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All 100 questions with answers

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  1. 1.
    What do you mean by Research Design?
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    Answer: C —
    Design of Analysis and report Writing
    Research design is the overall plan or strategy for the orderly conducting of a research study.
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  2. 2.
    Which method of Sampling is the most appropriate one to minimise error in data Collection
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    Answer: C —
    Initial Sampling from the population
    The most representative sampling method is the most appropriate for minimizing error in data collection.
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  3. 3.
    Descriptive Statistics are typically distinguished from inferential Statistics Why?
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    Answer: A —
    Use to Reach conclusions beyond the immediate data
    Inferential statistics are used to reach conclusions beyond the immediate data, whereas descriptive statistics describe the data itself.
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  4. 4.
    The General Linear Model belongs to Inferential Statistics family that includes
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    Answer: B —
    Average, Simple Percentage, percentile
    The General Linear Model includes statistical techniques like t-test, ANOVA, ANCOVA, and Regression analysis.
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  5. 5.
    What is the primary objective of citation in a Research Report?
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    Answer: A —
    Credibility to the Researcher alone
    Citations are primarily used to provide credibility to the original author whose work is being referenced.
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  6. 6.
    Read the following assessment methods and find out which groups belongs to Summative evaluation category?
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    Answer: D —
    Class-test, Field-test, Skill-test, performance-test
    Class-tests, field-tests, skill-tests, and performance-tests are typical examples of summative evaluation methods.
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  7. 7.
    Which one of the following roles does not constitute management roles as proposed by Henry Mintzberg?
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    Answer: D —
    Training role
    Henry Mintzberg proposed three categories of management roles: Interpersonal, Informational, and Decisional. Training is not one of them.
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  8. 8.
    Scalar Chain is related to
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    Answer: A —
    Communication
    Scalar chain refers to the line of authority and communication from the highest to the lowest rank.
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  9. 9.
    Management may be regarded as profession because
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    Answer: A —
    Various management association have formulated ethical code of conduct to be observed by their member
    A key characteristic of a profession is the existence of a formal code of conduct established by a professional body.
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  10. 10.
    __________ theory of leadership suggest that leadership is an emergent phenomenon in the form of integrative leadership out of interaction of a leader and his followers within the contextual variable lying within an organisation and outside it
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    Answer: B —
    System Theory
    System theory views leadership as an emergent phenomenon resulting from the interaction of various components within and outside the organization.
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  11. 11.
    _____ concept of Vroom's equation represents an individual's belief that a particular level of performance will be followed by a particular degree of effect
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    Answer: D —
    Expectancy
    Expectancy is the belief that one's effort will lead to the desired performance level.
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  12. 12.
    Which among the following is the correct order of five stages of group devlopment proposed by Tuckman
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    Answer: C —
    Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing and Adjourning
    Tuckman's stages of group development are Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning.
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  13. 13.
    Deontology is proposed by teh philosopher named
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    Answer: C —
    Immanuel Kant
    Immanuel Kant is the primary philosopher associated with Deontological ethics.
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  14. 14.
    ____________ is an ethical theory holds the view that an action or decision is right if it maximises utility or produce the greatest good for largest number of people
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    Answer: A —
    Utilitarianism
    Utilitarianism is based on the principle of utility, aiming for the greatest good for the greatest number.
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  15. 15.
    Sarbanes - Oxley Act was enacted in the year
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    Answer: C —
    2002
    The Sarbanes-Oxley Act was enacted in 2002 to improve corporate governance and financial disclosures.
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  16. 16.
    Which one of the following does Not fall in the category of SEBI's Three pillars of corporate Governance?
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    Answer: B —
    Financial Discipline
    SEBI's corporate governance framework emphasizes Self-discipline, Market discipline, and Regulatory discipline.
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  17. 17.
    At which level of Lawrence Kohlberg's moral reasoning morality is cantered around what society regards as right?
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    Answer: C —
    Conventional
    The conventional level of moral reasoning is characterized by an acceptance of social rules and norms.
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  18. 18.
    The Companies act 2013, requires the board of every listed company and certain other public company to constitute audit committee consisting of minimum _____ director
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    Answer: D —
    3
    Section 177 of the Companies Act, 2013 mandates an audit committee with a minimum of 3 directors.
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  19. 19.
    Which of the following is an assumption of Miller-Modigliani Dividend Irrelevance hypothesis? (i) Investors are irrational (ii) No taxes (iii) Flotation Cost (iv) Investors are able to forecast future prices and dividend with certainty
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Statements ii and iv are correct
    The M-M hypothesis assumes perfect capital markets, no taxes, and perfect information (certainty).
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  20. 20.
    What should be the cost of Retained earnings?
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    Answer: D —
    All the above
    The cost of retained earnings is generally considered equal to the cost of equity, adjusted for taxes and transaction costs.
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  21. 21.
    Which of the following statements are correct? (i) Operating Leverage provides the relationship between EBIT and EPS (ii) operating Leverage is used to enhance the profitability of the company (iii) Leverage arises due to the presence of Fixed cost options
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    Answer: C —
    Statements ii and iii are correct
    Operating leverage relates to fixed operating costs, while financial leverage relates to EBIT and EPS.
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  22. 22.
    Y Ltd issues Rs. 50,000 8% debentures at a premium of 10%. The tax rate applicable to the company is 60%. Compute the cost of debt capital?
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    Answer: A —
    2.91%
    Cost of debt = I(1−T)NP\frac{I(1-T)}{NP}. Here, I=4000I = 4000, NP=55000NP = 55000, T=0.6T = 0.6. Result ≈2.91%\approx 2.91\%.
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  23. 23.
    Which of the following statements are correct? (i) The Net Income Approach States that the increase in proportion of debt maximises the value of the firm (ii) Net Income Approach and Net operating Income Approach are both contributed by Durand (iii) Net income approach and Net operating income approach both give preference to debt for increasing the value of the firm
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    Answer: A —
    Statements i and ii are correct
    David Durand proposed both approaches; the Net Income approach suggests debt increases firm value.
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  24. 24.
    Which of the following statements are correct with regard to Average Rate of return of Capital budgeting? (i) The ARR method considers all the cashflows throughout the economic life of the project (ii) ARR methods considers the time value of money (iii) Its information can be identified from the financial statement of the firm
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    Answer: B —
    Statements i and iii are correct
    ARR uses accounting data from financial statements and considers the entire life, but ignores the time value of money.
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  25. 25.
    Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Indian Call Money market? (i) It operates for short term borrowing and lending (ii) Transactions in the call money market are typically for a fixed term of 3 months (iii) The RBI is not involved in regulating the Call money market
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    Answer: A —
    Statements i and ii are correct
    Call money is for very short-term (overnight) and is regulated by the RBI.
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  26. 26.
    Which of the following is a benefit of using a depository system for holding securities? (i) Reduced risk of physical certificates being lost or damaged (ii) Faster and more efficient settlement of securities transaction (iii) Higher returns on investment compared to traditional paper-based system (iv) Greater transparency in shareholding pattern
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    Answer: A —
    Statements i and ii are correct
    Depository systems eliminate physical risks and improve settlement speed.
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  27. 27.
    In 2014, India implemented a major change in its stock exchange by introducing a Unified Exchange platform, What is this platform called?
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    Answer: B —
    BOLT
    BOLT (BSE On-Line Trading) is the unified trading platform of the BSE.
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  28. 28.
    The BSE introduced its iconic stock index, the SENSEX in the year
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    Answer: C —
    1986
    The SENSEX was launched by the Bombay Stock Exchange in 1986.
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  29. 29.
    Which of the following statements about Overconfidence bias is correct?
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    Answer: B —
    Overconfidence bias can result in excessive trade and risk taking
    Overconfidence often leads investors to trade more frequently and take higher risks.
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  30. 30.
    What is the main concept behind the "Prospect theory" in behavioural finance?
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    Answer: C —
    Investors tend to be loss averse and make choices based on perceived gains and losses
    Prospect theory suggests that people value gains and losses differently, leading to loss aversion where the pain of losing is psychologically greater than the joy of gaining.
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  31. 31.
    The term used to denote the price changes of securities represents probable departures from previous prices
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    Answer: B —
    Random Walk
    The Random Walk theory posits that stock price changes are independent and follow a random path, making future price movements unpredictable.
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  32. 32.
    Which statements about Harry Markowitz's portfolio optimization model are correct? (i) Form the portfolios that have the same return, the investor will prefer the portfolio with lower risk (ii) From the portfolios that have the same return, an investor will prefer the portfolio with higher risk (iii) From the portfolios that have the same risk level, an investor will prefer the portfolio with a higher rate of return
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Only (i) and (iii)
    Markowitz's Modern Portfolio Theory assumes rational investors seek to maximize returns for a given level of risk or minimize risk for a given level of return.
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  33. 33.
    Which is the term used to describe an investment position intended to offset potential losses or gains that may be incurred by a companion investment?
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    Answer: A —
    Hedge
    A hedge is a risk management strategy employed to offset losses in investments by taking an opposite position in a related asset.
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  34. 34.
    Which is the measurement of the returns earned in excess of that which could have been earned on an investment that has no diversifiable risk?
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    Answer: C —
    Reward-to-volatility ratio
    The reward-to-volatility ratio (Sharpe Ratio) measures the excess return per unit of total risk.
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  35. 35.
    Which opportunities arise, when the current buying price of an asset falls below the price specified in a futures contract to sell the asset?
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    Answer: A —
    Arbitrage
    Arbitrage involves taking advantage of price differences in different markets to make a risk-free profit.
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  36. 36.
    The measure of uncertainly about the returns provided by the stock
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    Answer: B —
    Volatility
    Volatility is a statistical measure of the dispersion of returns for a given security or market index.
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  37. 37.
    ________ represents an increase in the total cost due to changes in the quality of products
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    Answer: C —
    Incremental cost
    Incremental cost is the additional cost incurred due to a change in the level or nature of activity, such as a change in product quality.
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  38. 38.
    Which of the following statements are correct about variance analysis? (i) If the actual result is better than the standard result, variance is unfavourable (ii) If the actual result is lower than the standard result, the variance is adverse (iii) Favourable and unfavourable variances are also called credit variances and debit variances
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Only (ii) and (iii)
    If actual results are better than standard, the variance is favourable. Statements (ii) and (iii) correctly describe adverse and credit/debit terminology.
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  39. 39.
    Section of the organization of an undertaking defined for the purpose of budgetary control
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    Answer: A —
    Budget centre
    A budget centre is a section of an organization for which a budget is prepared and control is exercised.
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  40. 40.
    Which of the following statements are correct about Job Analysis? (i) Merrick's Differential Piece rate System Suggests three-piece rates (ii) Time Study and Motion study are the important features of T aylor's Differential Piece Rate System (iii) Under the Bedaux Point Premium System, the time allowed for a job is expressed in terms of points
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All the Above (i), (ii) and (iii)
    All three statements accurately describe the respective wage incentive systems.
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  41. 41.
    PARETO Analysis is also known as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    The 80:20 Rule
    Pareto analysis is based on the Pareto principle, which states that 80% of consequences come from 20% of causes.
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  42. 42.
    When the selling price equals the cost, Contribution = _____________
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    Answer: C —
    Fixed Cost
    Contribution is defined as Selling Price minus Variable Cost. If Selling Price equals Total Cost (Fixed + Variable), then Contribution equals Fixed Cost.
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  43. 43.
    As 9 relates to
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    Answer: B —
    Revenue Recognition
    AS 9 (Accounting Standard 9) issued by the ICAI deals with Revenue Recognition.
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  44. 44.
    Fire damaged the premises of the trader resulting a loss of stock of Rs. 1,20,000. The goods salvaged from fire was Rs. 20,000. The policy was for Rs. 60,000 eligible for average clause. Amount of Claim to be lodged is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    50,000
    Actual Loss = 1,20,000 - 20,000 = 1,00,000. Claim = (Policy Value / Total Stock) * Actual Loss = (60,000 / 1,20,000) * 1,00,000 = 50,000.
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  45. 45.
    When the subsidiary company issues bonus shares out of pre-acquisition profit, the amount of resulting goodwill account will be
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Remains the same
    Issuing bonus shares out of pre-acquisition profits is a capitalisation of reserves and does not affect the cost of investment or the goodwill calculation.
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  46. 46.
    Statement (a) For Considering amalgamation in the nature of merger, all the assets and liabilities of the transferor company become the assets and liabilities of the transferee company Statement (b) For considering amalgamation in the nature of merger, less than 90% of the selling company's shareholders may become the shareholders of the purchasing company
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Statement (b) correct, Statement (a) False
    For amalgamation in the nature of merger, at least 90% of shareholders must become shareholders of the transferee company.
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  47. 47.
    Which of the following list deals with preferential creditors on liquidation of company?
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    Answer: C —
    List C
    In the statement of affairs for liquidation, List C contains the list of preferential creditors.
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  48. 48.
    Clear profit of an Electricity company is Rs. 23,000 and reasonable return is Rs. 20,000. The amount transferred to Transfer and dividend Control reserve is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Rs. 1,000
    The excess of clear profit over reasonable return is transferred to the Tariffs and Dividends Control Reserve, but specific regulations limit the transfer amount.
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  49. 49.
    ___________ project is a contract under which a firm aggress to fully design, construct and equip a manufacturing/business/service facility and hand over the project over to the purchaser when it is ready for operation for a remuneration
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Turnkey
    A turnkey project is one where the contractor handles everything from design to completion, handing over a ready-to-operate facility.
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  50. 50.
    Which of the following country is not a member of SAARC?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    China
    China is an observer state of SAARC, not a member.
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  51. 51.
    Which of the following is not belong to World Bank Group?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    International Bank for Rural Empowerment and Development (IBRED)
    IBRED is not a recognized institution within the World Bank Group.
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  52. 52.
    A balance of payment surplus leads to __________ of foreign currency but an _______ of the currency of the home country
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Depreciation, Appreciation
    A surplus in BOP increases the demand for home currency, leading to its appreciation and the relative depreciation of foreign currency.
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  53. 53.
    Purchasing Power parity theory of Foreign Exchange Reate determination based on the assumption of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Law of one price
    The PPP theory is based on the Law of One Price, which states that identical goods should cost the same in different countries when expressed in a common currency.
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  54. 54.
    _________ is an agreement between two parties to exchange cash flows in future and the cash flows are based on underlying instruments
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    Answer: C —
    Swap
    A financial swap is a derivative contract where two parties exchange cash flows based on a notional principal amount.
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  55. 55.
    Section 56-59 of the Income tax Act deals, with the computation of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Income from other sources
    Sections 56 to 59 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, cover the head 'Income from Other Sources'.
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  56. 56.
    Mr A an Indian citizen purchased 1000, zero coupon Bonds, on january 2022 for Rs. 2,00,000. On february 2023 he sold it for Rs. 3,00,000. the correct answer is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    The gain effected Rs. 1,00,000 is a Long term capital gain
    For zero-coupon bonds, the holding period for long-term capital assets is more than 12 months. Since it was held from Jan 2022 to Feb 2023, it is long-term.
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  57. 57.
    As per the finance Bill 2023 the basic exemption limit under the new regime is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Rs. 3,00,000
    The Finance Act 2023 increased the basic exemption limit under the new tax regime to Rs. 3,00,000.
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  58. 58.
    As per Income tax Act, Income under Section 2(24) include (i) Profit of any business caused on by a person (ii) Any advance money forfeited in the course of negotiations for transfer of capital Asset Choose the correct option
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Both (i) and (ii) included
    Section 2(24) defines 'Income' broadly, including business profits and forfeited advance money.
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  59. 59.
    Which of the following would be included in the description of "Goods" under section 2(52) of the GST Act 2017 (i) Equity Shares (ii) Growing crops (iii) Auctionable Claim (iv) Money
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    (ii) and (iii) only
    Under GST, 'Goods' includes growing crops and actionable claims, but specifically excludes money and securities (like equity shares).
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  60. 60.
    GST is levied on supply of all goods and services except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Alcoholic liquor for human consumption
    Alcoholic liquor for human consumption is constitutionally excluded from the purview of GST.
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  61. 61.
    Which group of consonants flow into union with other consonants and make double consonants?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Liquids
    In Pitman shorthand, the consonants L and R are classified as liquids and are used to form double consonants (hooks).
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  62. 62.
    How we insert third place intervening vowel in a word?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Before the second stroke at the end
    Third-place intervening vowels are placed before the second stroke at the end of the first stroke.
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  63. 63.
    Which strokes are never written through the line? (i) Halved (ii) Horizontal (iii) Intervening (iv) Doubled
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Only (i) and (ii)
    Horizontal strokes and halved strokes (that are horizontal) are not written through the line in shorthand.
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  64. 64.
    Consider the following statement which option is correct? (i) The downward form of 'r' is always written after 'm' (ii) 'L' hook is written left motion to upward 'R'
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Statement (i) and (ii) are incorrect
    The downward 'r' is not always written after 'm', and the 'L' hook is not written to upward 'R'.
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  65. 65.
    The sign for 'i' is abbreviated when prefixed to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Stroke L
    The prefix 'i' is abbreviated when attached to the stroke L.
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  66. 66.
    Which of the following statement is/are correct about Circle 'S'? (i) The circle 's' is written inside curves (ii) The circle 's' is written outside angles formed by two curved strokes (iii) When standing alonge, it is written left motion (iv) The circle 's' is written Right motion, when joined to straight strokes not forming and angle
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Only (i) and (iii)
    Circle 's' is written inside curves and left motion when standing alone.
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  67. 67.
    There is a large initial circle, written with the same motion as the circle 's', represents
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    SW
    A large initial circle represents the 'sw' sound in Pitman shorthand.
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  68. 68.
    Consider the statement given below, which statement is/are incorrect? (i) The STR loop is never written at the beginning of an Outline (ii) There is no 'f' or 'v' hooks to curved strokes (iii) SHR is always written upward and SHL is always written downward (iv) The consonant 'z' is also represented initially by a small circle
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Only (iii) and (iv)
    Statement (iii) is incorrect as SHR can be written downward, and (iv) is incorrect as 'z' is not represented by a small circle initially.
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  69. 69.
    In shorthand, when a word begins or ends with a consonant, that consonant is to be written with
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Briefest
    In shorthand, the briefest form is used for initial or final consonants.
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  70. 70.
    A small final hook struck by the Right motion to all straight strokes is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    'n' hook
    A small final hook on the right side of straight strokes represents the 'n' hook.
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  71. 71.
    The hooked form of "L N and SH N " when joined to another stroke is written in which direction?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Upward or Downward
    Hooked forms like LN and SHN can be written in either direction depending on the joining.
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  72. 72.
    From the statements given below, which statement is/are incorrect about SHUN hook? (i) It is written with the right motion to t, d and j (ii) It is written inside curves (iii) It is written on the side opposite to the initial attachment (iv) It is written with the left motion after the form FK
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Only (i) and (iv)
    Statements (i) and (iv) are incorrect regarding the motion of the SHUN hook.
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  73. 73.
    Which form of 'h' is used when 'h' is followed by 'k' or 'g'?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Downward
    The downward 'h' is used when followed by 'k' or 'g'.
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  74. 74.
    After a single straight upstroke, the Suffix '-er' must be written to which direction?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Downward
    The suffix '-er' is written downward after a single straight upstroke to maintain flow.
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  75. 75.
    Which statement is/are correct about stroke 'sh'? (i) The curve 'sh' is written downward after the curve 'n' (ii) When joined to a straight stroke , 'sh' is generally written downward (iii) 'Sh' is written upward after the stroke 'd' (iv) After a straight down stroke with an initial attachment 'sh' is written on the opposite side to such attachment
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Only (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
    All provided statements correctly describe the rules for writing the 'sh' stroke in shorthand.
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  76. 76.
    Fill in the blanks with suitable answers A small initial hook to 'L' represents ________ and a large initial hook to 'L' represents ____
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    W, WH
    In shorthand, a small initial hook to 'L' represents 'W' and a large initial hook represents 'WH'.
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  77. 77.
    In words of one syllable, heavy strokes, without a final hook or a joined diphthong, halved for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    D only
    Heavy strokes are halved to add 'd' in shorthand.
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  78. 78.
    In many words two vowels occur consecutively, each being separately pronounced is called?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Diphone
    A diphone is used to represent two consecutive vowels that are pronounced separately.
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  79. 79.
    Select the correct option based on the statement given below (i) The "dot ing" cannot be used medially (ii) When standing alone, the right curve for 'THL' is used if a vowel follows, and the left curve if a vowel precedes
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Statement (i) is correct and Statement (ii) is incorrect
    The dot 'ing' is a suffix and not used medially, while the rule for 'THL' curve direction is different.
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  80. 80.
    Match the following from the data given below Which strokes are used while intersecting words (a) Chancery (i) Stroke 'KR' (b) Colonel (ii) Stroke 'R' (Down) (c) Arrange (iii) Stroke 'K' (d) Capital (iv) Stroke 'J' (v) Stroke 'R' (Up) (vi) Stroke 'CH'
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    (a)-(vi), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
    Matching the shorthand intersection strokes to the respective words.
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  81. 81.
    Which one of the following is example of search engine?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    DuckDuckgo
    DuckDuckGo is a well-known internet search engine.
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  82. 82.
    _________ is not an Input Device
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    COM
    COM (Computer Output Microfilm) is an output device.
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  83. 83.
    Which Shortcut in MS-Word is used to close a document
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Ctrl+w
    Ctrl+W is the standard shortcut to close the active document in MS Word.
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  84. 84.
    Which features in MS-Word enables to repeat the frequently used tasks
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Macro
    Macros are used to automate and repeat sequences of tasks in MS Word.
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  85. 85.
    ----- is used to add additional space to the margin while print a document
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Gutter
    Gutter margin provides extra space for binding purposes.
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  86. 86.
    ----------- in excel is used to change or highlight inserting data points for investigating and scrutiny
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Conditional formatting
    Conditional formatting allows users to highlight cells based on specific criteria.
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  87. 87.
    ---------- shortcut in Excel is used to delete a row
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Ctrl+(minus sign)
    Ctrl + - (minus) is the shortcut to delete selected rows or columns in Excel.
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  88. 88.
    ------------ is used in excel to copy the cell format to another cell
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Format painter
    Format Painter is the tool used to copy formatting from one cell to another.
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  89. 89.
    Which software is used to create presentation
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Power point
    Microsoft PowerPoint is the standard software for creating presentations.
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  90. 90.
    ------- shortcut in power point is used view the print preview
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Ctrl+F2
    Ctrl+F2 is the shortcut for Print Preview in many Microsoft Office applications.
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  91. 91.
    _____________ package is used to create, edit and manipulate graphical digital and pictorial works
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Photoshop
    Adobe Photoshop is a professional software package designed for image editing and graphic design.
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  92. 92.
    The extension of normal photo shop files
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    PSD
    The native file format for Adobe Photoshop is .psd.
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  93. 93.
    ___________ tool in photo shop is used to select a layer is different shape
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Marquee
    The Marquee tool is used to make selections in specific shapes like rectangles or ellipses.
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  94. 94.
    ________ shortcut in corel draw is used to select ellipse tool
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    F7
    In CorelDRAW, the F7 key is the shortcut to activate the Ellipse tool.
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  95. 95.
    Transition of object in coreldraw is done by ___________ tool
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Blend tool
    The Blend tool in CorelDRAW is used to create transitions between two objects.
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  96. 96.
    Communication means exchange of ideas, opinion, facts, emotions etc. between 2 or more persons with continuously
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Understanding and responding to the message
    Effective communication requires not just the transmission of a message, but the understanding and feedback from the receiver.
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  97. 97.
    Which part of the letter indicates the end of the letter?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Subscription
    The subscription (or complimentary close) is the part of a letter that precedes the signature, indicating the end of the message.
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  98. 98.
    What is the use of CC in E-mail?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Recipients of the message are visible to all other recipients of the message
    CC stands for Carbon Copy, where all recipients can see the email addresses of others included in the CC field.
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  99. 99.
    Letters written to a creditor reminding him to settle an overdue account are known as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Dunning letters
    Dunning letters are formal notices sent to debtors to remind them of overdue payments.
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  100. 100.
    A D.O letter is written for which of the following reasons?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    A D.O (Demi-Official) letter is used for confidential, urgent, or personal matters requiring the attention of a specific individual.
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