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100 questions with answersProvisional keyAssistant Grade

Assistant Professor in Community Medicine- Medical Education question paper 2024

Question paper code
45/2024/OL
Questions
100
Answer key
Provisional Answer Key
Exam mode
Online (computer based)

Provisional key. Kerala PSC can change answers after reviewing complaints; the final key decides the marks.

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Source: Kerala PSC (keralapsc.gov.in) · official document· Last updated 25 Sept 2026· How we check content

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As published by the Kerala Public Service Commission.

All 100 questions with answers

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  1. 1.
    All are true about Ayushman Bharath Yojana except.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Health and Wellness Centres are renamed as Ayushman Arogya Bhavan
    Ayushman Bharat Health and Wellness Centres were renamed as Ayushman Arogya Mandir, not Ayushman Arogya Bhavan.
    Report a mistake
  2. 2.
    Which of the following statements are true ? I. Eat Right Summit 2023 was organized by Food Safety and Standards of India. II. Theme of Eat Right Summit 2023 was Vitamins and Minerals (Shri Anna). III. According to State Food Safety Index 2022-23, Kerala secured the first rank among larger states. IV. According to State Food Safety Index 2022-23, Maharashtra secured the first rank among larger States.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    I and III
    Eat Right Summit 2023 was organized by FSSAI, and Kerala secured the first rank among larger states in the State Food Safety Index 2022-23.
    Report a mistake
  3. 3.
    Which disease is associated with DASH approach ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Hypertension
    DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) is a diet plan designed to help treat or prevent high blood pressure.
    Report a mistake
  4. 4.
    Which of the following statement is false about POMPE disease ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    It results in the accumulation of glucose in cells, particularly in nerves
    Pompe disease results in the accumulation of glycogen in lysosomes, not glucose.
    Report a mistake
  5. 5.
    Which of the following statements are true about fortified rice kernels ? I. Fortified rice kernels contain FSSAI-prescribed micronutrients like Iron, Folic Acid, Vitamin D to normal rice. II. The ratio of Kernels to normal rice is 50 : 1. III. Coating, extrusion and dusting are key technologies for rice fortification. IV. Its distribution is under public distribution system.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    III and IV
    Coating, extrusion, and dusting are the key technologies, and fortified rice is distributed under the PDS.
    Report a mistake
  6. 6.
    The management technique used by all who plans a meal so that each part of the menu is completed at the same time is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Program evaluation and review technique
    PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique) is used for scheduling and coordinating tasks to ensure timely completion.
    Report a mistake
  7. 7.
    Which of the following statements are false according to REGISTRATION OF BIRTH AND DEATH (AMENDMENT) ACT, 2023 ? I. The Chief Registrar of India will maintain a national database of registered births and deaths. II. The Registrar General of India shall maintain a similar database at the state level. III. Any person aggrieved by any action or order of the Registrar or District Registrar may appeal to the District Registrar or Chief Registrar, respectively, within 21 days. IV. The Registrar General of India will work under Ministry of Health and family welfare.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    I, II, III and IV
    All the listed statements are false regarding the specific provisions of the 2023 Amendment Act.
    Report a mistake
  8. 8.
    Which of the following statement is false about the Rogi Kalyan Samithi ? I. Rogi Kalyan Samithi is function as a government body. II. It is a Registered society. III. Private agencies can be permitted to provide high tech services of MRI, CT scan etc. IV. It consists of members like MLA/MP, Health officials, Local district officials, members from community etc.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    I
    Rogi Kalyan Samithi functions as a registered society, not a government body.
    Report a mistake
  9. 9.
    “6 × 6 × 6 ” strategy is addressing to control
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Anemia
    The 6x6x6 strategy is part of the Anemia Mukt Bharat initiative.
    Report a mistake
  10. 10.
    Which principle of Primary health care is applied in the theme of Bare-foot doctors in China ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Community participation
    Barefoot doctors were local community members trained to provide basic health services, embodying community participation.
    Report a mistake
  11. 11.
    Which is not a difference between Millenium Development Goal (MDG) and Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    MDGs, primarily targeted the developed countries, while the SDGs are applicable to all countries, including developing ones
    MDGs were primarily targeted at developing countries, not developed countries.
    Report a mistake
  12. 12.
    One Health Approach is dealing with all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Non-communicable diseases
    One Health focuses on the intersection of human, animal, and environmental health, primarily addressing infectious diseases and zoonoses, not non-communicable diseases.
    Report a mistake
  13. 13.
    Which of the following statements are true ? I. There are five types of Malarial parasites. II. RTS, S/AS01 (RTS, S) malaria vaccine can be used for prevention of P . falciparum malaria. III. Malaria vaccine ‘Mosquirix’ it is a mRNA vaccine.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    I and II
    Mosquirix (RTS,S) is a recombinant protein-based vaccine, not an mRNA vaccine.
    Report a mistake
  14. 14.
    Some key initiatives by India to contain antimicrobial resistance are all except I. “Delhi declaration on antimicrobial resistance” in September 2011. II. “National Programme on Containment of Antimicrobial Resistance” was launched under the five-year plan which included Schedule H2. III. “Medicines with the Red Line” media. IV. Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) released “Antibiotic Residues limits” in food from animal origin.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    I and II
    The Delhi Declaration on AMR was in 2017, not 2011.
    Report a mistake
  15. 15.
    Who is known as the father of public health ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Cholera
    The question is likely flawed as the options provided are diseases or scientists, but based on the provided answer key, it points to C.
    Report a mistake
  16. 16.
    The pioneer in concept of specific protection with immunization was
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Early Chinese physicians
    Early Chinese physicians practiced variolation, a form of immunization against smallpox.
    Report a mistake
  17. 17.
    Which of the following statements are true ? I. World Environment Day is celebrated every year on June. II. It is celebrated as part of WHO Environment Programme to build awareness to save life on planet Earth. III. Host of the World Environment Day 2023 was the West African country of Côted’Ivoire, in partnership with the Holand with theme ‘Beat Plastic Pollution.’ IV. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, India on occasion of WED 2023 launched two schemes named Amrit Dharohar and MISHTI.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    I and II
    The question was cancelled by the KPSC.
    Report a mistake
  18. 18.
    The following statements are false about mRNA vaccine. I. mRNA vaccines use Messenger RNA to teach our cells how to make a carbohydrate molecule that triggers an immune response inside our bodies. II. “Robust immune response” has been observed against the Covid-19 spike protein in mice upon administration of two doses of the mRNA. III. The anti-spike antibodies generated were found to be more than 90% efficient in preventing the human ACE1 receptor binding to the Coronavirus. IV. mRNA vaccines are fully synthetic and do not require a host for growth.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    I and III
    mRNA vaccines teach cells to make a protein (not carbohydrate), and statement III is factually incorrect regarding the specific efficiency percentage.
    Report a mistake
  19. 19.
    The funding agency for Global Alliance for Vaccine and Immunization (GAVI) is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Bill and Melinda Gates foundation
    The Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation is a major founding partner and donor for GAVI.
    Report a mistake
  20. 20.
    Which one measure the degree of attainment of the predetermined objectives and targets of a health programme in terms of health benefits, problem reduction or an improvement in health situation ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Effectiveness
    Effectiveness measures the extent to which a program achieves its stated objectives.
    Report a mistake
  21. 21.
    Following are differences of Anophelini and Culicini species of mosquito except I. Anophelini mosquitoes lay eggs in single whereas culicine mosquito lays eggs in rafts. II. Larvae of Anophelini mosquitoes will lie suspended with head downwards at an angle to water surface whereas culicine mosquito larvae lie parallel to water surface. III. Siphon tube of pupae of Anophelini mosquitoes is narrow and short and Siphon tube of pupae of culicine mosquito is long and broad. IV. Wings of the Anophelini mosquitoes are unspotted and wings of the culicine mosquito is spotted.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    II, III and IV
    Statement IV is incorrect as Anopheles wings are typically spotted and Culicine wings are typically unspotted.
    Report a mistake
  22. 22.
    All are insecticides of the category “Synthetic contact poison” except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Pyrethrum
    Pyrethrum is a natural insecticide derived from chrysanthemum flowers.
    Report a mistake
  23. 23.
    Following statements are true about Universal Health Coverage. I. Universal Health Coverage ensure health services for all Indian citizens in any part of the country, regardless of income level, social status, gender, caste or religion. II. Government must the guarantor, enabler and the only provider of health and related services. III. The High-Level Expert Group (HLEG) on Universal Health Coverage set up by the planning Commission to define a comprehensive strategy for health for the Twelfth Five Year Plan recommended that, Government should increase public expenditure on health from the current 1.2% of GDP to at least 6% of GDP by 2022. IV. The High-Level Expert Group (HLEG) on Universal Health Coverage also recommended that General taxation should be used as the principal source of healthcare financing.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    I and IV
    HLEG recommended increasing public expenditure to 2.5% of GDP, not 6%.
    Report a mistake
  24. 24.
    Which of the following statements are false ? I. TB National Strategic Plan (NSP) (2017 − 2025) has three pillars which are Detect − Treat − Prevent − Build. II. National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP) aims to eliminate TB in India by 2025. III. Pradhan Mantri TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyan (PMTBMBA), 2022 − Also known as Ni-kshay Mitra initiative in which one can adopt TB patients and provide them with monthly treatment support. IV. Ayushman Bharat Digital Health Mission-Under it, digital health IDs for TB patients have been created for better monitoring and treatment.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    I and III
    The pillars of the NSP are Detect, Treat, Prevent, and Build (4 pillars), and PMTBMBA is correctly described.
    Report a mistake
  25. 25.
    All terms are concerned with inventory control in a PHC except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    One bin method
    Inventory control methods typically include the two-bin system, not the one-bin method.
    Report a mistake
  26. 26.
    If a person's fasting blood glucose value is more than or equal to 110 mg/dl and less than 126 mg/dl, and the two-hour post glucose load is not more than 140 mg/dl, the person is considered to have
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Impaired fasting glucose
    Impaired fasting glucose is defined by fasting plasma glucose levels between 110 mg/dl and 125 mg/dl.
    Report a mistake
  27. 27.
    "Ilsoated systolic hypertension" is defined as
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    A systolic blood pressure of 140 mm of Hg or more and a diastolic blood pressure of less than 90 mm of Hg
    Isolated systolic hypertension is defined as systolic BP ≥140\ge 140 mmHg and diastolic BP <90< 90 mmHg.
    Report a mistake
  28. 28.
    The prevalence of hypertension among men and women as per the findings of the National Family Health Survey NFHS-5 are _______ and _______ respectively.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    24 percent and 21 percent
    NFHS-5 data indicates hypertension prevalence is 24% in men and 21% in women.
    Report a mistake
  29. 29.
    Which of the following is not a provision of the “The Cigarettes and other Tobacco Products (Prohibition of Advertisement and Regulation of Trade and Commerce, Production, Supply and Distribution) Act, 2003” ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Prohibition of sale of cigarette and other tobacco products to a person below the age of 21 years
    The COTPA Act prohibits the sale of tobacco products to persons below the age of 18 years, not 21.
    Report a mistake
  30. 30.
    Which of the following drugs is not part of the Kerala state treatment protocol for type 2 diabetes Mellitus ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    None of the above
    All listed drugs are commonly used in the management of type 2 diabetes.
    Report a mistake
  31. 31.
    According to the India Hypertension Control Initiative (IHCI), all patients above ______ years above visiting any primary health centre is to be subjected to blood pressure measurement.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    18 years
    IHCI guidelines recommend screening for all adults aged 18 years and above.
    Report a mistake
  32. 32.
    Non Communicable Diseases Clinics function in a subcentre on
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Thursday
    NCD clinics in Kerala subcentres are typically scheduled for Thursdays.
    Report a mistake
  33. 33.
    The FAO/WHO committee suggested that after the age of 40 years, requirements should be reduced by ________ per cent per each decade until the age of 60, and by ______ per cent for each decade thereafter.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    5, 10
    Energy requirements are reduced by 5% per decade from 40-60 and 10% per decade after 60.
    Report a mistake
  34. 34.
    The Kerala Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) Prevention and control Program is called
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    SWAAS (Stepwise Approach to Airway Disease)
    SWAAS is the state-level program in Kerala for COPD management.
    Report a mistake
  35. 35.
    Central obesity in women is defined by a
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Waist circumference of more than or equal to 80 cm
    For Asian women, central obesity is defined as a waist circumference ≥80\ge 80 cm.
    Report a mistake
  36. 36.
    The recommended physical activity requirement for weight reduction is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    60 minutes/day
    For weight loss and maintenance, 60 minutes of moderate-intensity activity is recommended.
    Report a mistake
  37. 37.
    Screening for cancer cervix after a population-based screening is to be conducted once in how many years according to the national programme ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Once in five years
    The national screening program recommends cervical cancer screening every 5 years for women aged 30-65.
    Report a mistake
  38. 38.
    The effect measure obtained from a case-control study without taking into consideration, variables other than the exposure and outcome is called
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Crude odds ratio
    The crude odds ratio is calculated without adjusting for confounding variables.
    Report a mistake
  39. 39.
    The appropriate measure of dispersion for a variable that is normally distributed is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Standard deviation
    Standard deviation is the standard measure of dispersion paired with the mean for normally distributed data.
    Report a mistake
  40. 40.
    The probability of erroneously rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true is called
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Type I error
    Rejecting a true null hypothesis is a Type I error (alpha error).
    Report a mistake
  41. 41.
    Which test is used as the nonparametric equivalent of students t-test ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Mann Whitney ‘U’ test
    The Mann-Whitney U test is the non-parametric equivalent of the independent samples t-test.
    Report a mistake
  42. 42.
    If the sensitivity of a diagnostic test is 95%, it means
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    95% of those with the disease will be test positive
    Sensitivity is the proportion of true positives correctly identified by the test among those who have the disease.
    Report a mistake
  43. 43.
    In a meta-analysis, the visual display of the results of individual studies and pooled estimates are given by a
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Forest plot
    A forest plot is used in meta-analyses to display the results of individual studies alongside the overall pooled estimate.
    Report a mistake
  44. 44.
    If a diagnostic test is invariably correct the value of the Youden index will be
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    1
    Youden's J statistic = Sensitivity + Specificity - 1. For a perfect test, Sensitivity = 1 and Specificity = 1, giving 1+1−1=11 + 1 - 1 = 1.
    Report a mistake
  45. 45.
    Informed voluntary consent protects the individual's freedom of choice. This is enshrined in which of the following ethical principles ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Autonomy
    Autonomy upholds the individual's right to self-determination and freedom of choice.
    Report a mistake
  46. 46.
    The degree to which the results of a study are correct for the sample of patients being studied is called
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Internal validity
    Internal validity refers to whether the results are valid for the specific participants studied.
    Report a mistake
  47. 47.
    Trials which address the question, can the treatment help under ideal circumstances are
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Efficacy trials
    Efficacy trials evaluate whether an intervention works under ideal, controlled experimental conditions.
    Report a mistake
  48. 48.
    What is the calorie and Recommended Daily Allowance (RDA) of protein required for a sedentary lactating mother weighing 60 kg and with a 3-month old infant ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    2260 kcal, 66.8 gm protein
    According to ICMR guidelines, a sedentary lactating mother (0-6 months) requires 2260 kcal and 66.8 gm of protein.
    Report a mistake
  49. 49.
    Analysis of a sample of cow's milk supplied to a house showed the following results : Fat – 2 gm Specific gravity − 900 Protein − 1.5 gm Phosphatase test is positive The quality of milk is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Adulterated, not pasteurized milk
    This question was cancelled in the official answer key.
    Report a mistake
  50. 50.
    Global Hunger Index scores are based on the following indicators, except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Infant mortality
    GHI uses undernourishment, child stunting, child wasting, and child mortality (not infant mortality).
    Report a mistake
  51. 51.
    The following is true for niacin except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    It is not metabolized in the body
    Niacin is metabolized and its metabolites/derivatives are excreted in urine, making option A false.
    Report a mistake
  52. 52.
    Anti-nutritional substance present in raw egg is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Avidin
    Avidin is an anti-nutritional glycoprotein found in raw egg whites that binds biotin.
    Report a mistake
  53. 53.
    Diet used in Nutritional Rehabilitation Center for the management of severe acute malnutrition during the initial stabilization phase and rehabilitation phase respectively is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    F-75 and F-100
    F-75 is used in the stabilization phase and F-100 is used in the rehabilitation phase for SAM management.
    Report a mistake
  54. 54.
    Recommended Daily Allowance of protein required for a 25 yr old pregnant house wife weighing 50 kg during the and trimester of pregnancy is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    51 gm, 63.5 gm
    According to ICMR tables, additional protein allowances apply during pregnancy trimesters, totaling values around 51g and 63.5g.
    Report a mistake
  55. 55.
    Protein Efficiency Ratio (PER) is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Protein Efficiency Ratio definition
    PER is defined as the weight gain of a test subject divided by its intake of a particular food protein during the test period.
    Report a mistake
  56. 56.
    According to WHO criteria, which of the following are considered as evidence of Vit. A deficiency in a community survey conducted among pre-school children aged between 6 months to 6 years. Prevalence of i. Night blindness > 0.5% ii. Bitot spots > 1% iii. Corneal xerosis > 0.01% iv. Corneal ulcer > 0.05% v. Serum retinol < 10 mcg/dl > 5%
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Only iii, iv, v
    WHO criteria specify corneal xerosis > 0.01%, corneal ulcer > 0.05%, and serum retinol < 10 mcg/dl > 5% as public health significance thresholds.
    Report a mistake
  57. 57.
    'Rashtriya Poshan Maah' theme for the year 2023 was
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Nutrition rich India, Educated India and Empowered India
    The theme for Rashtriya Poshan Maah 2023 focused on inclusive themes promoting nutrition, education, and empowerment.
    Report a mistake
  58. 58.
    Calculate the quantity of bleaching powder required to disinfect a well measuring 4 m in diameter and 25 m in depth if the Horrock's apparatus shows blue colour in cup.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    6.9 kg
    Calculated based on well volume and chlorine demand titration results using Horrock's apparatus.
    Report a mistake
  59. 59.
    Analysis of water sample taken from an area showed the following results : Turbidity 1 NTU Hardness 300 mg/L Fluorides 0.7 mg/L Chloride 200 mg/L Water quality can be improved by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Sodium carbonate addition
    The hardness level and chemical balance indicate temporary/permanent hardness that can be softened or treated with sodium carbonate addition.
    Report a mistake
  60. 60.
    Free chlorine in water is determined by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Orthotolidine test
    The Orthotolidine test is standard for estimating free and combined chlorine residuals in water.
    Report a mistake
  61. 61.
    'smog' occurs due to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Temperature inversion
    Temperature inversion traps pollutants near the ground, leading to the formation and accumulation of smog.
    Report a mistake
  62. 62.
    Which of the following factors are used for measuring Corrected Effective Temperature (CET) ? i. Air temperature ii. Sweat rate iii. Humidity iv. Mean radiant heat.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    iii, iv, i
    Corrected Effective Temperature accounts for air temperature, humidity, and mean radiant heat.
    Report a mistake
  63. 63.
    When 'wind' blows through a room it is called ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Perflation
    Perflation refers to the sweeping or blowing of wind directly through a room or space.
    Report a mistake
  64. 64.
    Disease transmitted by Hard tick are the following except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Q Fever
    Q fever is primarily caused by *Coxiella burnetii* and is usually transmitted by inhalation of dust contaminated with birth fluids, placenta, or excreta of infected animals rather than tick bites.
    Report a mistake
  65. 65.
    The recommended unit for measurement of 'Luminous intensity' is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Candela
    Candela is the SI base unit of luminous intensity.
    Report a mistake
  66. 66.
    Rickettsial pox is transmitted by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Mite
    Rickettsial pox is transmitted by the bite of house mouse mites (*Liponyssoides sanguineus*).
    Report a mistake
  67. 67.
    Insecticide with no residual action is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Pyrethrum
    Pyrethrum breaks down quickly in sunlight and has virtually no residual insecticide action.
    Report a mistake
  68. 68.
    Father of "Occupational Health" is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Bernardino Ramazzini
    Bernardino Ramazzini is widely recognized as the father of occupational health.
    Report a mistake
  69. 69.
    The three domains of ergonomics are the following except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Economical
    The three recognized domains of ergonomics are physical, cognitive, and organizational.
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  70. 70.
    Pneumoconiosis showing 'ground glass appearance' in rd of lung fields in chest X-ray is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Asbestosis
    Asbestosis classically presents with basal opacities and characteristic radiographic patterns.
    Report a mistake
  71. 71.
    Under Indian Factories Act, 1948, a 'child' is defined as an individual who has not completed his
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    15 yr
    Under the Factories Act, 1948, a child is a person who has not completed his fifteenth year of age.
    Report a mistake
  72. 72.
    Which of the following statements are correct regarding employment of adolescents under the Factories Act, 1948 ? i. Adolescents are aged between 15 to 18 yrs. ii. Hours of work is 4½ hrs per day for adolescent. iii. Adolescent employee is allowed to work only between 6 am and 6 pm. iv. Adolescents are entitled to leave with wages for every 15 days of work.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    i, ii, iv
    Statements i, ii, and iv correctly reflect provisions for adolescent workers under the Factories Act.
    Report a mistake
  73. 73.
    Type of ethics review in quality assurance audits
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Exemption from review
    Quality assurance audits typically qualify for exemption from formal ethical review.
    Report a mistake
  74. 74.
    Match the following based on ethical consideration of consent : I. Disasters K. Counsellor II. Change the duration of follow up L. Waiver of consent III. Children between 7-12 years M. Re-consent IV. Witness of illiterate participant N. Relative of the participant O. Written assent and it must be signed by parents P. Written assent Q. Verbal assent obtained in the presence of parents
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    I-(L), II-(M), III-(Q), IV-(K)
    Matching corresponds to ICMR ethical guidelines for biomedical research involving human participants.
    Report a mistake
  75. 75.
    Which of the following is the most cost-effective treatment for the disease 'X' ? Standard treatment : The cost for treating disease 'X' is Rs. 3,000, and the number of life years saved is 2. Drug E : The cost for treating disease 'X' is Rs. 5,000 and the number of years of life saved was 5. Drug F : The cost for treating disease 'X' is Rs. 6,000 and the number of years of life saved was 7. Drug G : The cost for treating disease 'X' is Rs. 10,000 and the number of years of life saved was 8. Drug H : The cost for treating disease 'X' is Rs. 15,000 and the number of years of life saved was 10.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Drug F
    Incremental cost-effectiveness ratio (ICER) analysis shows Drug F offers the optimal balance of cost per additional life year saved.
    Report a mistake
  76. 76.
    Socratic method of communication involves
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Active learning
    The Socratic method uses guided questioning to stimulate critical thinking and active learning.
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  77. 77.
    No-Scalpel Vasectomy is an example of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Social control
    Family planning measures like vasectomy act as tools for population policy and social control.
    Report a mistake
  78. 78.
    Which of the following statements are correct for Panel Discussion ? 1. It is a group of four to eight expert persons. 2. There is an order of speaking. 3. There is an active participation of audience. 4. Helps to explore a problem in many angles.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    1 and 4
    A panel discussion involves a small group of experts (4-8) discussing a topic from various angles (1 and 4).
    Report a mistake
  79. 79.
    All are true about Medical Social Worker EXCEPT
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Provide vaccination
    Providing vaccination is a clinical/nursing function, not the primary role of a medical social worker.
    Report a mistake
  80. 80.
    There are two interventions, A and B, proposed for the TB elimination program in a district. However, funds are allocated for intervention A. What type of cost is this ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Opportunity cost
    Choosing one intervention over another forfeits the benefits of the forgone alternative, representing opportunity cost.
    Report a mistake
  81. 81.
    After the completion of a regulatory clinical trial, how many years must the research records be archived ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    5 years
    Regulatory clinical trial records are typically required to be archived for at least 5 years post-trial completion.
    Report a mistake
  82. 82.
    All are true about Informed Consent Document (ICD) except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Only one part
    Informed consent is a comprehensive document and ongoing process with multiple elements, not 'only one part'.
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  83. 83.
    "Free pratique" means i. Permission for a ship to enter a port, embark or disembark, discharge or load cargo or stores. ii. Permission for a voyage between points of entry in the territories of more than one state. iii. Permission for an aircraft, after landing, to embark or disembark, but not discharge or load cargo or stores. iv. Permission for a voyage between points of entry in the territory or territories of the same state.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    i and iii
    Free pratique grants permission for a ship or aircraft to enter port and disembark after health clearance.
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  84. 84.
    For how long is a Ship Sanitation Control Exemption Certificate valid ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    6 months
    Ship Sanitation Control Exemption Certificates are issued for a maximum period of 6 months.
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  85. 85.
    Following are the services of UNICEF (United Nations International Children's Fund) except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    TB control program
    TB control is managed by specific national programs and WHO, whereas UNICEF focuses on child health, nutrition, and education.
    Report a mistake
  86. 86.
    Which of the following is true regarding the prohibition of sales of cigarettes and tobacco products in the premises of educational institutions ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Strictly prohibited within a radius of one hundred yards and fine up to 200 rupees
    COTPA prohibits sale within 100 yards of educational institutions with a fine up to Rs. 200.
    Report a mistake
  87. 87.
    According to the International Health Regulations 2005, which of the following diseases is considered notifiable with just a single case ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Severe acute respiratory syndrome
    SARS is one of the diseases under IHR (2005) that must be notified to WHO immediately upon detection of a single case.
    Report a mistake
  88. 88.
    Which is Regular periodic surveys under Integrated Disease Surveillance Project ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    NCD risk factors
    NCD risk factor surveys are conducted periodically as part of IDSP surveillance mechanisms.
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  89. 89.
    Which of the following statement is correct for package of services for National Programme for Health Care Elderly at Community Health Centre ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Twice a week geriatric clinic and no geriatric ward
    At CHCs under NPHCE, services include a geriatric clinic held twice a week.
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  90. 90.
    Zero preventable maternal and newborn deaths and high quality of maternal care delivered with dignity and respect is the aim of which of the following ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan
    SUMAN (Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan) aims for zero preventable maternal and newborn deaths.
    Report a mistake
  91. 91.
    All the following are Autosomal recessive disorders except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Marfan's syndrome
    Marfan syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder.
    Report a mistake
  92. 92.
    According to the Pre-conception and Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, in which of the following situations can a person seek any prenatal diagnostic techniques except ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Pregnant women with preeclampsia
    Preeclampsia is a pregnancy complication, not a genetic indication for prenatal diagnostic techniques under the PC-PNDT Act.
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  93. 93.
    Match the following "Milestones of development" of a child : P. 4-5 months 1. Joining words Q. 9-10 months 2. First words R. 6-8 months 3. Begin to reach out for objects S. 18-21 months 4. Hide and seek 5. Release objects
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-1
    Standard developmental milestones matching infant behaviors.
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  94. 94.
    What is the Child Survival Index of a country A if the under-five mortality rate of the country A is 58 per 1000 live births ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    94.2
    Child Survival Index = 100 - Under-five mortality rate (per 100), which equals 100−5.8=94.2100 - 5.8 = 94.2.
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  95. 95.
    When is Rh anti-D immunoglobulin given if both the mother and baby are Rh positive ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    28 weeks and within 72 hours of delivery
    Note: In clinical practice, Rh immunoglobulin is given if the mother is Rh negative. However, as per standard protocol schedules or key options when applicable, anti-D administration timing follows specific antenatal/postnatal windows.
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  96. 96.
    Which of the following statements are True (T) or False (F) ? 1. Length increment during second year of a baby is 10 cm. 2. For preventing anaemia, umbilical cord should be cut after pulsation ceases. 3. Aminocentesis is done during first trimester. 4. JSSK is a cross cutting intervention under RMNCH+A.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    1-F, 2-T, 3-F, 4-T
    Statements 2 and 4 are true (cord clamping after pulsation stops prevents anemia; JSSK is cross-cutting).
    Report a mistake
  97. 97.
    What is the total number of expected pregnancies in a year at a primary Health Centre if the total population is 20,000 and the birth rate is 12 per 1000 in that Primary Health Centre ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    264
    Total births = 121000×20000=240\frac{12}{1000} \times 20000 = 240. Expected pregnancies = Births ×1.1\times 1.1 (to account for abortions and stillbirths) = 240×1.1=264240 \times 1.1 = 264.
    Report a mistake
  98. 98.
    Which of the following statement is False for L1 'Delivery point' under comprehensive RMNCH services except ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Minimum three normal deliveries per month
    L1 delivery points are expected to conduct a minimum number of normal deliveries per month.
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  99. 99.
    Which of the following is the standard case management of major causes of neonatal and childhood morbidity ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illness
    IMNCI provides standard case management guidelines for major childhood morbidities.
    Report a mistake
  100. 100.
    Which of the following are True (T) regarding the strategic interventions for care during labour and child birth under India Newborn Action plan ? 1. Skilled birth attendance 2. Antenatal corticosteroids in preterm labour 3. Counselling 4. Identification of complication and timely referral
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    1, 2 and 4
    Skilled attendance, antenatal corticosteroids, and complication readiness/referral are key INAP interventions during labor.
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