face of a membrane by noncovalent interactions with other membrane proteins and involve in cell signalling
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D —
C and D
Peripheral membrane proteins are typically attached temporarily or loosely to the membrane surface or integral proteins rather than being permanently attached by noncovalent interactions to one face in the way stated, making some aspects of D and C incorrect.
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35.
The statements below address receptor-mediated endocytosis. Which of the following statements about receptor-mediated endocytosis is true? A. In receptor-mediated endocytosis, the extracellular materials bind to complementary receptors on the cell surface and enter the cell B. GGA adaptor molecule associated with clathrin-mediated endocytosis C. Receptor-mediated endocytosis (RME) leads to the formation of mannose-coated pits D. Dynamin is a large GTP-binding accessory protein that aids in the release of the clathrin-coated vesicle from the membrane
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B —
A and D are true
Statements A and D accurately describe receptor-mediated endocytosis and the role of dynamin in pinching off clathrin-coated vesicles.
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36.
Which of the following describes the effective dose of the drug?
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Answer: C —
The dose at which 50% of the tested animals exhibit a biological response
The effective dose ( $ED_{50}$ ) is defined as the dose that produces a therapeutic or desired biological response in 50% of the population tested.
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37.
Match the following drugs with their General targets Drugs, General Targets A. Rifampicin, i. Act on 30S subunit of ribosome and block the protein synthesis B. Tetracycline, ii. Binds to RNA polymerase and interferes transcription process C. Cephalosporins, iii. Act on 50S subunit of ribosome and block the protein synthesis D. Erythromycin, iv. Inhibit the cell wall synthesis
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B —
A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
Rifampicin inhibits RNA polymerase (ii), Tetracycline acts on the 30S ribosomal subunit (i), Cephalosporins inhibit cell wall synthesis (iv), and Erythromycin acts on the 50S ribosomal subunit (iii).
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38.
Which of the following statement about Cytochrome P450 is false?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B —
A fat-free diet increases the Cytochrome P450 level
A fat-free diet actually decreases or does not increase Cytochrome P450 levels, as lipids are required for its membrane environment and function.
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39.
Which of the following reaction doesn't involve phase II of drug metabolism
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D —
Hydroxylation
Hydroxylation is a Phase I metabolism reaction (functionalization), whereas glucuronidation, sulfation, and methylation are Phase II (conjugation) reactions.
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40.
Match the bacterial toxins with their mode of action Toxins, Mode of action A. Pertussis toxin, i. Inhibit neurotransmitter release in a neuron B. Diphtheria toxin, ii. Selective blockers of acetylcholine release from nerve endings C. Botulinum toxin, iii. Inactivates elongation factor (EF-2) and inhibits protein synthesis D. Tetanus Toxin, iv. Inactivities G proteins and blocks the signal transduction
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A —
A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
Pertussis toxin inactivates G proteins (iv), Diphtheria toxin inactivates EF-2 (iii), Botulinum toxin blocks acetylcholine release (ii), and Tetanus toxin inhibits neurotransmitter release in inhibitory neurons (i).
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41.
Hypersensitivity reactions can be classified into four types. Which of the following types has correctly matched concerning its immune responses? A. Type I - IgE mediated immediate reaction B. Type II - Immune complex-mediated reaction C. Type III - Antibody-mediated cytotoxic reaction (IgG or IgM antibodies) D. Type IV - Cell-mediated, delayed hypersensitivity reaction
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C —
A and D only
Type I is IgE mediated and Type IV is cell-mediated delayed hypersensitivity. Type II is antibody-mediated cytotoxic and Type III is immune complex-mediated.
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42.
Which of the following statement is false with respect to type III Hypersensitivity reaction
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B —
Penicillin can induce Type III hypersensitivity reaction alone
Penicillin typically induces Type I or Type II hypersensitivity reactions, not Type III alone.
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43.
Which of the following statements are not true about drug addiction? A. Drugs of abuse cause the brain's limbic system to release dopamine, the neurotransmitter that produces feelings of pleasure B. Drug tolerance makes people need more and more of the same drug because, over time, drugs will cause the brain to produce less dopamine C. Marijuana and heroin can activate neurons because their chemical structure mimics that of a natural neurotransmitter in the body D. Cocaine and amphetamines directly increase extracellular dopamine by blocking the presynaptic dopamine transporter (DAT)
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D —
None of the above
All the provided statements (A, B, C, and D) are scientifically accurate descriptions of mechanisms related to drug addiction.
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44.
Classify the drug based on its source | Drugs | Source | | :--- | :--- | | A. Digoxin | i. Microbial | | B. Thyroxin | ii. Synthetic | | C. Dextran | iii. Plant | | D. Aspirin | iv. Animal |
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B —
A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
Digoxin is from plants (Digitalis), Thyroxin is an animal hormone, Dextran is microbial, and Aspirin is synthetic.
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45.
Drug distribution will be influenced by A. Tissue/organ blood flow B. Physicochemical properties of the drug C. Influx and efflux transporters D. Plasma protein and tissue binding
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C —
All of the above
Drug distribution is a complex process influenced by blood flow, drug properties, transporters, and binding affinities.
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46.
The complement system is a potent mediator of inflammation and destruction and could cause extensive damage to host cells if uncontrolled. The complement system is tightly regulated by inhibitory/regulatory proteins. The following is the list of the key regulatory proteins that regulate the complement system. Match the regulatory proteins of the complement system with the stated functions. | Regulatory Proteins | Functions | | :--- | :--- | | A. CI Inhibitor | i. Enzymatically inactivities C4b and C3b | | B. DAF | ii. Promotes C3b and C4b inactivation | | C. MCP | iii. Binds to C1r and Cls prevents further activation of C4 and C2 | | D. Factor I | iv. Inactivates C3b and C4b |
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B —
A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
C1 inhibitor binds C1r/C1s, DAF prevents C3 convertase formation, MCP acts as a cofactor for Factor I, and Factor I inactivates C3b/C4b.
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47.
Which of the following statements regarding the live attenuated vaccine is incorrect?
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Answer: D —
Live attenuated vaccine is stable at normal room temperature
Live attenuated vaccines are generally heat-sensitive and require cold chain storage; they are not stable at normal room temperature.
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48.
Which of the following method is currently used to deduce the evolutionary relationship between bacteria?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C —
16S rRNA analysis
16S rRNA gene sequencing is the gold standard for determining phylogenetic relationships among bacteria.
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49.
Multidrug resistance in bacteria may be generated by A. Horizontal gene transfer B. Mutations in the DNA C. Enzymatic Inactivation of the Drug D. Increased expression of genes that code for multidrug efflux pumps
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D —
All of the above
Multidrug resistance is a multifactorial phenomenon involving genetic transfer, mutations, enzymatic degradation, and efflux mechanisms.
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50.
The databases for the model organisms are given below. Match it to appropriate model organisms | Database | Organism | | :--- | :--- | | A. MAtDB | i. Mouse | | B. FlyBase | ii. C.elegans | | C. WormBase | iii. Arabidopsis | | D. MGI | iv. Drosophilia |
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A —
A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
MAtDB is for Arabidopsis, FlyBase for Drosophila, WormBase for C. elegans, and MGI for Mouse.
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51.
If the centre of gravity of a molecule changes during motion, then the molecule have,
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B —
Translational Energy
Translational motion involves the movement of the center of gravity of the molecule through space.
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52.
Identify the correct statement from the following A. Spectroscopy is the study of the interaction between matter and radiated energy B. Spectrometry is a practical measurement in the atomic and molecular balances of matter C. Spectroscopy is a theoretical method of science that does not produce any results D. Spectrometry the study of matter's absorption properties or absorption behaviour when exposed to electromagnetic radiation.
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Answer: D —
All statements are correct
All statements provided correctly define the scope and nature of spectroscopy and spectrometry in analytical chemistry.
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53.
When we consider Raman scattering spectrum, and if we designate the intensities of the most intense lines of the stoke lines, Anti stokes lines and Raleigh scattering are $I_s$ , $I_{as}$ and $I_r$ respectively, the the inceasing order will be
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D —
$I_{as} < I_s < I_r$
Rayleigh scattering is the most intense, followed by Stokes lines, and Anti-Stokes lines are the least intense due to the population of excited vibrational states.
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54.
Carbonyl group show $n \rightarrow \pi^*$ somewhere in ultraviolet region, but their 2,4 dinitrophenylhydrazone derivatives show $\pi \rightarrow \pi^*$ in the visible region. This is due to
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B —
Bathochromic shift
A shift to a longer wavelength (lower energy) is known as a bathochromic shift (red shift).
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55.
Select the false statement(s) from the following A. As bond order decreases, bond energy as well as force constant increase B. As bond energy increases, bond length decreases and force constant increases C. As bond length increases bond energy decreases and force constant also decreases D. As force constant decreases, bond length decreases and bond energy increases
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B —
A and D are false
Statement A is false because bond energy and force constant decrease as bond order decreases. Statement D is false because as force constant decreases, bond length increases and bond energy decreases.
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56.
The expected number of ESR signals for methyl free radical and benzen anion are respectively
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B —
4 and 7
For methyl radical ( $CH_3$ ), $2nI+1 = 2(3)(1/2)+1 = 4$ . For benzene anion ( $C_6H_6^-$ ), $2nI+1 = 2(6)(1/2)+1 = 7$ .
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57.
Which one of the following is false for Doppler broadening of spectral lines
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Answer: D —
Doppler broadening is proportional to pressure of the gas
Doppler broadening is primarily dependent on temperature and molecular mass, not pressure.
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58.
Identify the statement regarding the reference molecule used in NMR spectrsocopy A. TMS will give weak NMR absorption even in dilute solutions B. The Shielding of protons in TMS is greater than in most organic molecules C. The methyl group of DSS resonate at a different position of the methyl group of TMS D. DSS or its sodium salt is more often used as calibration standard of NMR for protein experiments in water
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D —
D and B are correct
TMS is highly shielded, and DSS is the standard for aqueous NMR experiments.
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59.
The transitions of the electron between the molecular orbitals for the absorption in the region 200 to 800 nm is not possible for
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A —
$\sigma$ to $\sigma^*$
$\sigma \rightarrow \sigma^*$ transitions require high energy, typically occurring in the vacuum UV region (< 200 nm).
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60.
Which of the following are the Quantum mechanics methods used in computational chemistry
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Answer: B —
Ab initio method and DFT
Ab initio and Density Functional Theory (DFT) are both quantum mechanical methods.
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61.
Which of the following statement(s) are correct A. Glass electrode only compares pH values while the hydrogen electrode measure pH absolutely B. The pH values measured by quinhydrone electrode are very accurate even in the presence of oxidising ions C. Potentiometry is a method of electroanalysis is used to find the concentration of a solute in a solution D. Amperometry is the technique to detect the ions in a solution depending on electric voltage or changes in redox potential
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A —
A, B and C are correct
Statement D is incorrect because amperometry measures current at a constant potential, not voltage changes.
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62.
The Electrokinetic phenomenon in which the movement of particles causes potential is
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C —
Streaming potential
Streaming potential is the potential generated by the flow of a liquid through a porous plug or capillary.
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63.
Which of the following is not suitable for Amperometry?
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Answer: B —
Identification of polysaccharide
Amperometry is an electrochemical technique used for ions/redox-active species, not for identifying polysaccharides.
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64.
The salts of a given metal can be arranged in order of their decreasing ability to remove lyophilic substances from colloidal solution. This series is called
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Answer: A —
Hofmeister series
The Hofmeister series describes the relative influence of ions on the solubility and stability of proteins and colloids.
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65.
Identify the correct statements A. During gelation there is a large increase in viscosity B. Imbibation pressure breaks the soil around the seeds during germination C. A small amount of electrolyte increases the zeta potential of lyophilic colloids D. Critical Micellar concentration decreases as the molecular weight of a hydrocarbon chain increases
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Answer: B —
A, B and D are correct
Electrolytes typically decrease the zeta potential of colloids by compressing the electrical double layer.
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66.
Identify the correct statements(s) from the following\nA. Regioselectivity of the hydroboration step can be improved with bulky boranes\nB. For mono-substituted cyclohexane, the equatorial conformer is more stable than the axial-conformer because of the 1,3- diaxal interaction\nC. Hydroboration/Oxidation proceeds in an Anti-Markovnikov manner, where the hydrogen from $BH_3$ or $B_2H_6$ attaches to the more substituted carbon\nD. Addition of $H_2O$ to a carbon carbon double bond is Markovinikov syn addition
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Answer: C —
A, B and C are correct
Hydroboration-oxidation is a regioselective anti-Markovnikov syn-addition process.
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67.
If we consider trans-1-t-butyl-3 methylcyclohexane, in its most stable conformation, then the substituents at C1 and C3 are
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C —
Equatorial and Axial positions respectively
The bulky t-butyl group prefers the equatorial position to minimize 1,3-diaxial interactions.
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68.
Which one of the following could be grouped as prochiral molecules?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A —
Pyruvic acid and propionic acid
Prochiral molecules are those that can be converted from achiral to chiral in a single step.
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69.
Cyclopentadiene is more acidic than cyclopentane, because
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C —
Cyclopentadiene has conjugated double and once deprotonated, the orbitals on the carbon atom would re-hybridize from $sp^3$ to $sp^2$ placing the lone-pair of electrons in the new p-orbital making resulting the molecule aromatic
Deprotonation of cyclopentadiene yields the cyclopentadienyl anion, which is aromatic (6 $\pi$ electrons).
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70.
The mechanism of oxymercuration of an alkene to yield an alcohol follows
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Answer: A —
Electrophilic Addition Reaction
Oxymercuration involves the electrophilic attack of the mercury species on the double bond.
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71.
The alkaloid pilocarpine extracted from the leaves of pilocarpus microphyllus is an
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Answer: C —
Imidazole Alkaloid
Pilocarpine contains an imidazole ring structure.
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72.
In IR spectraum of para nitro phenyl acetate, Carbonyl absorption band may range on
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B —
1760-1765 $cm^{-1}$
Esters typically show carbonyl stretching frequencies in the range of 1735-1765 $cm^{-1}$ .
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73.
How many peaks could be expected in the proton decoupled $^{13}C$ NMR spectra of 1-methyl cyclohexene and methylcyclohexane respectively?
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Answer: A —
Seven and Five
1-methylcyclohexene has 7 unique carbon environments, while methylcyclohexane has 5.
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74.
Which one of the following group of compound belongs to T erpenes?
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Answer: D —
Caravone, Geraniol and Myrcene
Carvone, geraniol, and myrcene are all classified as terpenes.
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75.
What is the correct order of $\lambda_{max}$ for n-> $\pi^*$ transition for the following organic groups, R-N=N-R, R-CN and R-CHO?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B —
R-N=N-R > R-CHO > R-CN
The energy of the n-> $\pi^*$ transition depends on the nature of the chromophore, with azo groups generally showing higher $\lambda_{max}$ than carbonyls.
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76.
Which among the following statements are correct?\nA. Ninhydrin is sprayed to locate amino acids and on applying ninhydrin amino acids will be appeared in pink to purple colour\nB. The four main system in HPLC are mobile phase reservoirs Injector system, column and detector\nC. Gas chromatography is a type of adsorption chromatography in which the mobile phase is a gas\nD. Elutropic series is a series of various compounds in order of adsorbtion power for a given adsorbent
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Answer: C —
A, B and C are correct
Statements A, B, and C are standard descriptions of chromatographic techniques.
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77.
Which of the following set of reactions are given by citral?
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Answer: D —
React with bisulphite, Ozone and exhibit geometrical isomerism
Citral reacts with bisulfite, ozone, and exists as geometrical isomers (geranial and neral).
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78.
During ion exchange separation, ion exchange is favoured at higher concentration, when
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Answer: C —
Resin has higher positive charge and solution has lower positive charge
Ion exchange selectivity is influenced by the charge density of the ions involved.
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79.
Identify the wrong statement(s) from the following\nA. In GC-MS the compounds to be analysed must be suﬃcienly volatile and thermally stable\nB. The gas chromatograph utilises a capillary colomn which does not depend upon colomn's dimension as well as the phase properties\nC. Electrospray ionisation method in LC-MS can be used for highly polar, highly stable or thermally stable compounds\nD. Carrier gas used in GC-MS are nitrogen helium argon and Hydrogen
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Answer: B —
B and C are wrong
Capillary column performance is highly dependent on dimensions and phase properties; ESI is used for non-volatile/thermally labile compounds.
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80.
Crypton is a natural terpenoid which
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Answer: D —
Contains nine carbon atom and does not obey isoprene rule
Crypton is a monoterpene derivative that does not strictly follow the isoprene rule.
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81.
Which among the following is the function of Chopper in AAS?
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Answer: C —
To convert steady light into pulsating light
The chopper in Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy (AAS) modulates the light source to distinguish it from the flame emission.
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82.
A $M$ solution of potassium permanganate has a transmittance of 20% when measured in a 2.10 cm cell at a wavelength of 525nm. The molar absorptivity of potassium permangnate solution is
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Answer: B —
$\epsilon = \frac{\log(5)}{C \times 2.10}$
Using Beer-Lambert law $A = \epsilon bc$ , where $A = -\log(T) = -\log(0.2) = \log(5)$ . Thus $\epsilon = \frac{\log(5)}{bc}$ .
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83.
If DTA of $CaC_2O_4 \cdot H_2O$ is carried out in an inert atmosphere, the number of exothermic peaks are
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Answer: A —
0
The decomposition of calcium oxalate monohydrate involves endothermic steps (dehydration and decomposition) in an inert atmosphere.
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84.
Statement I : SEM is least appropriate for small particles\nStatement II: Small nanoparticles contribute very little to the signal obtained by SEM. Find the correct option from the following
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Answer: B —
Statement I is correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for statement I
SEM resolution and signal generation are limited for very small nanoparticles compared to TEM.
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85.
Which of the following is a greener route to produce ethanol commercially?
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Answer: D —
Oxidation of ethene with an ionic catalyst
Direct oxidation of ethene using ionic catalysts is considered a more atom-efficient and greener industrial process.
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86.
The term Cryptand refers to
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Answer: C —
Macromolecules with nitrogen and oxygen donor
Cryptands are bicyclic or polycyclic ligands containing nitrogen and oxygen donor atoms.
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87.
Which of the following is an anion receptor?
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Answer: A —
Carboxy peptidase A
Carboxypeptidase A is a zinc-containing enzyme that acts as a receptor for anionic substrates.
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88.
Which enzyme regulates the external signal ﬂapping in the molecular switches?
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Answer: C —
Kinase
Kinases regulate molecular switches by phosphorylation, which acts as a signal.
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89.
Supramolecular Calixarenes contain
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Answer: D —
OH
Calixarenes are macrocycles typically characterized by phenolic hydroxyl groups.
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90.
Molecular T weezers is primarily concerned with
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Answer: B —
Non covalent bond
Molecular tweezers are host molecules designed to bind guests via non-covalent interactions.
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91.
Predict the correct order of magnetic moment for the following geometry pf Ni(II) complexes
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Answer: A —
Square planar < Octahedral < Tetrahedral
Square planar Ni(II) is diamagnetic (0 BM), Octahedral is paramagnetic (2 unpaired electrons), and Tetrahedral is paramagnetic (2 unpaired electrons with higher orbital contribution).
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92.
Which of the following statement is incorrect about Zeise's salt?
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Answer: C —
All the Pt-Cl bond length in Zeise's salt are not equal
In Zeise's salt, the Pt-Cl bond lengths are equivalent due to the symmetry of the complex.
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93.
Indicate the number of Mossbauer peaks in the spectrum of $Fe(CO)_5$
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Answer: D —
3
The spectrum of $Fe(CO)_5$ shows multiple peaks due to the distinct iron environments in the trigonal bipyramidal structure.
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94.
How many metal-metal bonds are present in $Fe_3(CO)_{12}$ ?
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Answer: C —
3
The structure of $Fe_3(CO)_{12}$ contains a triangular cluster of three iron atoms, resulting in 3 metal-metal bonds.
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95.
Ferrocene cannot undergo which of the following reactions?
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Answer: B —
Diels-Alder reaction
Ferrocene is an aromatic organometallic compound that undergoes electrophilic substitution but not Diels-Alder cycloaddition.
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96.
The order of CO infrared stretching frequencies in $Ni(CO)_4, [Co(CO)_4]^-, [Fe(CO)_4]^{2-}$ is
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Answer: B —
$Ni(CO)_4 > [Co(CO)_4]^- > [Fe(CO)_4]^{2-}$
As the negative charge on the complex increases, back-bonding to CO increases, decreasing the C-O bond order and stretching frequency.
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97.
The oxidation state of iron in methemoglobin is
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Answer: C —
Three
Methemoglobin contains iron in the ferric ( $Fe^{3+}$ ) state.
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98.
If ATPase pumps 6 $H^+$ out of the cell and 4 $H^+$ into the cell, the number of ATP consumed
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Answer: B —
2
The stoichiometry of ATP-driven proton pumping typically requires 2 ATP for this specific exchange ratio.
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99.
Identify the correct statement for the EPR spectrum of $VO(acac)_2$ [with square pyramidal geometry at Vanadium ] at 77K [I value of $^{51}V = 7/2$ ]\nA. It has two g values\nB. It has one g value\nC. It has 8 lines only\nD. It has 2 patterns of 8 lines
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A —
A and D
The EPR spectrum of $VO^{2+}$ complexes shows axial symmetry (two g values: $g_{\parallel}$ and $g_{\perp}$ ) and hyperfine splitting into 8 lines for each g value due to $I=7/2$ .
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100.
For the given complex $[Mo(CN)_8]^{4-}$ , the coordination number and geometry respectively, are
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Answer: C —
8 and hexagonal bipyramidal
The $[Mo(CN)_8]^{4-}$ complex has a coordination number of 8 and typically adopts a square antiprismatic or dodecahedral geometry.
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