A Data Base Management system

D) stores, modifies and retrieves data

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100 questions with answersFinal answer keyKerala PSC Exam

Lecturer in Computer Applications and Business Management - Technical Education question paper 2024

Date of test: 02/07/2024
Category No.: 126/2023
Questions: 100
Answer key: Final Answer Key
Exam mode: Online (computer based)

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Source: Kerala PSC (keralapsc.gov.in) · official document· Last updated 25 Sept 2026· How we check content

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All 100 questions with answers

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1.
The output of the following C program is #include <stdio.h> void main() { int a=5,b=7; printf("%d",++a-b+++b++); }
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A —
7
The expression ++a-b+++b++ evaluates as follows: ++a is 6, b++ is 7 (b becomes 8), then b++ is 8 (b becomes 9). So, 6 - 7 + 8 = 7.
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2.
Which of the following functions are not a part of string.h header file i. strstr ii. strget iii. strcpi iv. strchr
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Answer: B —
ii and iii
strget and strcpi are not standard functions in the C string.h library.
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3.
The exact order of priorities for the following operators in C is <=||!=*&?=
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Answer: A —
Option-A
Based on standard C operator precedence rules.
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4.
The equivalent C statement for the mathematical expression $\frac{a}{b} + \sqrt{a+b}$
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Answer: C —
a/b+pow((a+b), 0.5)
The pow() function from math.h is used for exponentiation in C, where $\sqrt{x}$ is equivalent to $pow(x, 0.5)$ .
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5.
The statement referring the second element in third row of an array arr in C is
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Answer: D —
All of the above
In C, 2D arrays can be accessed using index notation arr[row][col] or pointer arithmetic *(*(arr+row)+col).
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6.
The standard file pointer in C used for printing operations is
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Answer: B —
stdprn
stdprn is the standard file pointer for the printer in C.
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7.
The format specifier for printing and reading long double values in C is
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Answer: C —
%Lf
%Lf is the correct format specifier for long double in C.
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8.
Which among the following functions is not a part of math.h header file.
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Answer: D —
logn
logn is not a standard function in math.h; log() is used for natural logarithms.
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9.
Which operation is used to restore the balance in an AVL tree after an insertion or deletion?
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Answer: B —
Rotate
AVL trees use tree rotations (left, right, left-right, right-left) to maintain balance.
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10.
In a B-tree, what is the maximum number of children a node can have?
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Answer: A —
2n+1
In a B-tree of order m, the maximum number of children is m. If defined by degree n, the maximum is 2n+1.
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11.
What type of problem is the Traveling salesman problem in terms of computational complexity?
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Answer: C —
NP-Complete
The decision version of the Traveling Salesman Problem is a classic NP-complete problem.
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12.
Which algorithm is commonly used to find an approximate solution to the traveling salesman problem?
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Answer: D —
Nearest neighbor algorithm
The Nearest Neighbor algorithm is a greedy heuristic used to find an approximate solution for TSP.
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13.
Which of the following is not an asymptotic notation type
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Answer: B —
Lambda Notation (Λ)
Lambda notation is not a standard asymptotic notation used in algorithm analysis.
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14.
If a process fails, most operating system write the error information to a _______
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Answer: C —
log file
Operating systems typically record system errors and process failures in log files for debugging.
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15.
The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for _________
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Answer: C —
Time sharing systems
FCFS (First-Come, First-Served) is inefficient for time-sharing systems because it does not allow for preemption or fair response times.
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16.
In which language UNIX is written?
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Answer: B —
C
UNIX was rewritten in the C programming language in 1973.
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17.
Which part of the Unix operating system interacts with the hardware?
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Answer: D —
Kernel
The kernel is the core component of the OS that manages hardware resources.
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18.
A common synchronization mechanism used in multiprocessor operating system is
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D —
Locks
Locks (such as mutexes or semaphores) are standard mechanisms for process synchronization in multiprocessor systems.
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19.
In a multiprocessor system, if one processor fails, the system will halt
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Answer: B —
False
Multiprocessor systems are designed for fault tolerance; the failure of one processor does not necessarily halt the entire system.
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20.
A Data Base Management system
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Answer: D —
stores, modifies and retrieves data
A DBMS is software designed to store, retrieve, define, and manage data in a database.
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21.
One to many relationships means
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Answer: B —
one teacher can have many classes
A one-to-many relationship occurs when a single record in one table is associated with multiple records in another table.
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22.
Which one of the following is a type of Data Manipulation Command?
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Answer: C —
DELETE
DELETE is a Data Manipulation Language (DML) command, while CREATE and ALTER are Data Definition Language (DDL) commands.
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23.
What is the basic client/server architecture, one has to deal with?
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Answer: D —
All of the above
Client/server architecture involves various components including PCs, web servers, and database servers.
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24.
Which API is used for the interaction in 2-tier architecture?
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Answer: C —
both 1 and 2
Both ODBC (Open Database Connectivity) and JDBC (Java Database Connectivity) are APIs used for database interaction in client-server architectures.
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25.
In which architecture, client can't directly communicate with the server?
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Answer: C —
3-tier architecture
In 3-tier architecture, an application server or middleware layer sits between the client and the database server.
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26.
How many primary keys can have in a table?
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Answer: A —
Only 1
A relational database table can have only one primary key, although that key can consist of multiple columns (composite key).
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27.
Which command is used to change the definition of a table in SQL?
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Answer: C —
ALTER
The ALTER command is used to modify the structure (definition) of an existing database table.
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28.
What is the output of the following program fragment? int x = 10; int result = ++x-x++/++x*++x/5*2-++x+2>>3^3; Consolve. WriteLine(result);
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Answer: B —
-4
The expression evaluates based on operator precedence and associativity rules in C#.
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29.
Which of the following statements are true for ADO.NET i. ADO.NET supports both connection-oriented architecture and disconnection-oriented architecture ii. RecordSet object represents data from one data source at a time iii. Pessimistic locking is used to avoid concurrent changes to data
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Answer: A —
only i
ADO.NET is designed to support both connected and disconnected data access models.
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30.
Which of the following statements is true for the program fragment? Array Arr=Array.CreateInstance(Typeof(int), 3, 2, 4);
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Answer: C —
Arr.Length gives the number of elements of the array
In .NET, Array.Length returns the total number of elements in all dimensions of the array.
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31.
What is the output of the following program fragment : int a, b, c; for (c=1; c>=0, c--) { for (a = 1; a >= 0; a--) { for (b = 0; b <=1; b++) { if (a == b) { console.write ("1"); } else { Console.write ("0"); } } } Console.WriteLine ("\n"); }
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Answer: D —
0110 0110
The nested loops iterate and compare 'a' and 'b', printing '1' when they are equal and '0' otherwise.
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32.
Which of the following is not part of Common Language Runtime of .NET framework
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Answer: A —
Frame-work Class library
The Framework Class Library (FCL) is a separate component from the Common Language Runtime (CLR).
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33.
What is the size of the storage space required to store a variable of type 'Date' in VB.NET?
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Answer: B —
8 bytes
In VB.NET, the Date data type occupies 8 bytes of memory.
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34.
As seen below, we have a network consisting of five nodes, A through E. The values displayed represent the route's cost. The Distance Vector Routing protocol is used by the network. After the route have stabilized, which route has never been used by all nodes? 🔍 Click to zoom
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Answer: C —
BE
Based on the distance vector routing convergence, the path BE is not utilized.
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35.
The following shows a coding scheme for error correction. Find the number of errors that can be detected and corrected by the system Data word Code word 0000 00000 0001 00011 0010 00101 0011 00110 0100 01001 0101 01010 0110 01100 0111 01111
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Answer: A —
1, 0
The minimum Hamming distance $d_{min}$ is 2. The number of detectable errors is $d_{min}-1 = 1$ , and correctable errors is $\lfloor(d_{min}-1)/2\rfloor = 0$ .
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36.
A few statements regarding link state routing protocols are provided below. Which of these claims is true? i. Every router floods its partial knowledge about topology only to their immediate neighbours ii. It is a dynamic protocol iii. Bell-man ford algorithm is used iv. Count-to-infinity problem occurs in link state routing
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Answer: B —
ii
Link state routing is a dynamic protocol. Bellman-Ford and count-to-infinity are associated with Distance Vector routing.
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37.
Suppose that two persons A and B want to exchange confidential information. They set up a secret communication system using the Diffie-Hellman key exchange technique. They agreed on a prime number, P. They chose the primitive root as 3. A chooses 2 and B chooses 4 as their respective secrets. If their D-H key is 5, find out the prime number P for the modulo operation.
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Answer: D —
None of the above
Using the Diffie-Hellman formula $K = g^{ab} \pmod P$ , $5 = 3^{(2 \times 4)} \pmod P = 3^8 \pmod P = 6561 \pmod P$ . None of the provided options satisfy this.
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38.
An organization is granted a block of addresses. The IP address of one desktop machine is set as 192.168.112.40/28 from the given block. What is the last IP address in that block?
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Answer: C —
192.168.112.47
For a /28 subnet, the block size is 16. The network address is 192.168.112.32, and the broadcast address (last IP) is 192.168.112.32 + 15 = 192.168.112.47.
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39.
RSA cryptosystem is used by A. The two prime numbers are selected as p = 7 and q = 17 to generate her public and private keys. If the public key of A is 5. Then the private key of A is __________.
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Answer: A —
77
$n = p \times q = 119$ . $\phi(n) = (p-1)(q-1) = 6 \times 16 = 96$ . The private key $d$ satisfies $d \times e \equiv 1 \pmod{\phi(n)}$ , so $d \times 5 \equiv 1 \pmod{96}$ , which gives $d = 77$ .
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40.
Some statements about the TCP/IP reference model are listed below. i. RARP protocol resides in the Transport layer ii. The session layer of the OSI reference model is iii. Equivalent to the network layer of TCP/IP iv. UDP is defined in network layer Which of these statements is TRUE?
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Answer: D —
none of the above
RARP is in the Data Link/Network layer, UDP is in the Transport layer, and the Session layer is not part of the TCP/IP model.
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41.
Some statements regarding IEEE802.11 are presented here i. The basic service set defined by IEEE802.11 without an access point is called an infrastructure network ii. Distributed coordination function protocol uses CSMA/CA iii. The 'Frame Control' field in the MAC layer frame defines the duration of the transmission iv. IEEE 802.11 control frames are used for accessing the channel and acknowledging. Which of the above statements are true?
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Answer: D —
ii and iv
Statement ii (DCF uses CSMA/CA) and iv (Control frames for access/ACK) are correct.
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42.
In the Object Oriented Systems development life cycle, what is the main activity during the object design phase?
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Answer: B —
Deﬁning detailed class speciﬁcations
The object design phase focuses on defining detailed class specifications and algorithms.
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43.
How are use cases integrated with object-oriented design in Jacobson's Methodology?
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Answer: B —
By transforming use cases into class diagrams
Jacobson's methodology transforms use cases into object models and class diagrams.
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44.
Which UML diagram is used to show the physical architecture of a system, including hardware and software components?
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Answer: C —
Deployment diagram
Deployment diagrams are used to model the physical deployment of artifacts on nodes.
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45.
When identifying object relationship, which type of relationship shows a whole-part association?
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Answer: C —
Aggregation
Aggregation represents a whole-part or has-a relationship between objects.
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46.
What does the acronym "INVEST" stand for in the context of user stories in Agile?
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Answer: A —
Independent, Negotiable, Valuable, Estimable, Small, T estable
INVEST is a checklist for writing good user stories: Independent, Negotiable, Valuable, Estimable, Small, Testable.
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47.
Which of the following is a corollary of the design axiom "Design for Change"?
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Answer: C —
Minimize module coupling
Minimizing module coupling helps design systems that are flexible and easy to change.
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48.
Which activity is essential for maintaining security throughout the software life cycle?
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Answer: A —
Continuous monitoring and updating
Continuous monitoring and updating ensures security against emerging threats throughout the software lifecycle.
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49.
Which protocol is commonly used to establish a secure VPN tunnel and run encrypted connections?
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Answer: C —
IPsec (Internet Protocol Security)
IPsec is widely used to set up secure VPN tunnels with encryption at the network layer.
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50.
Name the law which protects the rights of inventors by granting them exclusive rights to their inventions?
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Answer: B —
Patent law
Patent law grants inventors exclusive rights to make, use, or sell their inventions for a limited period.
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51.
Which of the following is/are unsupervised learning problem(s)? i. Grouping documents into diﬀerent categories based on their topics ii. Forecasting the hourly temperature in a city based on historical temperature patterns iii. Identifying close-kint communities of people in a social network iv. Training an autonomous agent to drive a vehicle v. Identifying diﬀerent species of animals from images
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Answer: A —
i, iii only
Document clustering (i) and community detection (iii) are unsupervised learning tasks.
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52.
Calculate the value of y at x = 2.5 using K-nearest neighbour (k-NN) regression with k = 3 in the given data cluster X Y 0.5 1.5 1 2 1.5 3 2 3.5 3 4
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Answer: D —
3.5
For $x = 2.5$ , the 3 nearest neighbors are $x=2$ ( $y=3.5$ ), $x=3$ ( $y=4$ ), and $x=1.5$ ( $y=3$ ). Averaging their Y values gives $3.5$ .
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53.
Which of the following statement(s) about Reinforcement Learning (RL) is/are true? i. While learning a policy, the goal is to maximize the long-term reward ii. During training, the agent is explicitly provided the most optimal action to be taken in each state iii. The state of the environment changes based on the action taken by the agent iv. RL is used for building agents to play chess v. RL is used for predicting the prices of apatments from their features
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Answer: C —
i, iii, iv only
Statements i, iii, and iv are true characteristics and applications of Reinforcement Learning.
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54.
Consider a neural network model consisting of a single neuron designed to emulate the behavior of an AND gate. This neuron takes two binary input, x1 and x2, each of which can be 0 or 1. The neuron applies a weight w to each input and adds a bias b before passing the sum through an activation function f(z) to produce the output y. The activation function used is a step function, deﬁned as : Given the nature of an AND gate, which of the following sets of weights and bias would correctly conﬁgure the neuron to emulate an AND gate?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C —
w1=1, w2=1, b=-1.5
With $w_1=1, w_2=1, b=-1.5$ , only when both inputs are 1 does the sum $1+1-1.5 = 0.5 > 0$ , correctly simulating an AND gate.
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55.
A machine learning model is trained to predict the category of various ﬁnance-related objectives. The categories are "Investment", "Savings", "Retirement", and "Budgeting". When preparing the data for model training. One-hot encoding is applied to the category labels. Given a ﬁnance-related objective classiﬁed as "Retirement", what would be the one-hot encoded representation of this category for the model?
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Answer: A —
"Investment":0, "Savings" : 0, "Retirement" : 1, "Budgeting" : 0
One-hot encoding represents the active category with 1 and all others with 0.
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56.
What is the purpose of using assert statements in python?
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Answer: C —
To check if a condition is true
Assert statements are used for debugging purposes to test if a condition is true; if false, an AssertionError is raised.
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57.
What is the result of the expression 'Hello'*3?
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Answer: A —
'HelloHelloHello'
In Python, the * operator performs string repetition when applied to a string and an integer.
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58.
What is the output of print("Hello", end='@') print("world")
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Answer: B —
Hello@world
The 'end' parameter in the print function replaces the default newline character with the specified string.
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59.
Which function can be used to plot a sine curve in Matplotlib?
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Answer: B —
plt.plot()
plt.plot() is the standard function in Matplotlib to draw lines or curves by plotting points.
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60.
Which of the following is an immutable data type?
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Answer: C —
Tuples
Tuples are immutable in Python, meaning their elements cannot be changed after creation.
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61.
Which of the following statements is/are related to Taylor's contribution?
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Answer: B —
ii, iii, iv
Frederick Taylor's scientific management focused on specialized tasks, functional foremanship, and specific techniques like motion study.
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62.
Arrange the following steps of MBO development by Peter Drucker i. Stimulate the participation of the employees in the determining of the objectives ii. Determine the organizational objectives to employees. iii. Monitoring the performance iv. Evaluation of reward achievements v. Translating the organizational objectives to the employees
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Answer: C —
ii, v, i, iii, iv
The MBO process involves setting organizational goals, cascading them to employees, involving them in objective setting, monitoring, and evaluating performance.
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63.
A situation that will often involve an apparent conﬂict between moral and imperatives in which to obey one would result in transgressing another. Identify the situation
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Answer: D —
Ethical dilemma
An ethical dilemma is a decision-making problem between two possible moral imperatives, neither of which is unambiguously acceptable.
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64.
Which of the following are the part of Corporate social responsibility? i. Reasonable chances and the proper system for accomplishments and promotion ii. To supply goods at reasonable prices even when there is sellers market iii. Improving the eﬃciency of business operation iv. To provide an opportunity for being heard and redress genuine grievance
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Answer: D —
all of the above
Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) encompasses ethical treatment of employees, fair pricing, operational efficiency, and grievance redressal.
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65.
What is the sequence of introduction of classical management theory? i. Administrative management ii. Bureacratic management iii. Scientiﬁc management
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Answer: A —
iii, ii, i
Scientific management (Taylor) preceded bureaucratic (Weber) and administrative (Fayol) management theories.
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66.
"Coordination is the essence of management". This statement is stated by
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Answer: D —
Koonz and O'Donell
Koontz and O'Donnell are credited with the statement that coordination is the essence of management.
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67.
One good thing about the principles of measurement is that it helps understand the relationship between human and material resources in achieving organisational goals. Which features of the principles of management is described in the above statement?
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Answer: A —
Behavioural
The focus on human and material resource relationships relates to the behavioral aspect of management principles.
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68.
The principle of division of work is applicable to a government oﬃce where there is a diary/dispatch clerk whose jobs is to receive and send mail, a data entry operator who's task is to input data on the computer. Division of work is also applicable to limited companies where there are separate like productions, ﬁnance, research and development etc. Which quality of principles of management is highlighted above?
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Answer: B —
Universal applicability
The application of the same principle across different types of organizations demonstrates universal applicability.
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69.
Which of the following activities is not a direct responsibility of operation management?
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Answer: C —
Determining the exact mix of products and services that consumers want
Determining product mix is typically a marketing or strategic planning function, not a direct operational management task.
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70.
This stage may involve the provision of necessary items, the maintenance of records, the monitoring of workflows as planned, the recording of number of times a machine idle time, etc. Which is the production process the above lines mentions about?
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Answer: A —
Dispatching
Dispatching deals with the actual grant of work in accordance with previously planned schedules.
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71.
Which of the following is/are correct statements about Total Quality Management? i. TQM originated in the industrial sector of Japan in 1954 ii. TQM is a firm wide management philosophy of continuously improving the quality of the products and services by focusing on consumer's need. iii. TQM requires that the company maintain quality standard only in production iv. The objective of TQM is doing things right at the first time over and over again
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Answer: D —
i, ii, iv
TQM applies across all departments, not just production.
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72.
Which of the following statements is/are correct about ISO 9000 and ISO 14000? i. ISO 9000 is devoted to quality management ii. ISO 14000 is an environment management system iii. customer focus, leadership, engagement of people, process approach and improvement are five standards of ISO 14000 series iv. ISO 14000 certification can open the doors to new business. Some companies prefer to use suppliers that are ISO 14000-certified suppliers
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Answer: C —
i, ii, iv
Statements i, ii, and iv correctly describe ISO 9000 and ISO 14000 features.
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73.
Which of the following is/are the features of Six Sigma? i. it is a data-driven approach to improving production and operations management ii. it seeks to eliminate waste and improve efficiency in production and operation processes iii. it can help reduce costs associated with defects and variations in production and operations processes iv. six sigma uses non statistical tools and methods to identify and track causes of defects and variation
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B —
i, ii and iii
Six sigma relies heavily on statistical tools, making statement iv incorrect.
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74.
It is an emerging strategic approach that focuses on a few key principles. These include flexibility, rapid, response, collaboration and continuous improvement... Identify the type of manufacturing?
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Answer: D —
Agile manufacturing
Agile manufacturing focuses on flexibility, rapid response, and customer customization.
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75.
Which of the following is the main focus of Lean Production?
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Answer: A —
To eliminate waste
Lean manufacturing centers on minimizing waste (muda) while maximizing productivity.
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76.
Which of the following features of green operation management is/are incorrect? i. it have the same components as the conventional operation management, but it aims to minimize harm to environment ii. it involves green design, green manufacturing, green logistics, etc iii. it focus on innovative planning to emphasis on eco-friendly materials so that each part of the material cannot be recycled iv. it hardly provides renovation of production and environment friendly operations
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Answer: B —
iii, iv
Statements iii and iv contain incorrect assertions regarding green operations and recyclability.
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77.
Identify the true statement/s i. There is no difference between selling and marketing. ii. Selling emphasizes on the product whereas marketing emphasis on consumers wants
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Answer: B —
only statement ii true
Selling and marketing are distinct concepts; selling focuses on the seller's needs, marketing on customer wants.
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78.
Identify the mismatched pair Four Ps -- Four Cs
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Answer: D —
Promotion -- Consumers wish
Promotion maps to Communication in the 4Cs framework, not consumers wish.
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79.
Which of the following is not a controllable factor to the marketing management?
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Answer: C —
Governmental Behavior
Government policy and behavior is an uncontrollable external environmental factor.
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80.
Product assortment is also known as
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A —
Product mix
Product assortment or product mix refers to the complete set of products offered by a company.
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81.
The buyer purchases all his needs from a single seller is called
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Answer: D —
Concentrated buying
Concentrated buying describes sourcing all requirements from a single supplier.
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82.
Which of the following is/are the mismatched pair? i. Marketing Mix - Jerome McCarthy ii. Market segmentation - Wendell Smith
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Answer: D —
neither i nor ii is mismatched
Both pairs correctly match the concepts with their respective originators.
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83.
Market segmentation, market targeting and market positioning are the three steps for ___________marketing.
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Answer: D —
Target marketing
Segmentation, Targeting, and Positioning (STP) form the core of target marketing.
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84.
Market specialization segmentation is also known as
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A —
Vertical market segmentation
Market specialization focusing on serving many needs of a particular customer group is vertical segmentation.
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85.
Equity shareholders return can be traced from i. Earnings per share ii. Return on investment
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Answer: A —
only i
Earnings per share (EPS) directly measures returns attributable to equity shareholders.
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86.
Trading on equity is also known as i. operating leverage ii. financial leverage
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Answer: B —
only ii
Trading on equity is another term for financial leverage.
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87.
Which of the following is not applied in Capital Budgeting? i. All cost and benefits are measured on cash basis ii. All accrued costs are to be incorporated
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Answer: B —
only ii
Capital budgeting relies entirely on cash flows, not accrual-based accounting costs.
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88.
Which of the following capital budgeting technique consider time value of money? i. pay back method ii. net present value method iii. profitability index method
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Answer: B —
only ii and iii
NPV and Profitability Index consider the time value of money, whereas traditional payback period does not.
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89.
Cash breakeven point helps in i. Financial planning ii. Securing fund
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Answer: C —
both i and ii
Cash breakeven analysis aids both financial planning and securing funds/credit assessment.
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90.
Identify the true statement/s relating to breakeven point i. The Y-axis represents the sales volume, typically measured in units of product sold ii. The X-axis represents the total cost and total revenue in dollar value
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Answer: D —
neither i nor ii
Typically X-axis represents volume/units and Y-axis represents monetary value (costs/revenues).
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91.
Which of the following has the highest cost of capital? i. Equity share capital ii. Preference share capital
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Answer: A —
only i
Equity carries the highest risk, hence the highest cost of capital compared to preference shares and debt.
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92.
Marginal cost of capital is the cost of i. Additional sales ii. Additional interest
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Answer: B —
only ii
Marginal cost of capital relates to raising additional funds (additional interest/financing costs).
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93.
Identify the true statements Statement A : Personnel Management and HRM reveal the same meaning Statement B : HRM is the continuing process of personnel management according to Pat Lowry.
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Answer: B —
B true
Personnel management and HRM have distinct evolutionary scopes, making Statement B correct.
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94.
Identify the true statements : Statement A : Developing personnel for better performance is the operative function of HRM. Statement B : Formulating Personnel policies and HR budget are the managerial functions of HRM.
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Answer: C —
A and B true
Both statements accurately categorize HRM functions.
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95.
Identify the true statements : Statement A : Managerial functions of HRM is done by the HR manager Statement B : Operative functions of HRM is entrusted to the Personnel Department
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Answer: C —
A and B True
Managerial functions are performed by HR managers and operative functions by the personnel department.
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96.
Imposed policies means Statement A : Imposed policy is a type of HR policies which means policies formulated due to the external pressure or influence Statement B : Imposed policies may be affected because the change policies of the government, trade unions, trade associations, etc...
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Answer: C —
A and B true
Both statements correctly explain imposed HR policies resulting from external pressures.
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97.
Which of the following are the false statements? Statement A : Formulated policies are framed by the top level management Statement B : Implied policies are inferred from the actions and behavior of low level management
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Answer: B —
B false
Implied policies are inferred from actions across management levels, making B technically misstated in its restriction.
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98.
Identify the true statement : Statement A : Sigmund Freud developed the personality theory which is known as Psycho-Analytical theory Statement B : This theory gives more emphasis to the biological and sexual factors
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Answer: C —
A and B true
Freud's psychoanalytic theory emphasizes unconscious drives and psychosexual stages.
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99.
Which of the following statements are true in relating to Erikson personality theory? Statement A : Erikson theory give more importance to the social factors Statement B : Ego is the element in developing Erikson's theory
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Answer: A —
A true
Erikson's psychosocial theory emphasizes social factors and ego identity.
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100.
Identify the true statements in connection with Chris Argyris Statement A : He developed psycho-analytical theory Statement B : Trust Vs mistrust is a stage in his theory.
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Answer: D —
None of these
Argyris is known for organizational behavior and personality-organization conflict, not psychoanalytic theory or Erikson's stages.
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