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As published by the Kerala Public Service Commission.

All 100 questions with answers

Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer. Answers follow the official Kerala PSC answer key.

  1. 1.
    Which of the following is an oxidizing agent?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Peracetic acid
    Peracetic acid is a strong oxidizing agent used for sterilization.
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  2. 2.
    Which of the following dental instruments should either be 'Single-use disposable' or capable of being steam sterilized?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Dental forceps
    Dental forceps are critical instruments that require high-level sterilization, typically via steam.
    Report a mistake
  3. 3.
    The recommended temperature and time periods at a pressure of 15psi for sterilisation in a gravity displacement steam steriliser is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    121°C for 15 minutes
    Standard gravity displacement autoclaving is performed at 121∘C121^{\circ}C for 15 minutes at 15 psi.
    Report a mistake
  4. 4.
    Holding temperature and time for sterilisation in hot air oven is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    160°C for 120 minutes
    The standard cycle for a hot air oven is 160∘C160^{\circ}C for 2 hours (120 minutes).
    Report a mistake
  5. 5.
    All are chemical sterilants except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Sodium hypochlorite 0.5%
    Sodium hypochlorite at 0.5% is generally considered a disinfectant, not a high-level chemical sterilant.
    Report a mistake
  6. 6.
    Anesthesia equipment come under which category of Spaulding's classification
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Semicritical device
    Anesthesia equipment that touches mucous membranes is classified as semi-critical.
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  7. 7.
    Which of the following shows highest resistance to sterilising agents
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Prions
    Prions are the most resistant infectious agents to standard sterilization methods.
    Report a mistake
  8. 8.
    What is the percentage of ethyl alcohol used for hand hygiene
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    60-90%
    Alcohol-based hand rubs are most effective at concentrations between 60% and 90%.
    Report a mistake
  9. 9.
    Which of the following articles cannot be steam sterilised?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Endoscopes
    Flexible endoscopes are heat-sensitive and cannot withstand steam sterilization.
    Report a mistake
  10. 10.
    Recommended relative humidity in CSSD is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    40-50%
    The recommended relative humidity for CSSD environments is typically 40-50%.
    Report a mistake
  11. 11.
    Linen can be used a packaging material in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Ethylene oxide steriliser
    Linen is commonly used as a wrap in ethylene oxide and steam sterilizers, but check options context carefully (Note: Steam sterilizer is also valid, but based on key option A).
    Report a mistake
  12. 12.
    The organism used in Rideal Walker test is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Salmonella Typhi
    Salmonella typhi is traditionally used as the test organism in the Rideal-Walker coefficient test for disinfectants.
    Report a mistake
  13. 13.
    Workflow of CSSD should be
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Accessory area → Decontamination area → Inspection, Assembly and packing area → Sterilisation area → Storage area
    The correct directional workflow prevents cross-contamination from dirty to clean sterile zones.
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  14. 14.
    Which of the following areas should be under negative pressure?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Decontamination area
    The decontamination area is kept under negative pressure to prevent contaminated air from flowing into cleaner areas.
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  15. 15.
    Spraying the used instrument with an enzymatic solution is called
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Pre-cleaning
    Pre-cleaning involves applying enzymatic solutions to instruments at the point of use to prevent soil from drying.
    Report a mistake
  16. 16.
    Which of the following is not an advantage of Automated Endoscope Reprocessors?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    They replace manual cleaning
    Automated Endoscope Reprocessors (AERs) do not replace the essential manual cleaning step required before automated processing.
    Report a mistake
  17. 17.
    Fast sterilisation of unwrapped surgical instruments in an emergency situation is called
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Flash sterilisation
    Flash sterilisation is the process of sterilizing unwrapped instruments for immediate use.
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  18. 18.
    Which statement is not true regarding plasma sterilisation?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    occupational exposure has been linked to hematologic changes
    Plasma sterilisation is generally considered safe and does not have documented links to hematologic changes in personnel.
    Report a mistake
  19. 19.
    Which of the following procedures help to preventing formation of biofilm inside endoscopes?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    flushing with detergent
    Flushing with detergent is a critical step in removing organic material and preventing biofilm formation.
    Report a mistake
  20. 20.
    The number of contaminated organisms found in a given amount of material before undergoing a sterilizing procedure is known as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Bioburden
    Bioburden refers to the number of viable microorganisms on or in a device before sterilization.
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  21. 21.
    Reuse life of flutaraldehyde after activation is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    15-30 days
    The reuse life of activated glutaraldehyde is typically 14 to 30 days depending on the manufacturer's specifications.
    Report a mistake
  22. 22.
    Degassing to remove toxic residues should be done after sterilisation with
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Ethylene oxide
    Ethylene oxide (EtO) is a toxic gas that requires a mandatory aeration/degassing period to remove residues.
    Report a mistake
  23. 23.
    Concentration of peracetic acid used for sterilisation is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    0.1-0.2%
    Peracetic acid is typically used at low concentrations, often between 0.1% and 0.2%, for high-level disinfection or sterilization.
    Report a mistake
  24. 24.
    Precleaning is ideally done in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Point of use area
    Pre-cleaning should occur at the point of use to prevent the drying of blood and debris on instruments.
    Report a mistake
  25. 25.
    Which of the following materials should be used to wrap materials in a gas plasma steriliser?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Polypropylene
    Gas plasma sterilization requires synthetic packaging materials like polypropylene because cellulose-based materials absorb the sterilant.
    Report a mistake
  26. 26.
    Type V chemical indicators measure all the following variables except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Humidity
    Type V integrating indicators are designed to react to all critical process variables (time, temperature, and steam presence), but not humidity.
    Report a mistake
  27. 27.
    Biological indicators which work by detection of enzymes and metabolites produced by indicator organisms are
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Rapid read-out biological indicators
    Rapid read-out biological indicators use fluorescence detection of enzymes to provide results much faster than traditional spore growth methods.
    Report a mistake
  28. 28.
    Which of the following is used as sterilisation control for Ethylene oxide
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Ethylene oxide sterilization control involves biological indicators (Bacillus atrophaeus), physical monitoring (temperature), and other process checks.
    Report a mistake
  29. 29.
    Which of the following methods is not used for testing of disinfectants?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    McCrady's test
    McCrady's test is typically used for water analysis (MPN method), not for testing disinfectant efficacy.
    Report a mistake
  30. 30.
    Geobacillus stearothermophilus is used as the biological indicator in all the following methods except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Hot air oven
    Bacillus atrophaeus is the standard biological indicator for dry heat (hot air oven), whereas Geobacillus stearothermophilus is used for steam and other processes.
    Report a mistake
  31. 31.
    A preassembled test pack containing a biological indicator and a chemical indicator is called
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Process challenge device
    A Process Challenge Device (PCD) is designed to simulate the resistance of a load to the sterilization process.
    Report a mistake
  32. 32.
    Exposure indicators belong to which type of chemical indicator?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Type I
    Type I indicators are process indicators (like autoclave tape) used to distinguish between processed and unprocessed items.
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  33. 33.
    Rapid read-out biological indicators can detect spore viability in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    4 hrs
    Rapid read-out biological indicators provide results within a few hours (typically 1-4 hours).
    Report a mistake
  34. 34.
    Documentation in CSSD is useful for all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Sterility control
    Sterility control is determined by physical, chemical, and biological indicators, not directly by paperwork documentation.
    Report a mistake
  35. 35.
    The amount of disinfectant solution taken for doing in use test of Kelsey and Maurer is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    1 mL
    In the Kelsey-Maurer in-use test, specific quantities like 1 mL of disinfectant are tested against microbial suspensions.
    Report a mistake
  36. 36.
    Which statement is more appropriate regarding packaging systems used in CSSD
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    All stated attributes are essential requirements for sterile barrier packaging systems in CSSD.
    Report a mistake
  37. 37.
    All are advantages of reusable woven fabrics for packing except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Reuse possible even if there are holes in the fabric
    Reusable woven fabrics cannot be reused if they have holes, as this compromises the sterile barrier.
    Report a mistake
  38. 38.
    All are true regarding storage of sterilized items except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    There should be negative air flow from the sterile area to other area
    Sterile storage areas require positive air pressure to prevent dust and contaminated air from entering.
    Report a mistake
  39. 39.
    Packages should be labelled with
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Proper traceability requires packages to be labeled with content, lot/batch number, expiry date, and operator details.
    Report a mistake
  40. 40.
    The following parameters should be looked upon while planning CSSD laundry
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    All these factors are crucial for sizing and planning a hospital CSSD laundry facility.
    Report a mistake
  41. 41.
    The following are activities at the generation point in case of non critical areas before linen and equipments are brought to CSSD and mechanized laundry except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Distribution
    Distribution happens after processing in CSSD, not at the generation point in non-critical areas.
    Report a mistake
  42. 42.
    Disinfection of soiled linen should be done by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    0.5% sodium hypochlorite solution
    0.5% sodium hypochlorite solution is commonly recommended for disinfecting soiled hospital linens.
    Report a mistake
  43. 43.
    Which of the following statement is false regarding activities at CSSD
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    There should be a common window for receiving and dispatching items
    Separate windows or completely separate routes must be maintained for receiving dirty items and dispatching sterile items to prevent cross-contamination.
    Report a mistake
  44. 44.
    True statement regarding Rigid reusable instrument container in CSSD
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Rigid containers are made of durable metals/plastics, used for moist heat sterilization, and feature filtered vents.
    Report a mistake
  45. 45.
    All are functions of storage area except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    If sterile packs are found torn, or already opened or wet, the whole sterilization process need not be repeated
    If a sterile pack is torn, opened, or wet, the sterile barrier is breached, and the items must be completely re-cleaned, repackaged, and re-sterilized.
    Report a mistake
  46. 46.
    The statement more appropriate regarding issue and distribution of items after sterulization at CSSD
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    All options correctly detail standard protocols for handling and distribution of sterile supplies.
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  47. 47.
    All are true regarding chemical indicators except,
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Type III indicator is Bowie Dick, only used for pre vacuum steriliser
    Bowie-Dick test is specifically classified as a Type II chemical indicator designed for air removal evaluation in pre-vacuum steam sterilizers.
    Report a mistake
  48. 48.
    All are advantages of steam sterilizer except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Suitable for sterilization of oils and powders
    Steam sterilization is ineffective for oils and powders because moisture cannot penetrate anhydrous substances; dry heat ovens are used instead.
    Report a mistake
  49. 49.
    All are advantages of Ethylene oxide sterilizer except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Long duration of cycles due to aeration phase
    The long cycle duration due to the required aeration phase to remove toxic residues is a disadvantage, not an advantage.
    Report a mistake
  50. 50.
    Select the most appropriate statement regarding the disadvantages of Gas plasma sterilizer
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilizers are expensive, have limited penetration, and cannot process cellulose or water-absorbing materials.
    Report a mistake
  51. 51.
    All the statement are true regarding handling Dirty line except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    All listed practices are standard safety protocols for handling contaminated linen.
    Report a mistake
  52. 52.
    All the statement are true regarding handling Dirty equipment except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Trays/Trolleys used for the transportation of dirty equipment can be used to transport of sterilized instruments
    Using the same trolley for dirty and sterile instruments poses a high risk of cross-contamination.
    Report a mistake
  53. 53.
    All the statement are true Ultrasonic cleaner except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Precleaning before subjecting to instruments is not needed
    Pre-cleaning is essential to remove gross soil before placing instruments in an ultrasonic cleaner.
    Report a mistake
  54. 54.
    The activities related to preventive maintenance of equipments are
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Preventive maintenance includes routine tasks like calibration, lubrication, and scheduled part replacement to ensure equipment longevity.
    Report a mistake
  55. 55.
    The following persons are responsible when a medical equipment is installed
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Installation involves a coordinated effort between all stakeholders including specifiers, suppliers, and end-users.
    Report a mistake
  56. 56.
    All the following are possible causes of inadequate heating in an Autoclave except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Blocked safety valve
    A blocked safety valve would typically cause over-pressurization rather than inadequate heating.
    Report a mistake
  57. 57.
    The following activities should be supervised by CSSD in charge
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    The CSSD in-charge is responsible for overseeing protocols, security, and documentation.
    Report a mistake
  58. 58.
    All are chemical sterilizers used in CSSD except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Steam sterilizer
    Steam sterilization is a physical method of sterilization, not a chemical one.
    Report a mistake
  59. 59.
    Components of effective maintenance strategy of an equipment includes
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    An effective maintenance strategy encompasses documentation, inventory management, and lifecycle management.
    Report a mistake
  60. 60.
    Mention the appropriate option regarding computerized maintenance management system (CMMS)
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    CMMS is a comprehensive tool for tracking inventory, maintenance history, and scheduling.
    Report a mistake
  61. 61.
    A connection between two excitable cells in the contact surfaces between two neurons is called
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Synapse
    A synapse is the junction between two neurons where information is transmitted.
    Report a mistake
  62. 62.
    The electrical pulse generator used to restart the heart rhythm is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Pacemaker
    A pacemaker is an electronic device that provides electrical stimuli to the heart to maintain a normal rhythm.
    Report a mistake
  63. 63.
    MRI technique makes use of which region in electromagnetic spectra is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Radio frequency region
    MRI uses strong magnetic fields and radio frequency pulses to generate images.
    Report a mistake
  64. 64.
    The membrane which encloses the skeletal bones is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Periostium
    The periosteum is a dense layer of vascular connective tissue enveloping the bones.
    Report a mistake
  65. 65.
    In blood, pH below 7.35 indicates
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Respiratory acidosis
    A blood pH below 7.35 is defined as acidosis.
    Report a mistake
  66. 66.
    In which mode the ultrasound scanners reflected echoes are depicted as dots on screen
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    B-mode
    B-mode (Brightness mode) displays the reflected echoes as dots of varying brightness.
    Report a mistake
  67. 67.
    The positive potential of the cell membrane during excitation is about
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    20 mV
    During the action potential, the membrane potential typically reaches a positive value of approximately +20 mV.
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  68. 68.
    The resolving power of an electron microscope is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    2 AV
    Electron microscopes have a very high resolving power, often in the range of 2 Angstroms (Å).
    Report a mistake
  69. 69.
    The procedure which washers the lungs and collects the sample of lung cells fluids, microbes etc is called
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Lavage
    Bronchoalveolar lavage is a procedure where fluid is introduced into the lungs and then collected for analysis.
    Report a mistake
  70. 70.
    Electrocardiogram refers to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    ECG wave pattern
    An electrocardiogram is the recorded tracing of the heart's electrical activity.
    Report a mistake
  71. 71.
    In flame photometer the output of sodium and pottassium channel are calibrated in terms of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Difference with known lithium
    Lithium is commonly used as an internal standard in flame photometry for calibration.
    Report a mistake
  72. 72.
    The loss of energy of incident radiation appears in the form of white x-rays and are known as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Bremsstrahlung radiation
    Bremsstrahlung radiation is produced by the deceleration of charged particles, resulting in a continuous X-ray spectrum.
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  73. 73.
    When a normal person is awake in a quiet resting state, which region occurs in alpha waves
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Occipetal
    Alpha waves are most prominent in the occipital region during relaxed wakefulness.
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  74. 74.
    The suitable frequency range proposed in the ultrasonic diathermy is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    800 Khz - 1 MHz
    Ultrasonic diathermy typically operates in the frequency range of 0.8 to 1 MHz.
    Report a mistake
  75. 75.
    A high voltage source in x-rays machine is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Autotransformer
    An autotransformer is used in X-ray machines to adjust the input voltage to the step-up transformer.
    Report a mistake
  76. 76.
    The indirect method of BP measurement is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Sphygmomanometer
    Sphygmomanometry is the standard non-invasive (indirect) method for measuring blood pressure.
    Report a mistake
  77. 77.
    Which liquid is suitable for Nebulizer
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Albuterol sulphate
    Albuterol sulphate is a common medication administered via nebulizer for respiratory conditions.
    Report a mistake
  78. 78.
    The element which is used to improve the sharpness of image in x-ray machines is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Bucky grid
    A Bucky grid is used to reduce scatter radiation, thereby improving image contrast and sharpness.
    Report a mistake
  79. 79.
    The instrument which is used to measure pulsatile blood flow
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Electromagnetic blood flow meter
    Electromagnetic flow meters are commonly used to measure blood flow based on Faraday's law of induction.
    Report a mistake
  80. 80.
    In phototherapy treatment, the wavelength of the uv light must be
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    420-500 nm
    Phototherapy for neonatal jaundice typically uses blue light in the 420-500 nm range.
    Report a mistake
  81. 81.
    Which is the first NABH accredited Hospital in Kerala?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    MIMS
    MIMS (Malabar Institute of Medical Sciences) was the first hospital in Kerala to receive NABH accreditation.
    Report a mistake
  82. 82.
    Who is the father of Biomedical engineering?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Otto Schimtt
    Otto Schmitt is widely recognized for his contributions to the field of biomedical engineering.
    Report a mistake
  83. 83.
    When PCPNDT act passed in India?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    1994
    The Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (PCPNDT) Act was passed in 1994.
    Report a mistake
  84. 84.
    Which authority issued Drug license in India?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    CDSCO
    The Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) is the national regulatory body for pharmaceuticals and medical devices.
    Report a mistake
  85. 85.
    AERB was constituted in the year?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    1983
    The Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) was constituted in 1983.
    Report a mistake
  86. 86.
    In a fullwave bridge rectifier with out filter, the riplle factor is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    0.482
    The theoretical ripple factor for a full-wave rectifier without a filter is approximately 0.482.
    Report a mistake
  87. 87.
    Among the following statements which are wrong about Bipolar junction Transistors? (i) Bipolar Junction Transistor is a current-driven device (ii) Bipolar Junction Transistor is a voltage-driven device (iii) Bipolar Junction Transistor has low input impedance (iv) Bipolar Junction Transistor has better thermal stability
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Only (ii) and (iv)
    Statements (ii) and (iv) are wrong: BJTs are current-driven devices and have poor thermal stability compared to FETs.
    Report a mistake
  88. 88.
    ___________ is a type of diode whose internal capacitance varies with respect to the reverse voltage
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Varactor Diode
    A varactor diode operates as a variable capacitor dependent on the reverse bias voltage.
    Report a mistake
  89. 89.
    The open loop gain of a 741 IC is typically
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    2imes1052 imes 10^5
    The typical open-loop voltage gain of a 741 operational amplifier is 200,000200,000 (2imes1052 imes 10^5).
    Report a mistake
  90. 90.
    The main component responsible for the lowering of gain in an RC coupled amplifier in low frequency region is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Coupling capacitors
    At low frequencies, the reactance of coupling and bypass capacitors increases, leading to a drop in gain.
    Report a mistake
  91. 91.
    The width of depletion layer of PN junction
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Is increased when reverse biased
    Applying a reverse bias voltage across a PN junction widens the depletion region.
    Report a mistake
  92. 92.
    IC555 operates on supply voltage of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    +5V to +18V
    The standard 555 timer IC operates with a DC supply voltage ranging from +5V to +18V.
    Report a mistake
  93. 93.
    In an amplifier the coupling capactors are used for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Preventing DC mixing with input or output
    Coupling capacitors block DC components while allowing AC signal to pass between amplifier stages.
    Report a mistake
  94. 94.
    Voltmeter should be of very high resistance so that
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    It may draw minimum current
    A high resistance voltmeter draws minimal current, avoiding disruption to the circuit being measured.
    Report a mistake
  95. 95.
    PMMC type instruments normally use
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    eddy current damping
    Permanent Magnet Moving Coil (PMMC) instruments primarily utilize eddy current damping for pointer stabilization.
    Report a mistake
  96. 96.
    The internal resistance of primary cell varies
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Inversely with the surface area of electrode
    Internal resistance decreases as the surface area of the electrodes immersed in electrolyte increases (inverse relationship).
    Report a mistake
  97. 97.
    The resistance of wire varies inversely as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Area of cross section
    Resistance R=holAR = ho \frac{l}{A}, meaning resistance varies inversely with cross-sectional area AA.
    Report a mistake
  98. 98.
    Among the following statements which are true about an open coil (i) Infinite resistance (ii) Zero resistance (iii) Zero inductance (iv) Infinite inductance
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    (i) and (iii)
    An open circuit/coil has infinite resistance and zero current, hence zero magnetic field/inductance.
    Report a mistake
  99. 99.
    Two capacitors each having capacitance C and breakdown voltage V are joined in series. The capacitance and breakdown voltage of the combination will be
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    C/2 and 2V
    In series connection, capacitance halves (C/2C/2) and voltage ratings add up (2V2V).
    Report a mistake
  100. 100.
    Among the following statements which are wrong about transformer (i) it changes the level of the voltage (ii) it changes the level of impedence (iii) it changes the level of current (iv) it changes the level of frequency
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Only (ii) and (iv)
    Transformers do not change frequency (statement iv is wrong), making (ii) and (iv) the incorrect attributes depending on grouping or specific incorrect property; wait, statement (iv) is definitely wrong because frequency remains unchanged.
    Report a mistake

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