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Scientific Assistant (Biochemistry) - Medical Education question paper 2023

Date of test
11-07-2023
Question paper code
107/2023/OL
Questions
100
Answer key
Provisional Answer Key
Exam mode
Online (computer based)

Provisional key. Kerala PSC can change answers after reviewing complaints; the final key decides the marks.

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Source: Kerala PSC (keralapsc.gov.in) · official document· Last updated 25 Sept 2026· How we check content

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As published by the Kerala Public Service Commission.

All 100 questions with answers

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  1. 1.
    The molecular biology technique where RNA is converted to cDNA and then amplified is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    RT-PCR
    Reverse Transcription Polymerase Chain Reaction (RT-PCR) involves converting RNA to cDNA using reverse transcriptase followed by amplification.
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  2. 2.
    Nucleic acid probes can be used for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Nucleic acid probes are versatile and can be used for detecting genetic mutations, viral infections, and chromosomal abnormalities.
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  3. 3.
    In SDS-PAGE
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    The stacking gel has larger pore size than separating gel
    In SDS-PAGE, the stacking gel has a larger pore size (lower acrylamide percentage) to allow proteins to stack together, while the separating gel has a smaller pore size for effective resolution.
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  4. 4.
    The concept of real time PCR came because
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Taq polymerase has 5' to 3' exonuclease activity
    The 5' to 3' exonuclease activity of Taq polymerase enables the cleavage of fluorescent probes during PCR amplification in real-time detection systems.
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  5. 5.
    In HPLC the resulting bands in the chromatogram are measured by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Mass spectrometer
    LC-MS (Liquid Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry) couples HPLC with a mass spectrometer for sensitive detection and identification.
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  6. 6.
    In a chromatographic instrument selective separation of a mixture occurs in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Column
    The stationary and mobile phases contained within the column facilitate the selective separation of mixture components.
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  7. 7.
    Drug of abuse can be measured by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Gas/liquid chromatography
    Gas chromatography coupled with mass spectrometry (GC-MS) or liquid chromatography is the gold standard for measuring drugs of abuse.
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  8. 8.
    Mass spectrometer identifies analytes based on
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Mass: charge ratio
    Mass spectrometers separate ionized analytes according to their mass-to-charge (m/zm/z) ratio.
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  9. 9.
    In atomic absorption spectroscopy with what material is the cathode in hallow cathode lamp made?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Element to be analysed
    The cathode of a hollow cathode lamp is constructed from the specific element being analyzed to emit its characteristic spectrum.
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  10. 10.
    Prussian Blue stain is used for staining which of the following metals?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Iron
    Prussian blue reaction is a classic histological stain used to detect iron deposits (ferric iron) in tissue sections.
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  11. 11.
    The Phenomenon by which an organic compound becomes excited when oxidised and emit light when it returns to ground state is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Luminescence
    Chemiluminescence/Luminescence involves light emission resulting from a chemical oxidation reaction raising a species to an excited state.
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  12. 12.
    Regarding fluorometry which among these is true
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Fluorometry is highly sensitive, detectors are positioned at right angles to prevent transmitted excitation light from reaching the detector, and emitted wavelengths are typically longer (Stokes shift).
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  13. 13.
    The most sensitive detector in spectrophotometry is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Photodiode array
    Photodiode array (PDA) detectors offer high sensitivity and allow simultaneous multi-wavelength detection.
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  14. 14.
    Which of the following is true about Haemotoxylin and Eosin staining?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Hematoxylin is a basic dye and binds to nucleic acids in the nucleus and imparts a blue color
    Hematoxylin behaves like a basic (cationic) dye that stains acidic cellular components like nuclear DNA/RNA blue.
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  15. 15.
    What is the ideal section thickness for preparing routine H and E stained sections?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    3-5 microns
    Routine paraffin-embedded tissue sections for H&E staining are typically cut at a thickness of 3-5 microns.
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  16. 16.
    Which among the following is true about reverse phase liquid chromatography/
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Polar mobile and non-polar stationary phase
    In reverse-phase liquid chromatography, a non-polar stationary phase and a polar mobile phase are used.
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  17. 17.
    What do you mean by bright field microscope?
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    Answer: C —
    The microscope is lit from below and viewed from above
    In a bright-field microscope, the specimen is illuminated from below (substage light source) and viewed from above through the eyepiece.
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  18. 18.
    The magnifying power of an eye piece in microscope is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    10X
    Standard microscope eyepieces commonly provide a magnification power of 10X.
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  19. 19.
    Which among the following types of microscope does not require staining to view the slide?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Phase contrast microscope
    Phase contrast microscopy converts phase shifts in light passing through a transparent specimen to brightness changes, allowing visualization without staining.
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  20. 20.
    Which among the following represents the correct stages of tissue processing?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Fixation-dehydration-clearing-infiltrating-embedding
    The standard sequence for tissue processing is Fixation, Dehydration, Clearing, Infiltration, and Embedding.
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  21. 21.
    All are true regarding active site of an enzyme except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Active sites are noted in clefts and crevices in the protein which exclude bulk solvent and reduces the catalytic activity of the enzyme
    Active sites exclude bulk solvent to enhance, not reduce, the catalytic activity of the enzyme.
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  22. 22.
    Select the statement that is correct.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    The presence of an enzyme has no effect on ΔG°
    Enzymes accelerate reactions by lowering activation energy but do not change the overall free energy change (ΔG°) of the reaction.
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  23. 23.
    Turn over number
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Has units of 1/time
    Turnover number (kcatk_{cat}) represents the number of substrate molecules converted to product per enzyme site per unit time, thus having units of s−1s^{-1}.
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  24. 24.
    All are enzymes used as therapeutic agents except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Papain
    While Papain is an enzyme, it is generally used as a meat tenderizer or in food processing rather than as a clinical therapeutic agent compared to the others listed.
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  25. 25.
    All statements regarding isoenzymes are correct except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Same forms with similar physical properties
    Isoenzymes are different forms of an enzyme that catalyze the same reaction but have different physical and chemical properties.
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  26. 26.
    All are regarding the Michaelis constant (KmK_m) except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    At high concentration of substrate KmK_m, the velocity of the reaction is proportional to the substrate concentration and the rate of the reaction is said to be first order
    At high substrate concentrations, the reaction follows zero-order kinetics, not first-order.
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  27. 27.
    Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about allosteric regulation? (i) Allosteric effectors can change either the KmK_m or the VmaxV_{max} of the reaction (ii) Homotropic interactions are always positive (iii) Most allosteric enzymes bind the allosteric effector with no effect on binding other ligands
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Only (i) and (ii)
    Allosteric effectors modify enzyme kinetics, and homotropic interactions (substrate binding) are typically positive (cooperative).
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  28. 28.
    All are used as immobilized enzymes except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Urease
    The question was cancelled by the exam board.
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  29. 29.
    Which of the following statements is/are correct? (i) The protein part of the enzyme is the prosthetic group (ii) The prosthetic group of the enzyme is called the co enzyme (iii) Co enzyme is a low molecular weight organic substance
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    (ii) and (iii)
    A coenzyme is a low molecular weight organic substance that acts as a prosthetic group or cofactor.
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  30. 30.
    An example of a lyase is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Aldolase
    Aldolase is a classic example of a lyase, which catalyzes the cleavage of C-C bonds.
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  31. 31.
    All are true regarding enzyme inhibition except
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    Answer: C —
    Transition State analogues are molecules that bind to an enzyme tightly at a site distinct from the active site
    Transition state analogues bind to the active site, not a distinct site, because they mimic the transition state of the substrate.
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  32. 32.
    Which of the following statement(s) about immunochemical methods of isoenzyme analysis is/are correct? (i) Are particularly applicable to isoenzymes derived from multiple gene loci (ii) The greater discriminating power of monoclonal antibodies has potentially brought all multiple forms of an enzyme within the scope of immuno chemical analysis (iii) The most common routine methods to measure isoenzymes or isoforms are now based on immunochemical assays
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above (i, ii, iii)
    Immunochemical methods are highly specific and widely used for isoenzyme analysis.
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  33. 33.
    Lineweaver-Burk plot is derived from
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Reciprocal of substrate concentration against reciprocal of velocity
    The Lineweaver-Burk plot is a double-reciprocal plot of the Michaelis-Menten equation, plotting 1V\frac{1}{V} against 1[S]\frac{1}{[S]}.
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  34. 34.
    Example of enzyme induction is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Tryptophan pyrrolase by glucocorticoids
    Tryptophan pyrrolase is a classic example of an enzyme whose synthesis is induced by glucocorticoids.
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  35. 35.
    An enzyme which undergo covalent modification by acetylation is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Long chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase
    Long chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase is known to undergo covalent modification via acetylation.
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  36. 36.
    The pattern of appearance of an enzyme in blood after an acute injury depends on
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    The release kinetics of enzymes into the blood following tissue injury are influenced by intracellular localization, molecular size, and clearance rates.
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  37. 37.
    Testing of AST in addition to ALT should be limited because
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    ALT is more specific to the liver, and AST often provides redundant information in routine screening, making the combined testing less cost-effective.
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  38. 38.
    Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding pancreatic enzymes in acute pancreatitis? (i) Lipase measurement is superior to pancreatic amylase in terms of Diagnostic performance (ii) It is recommeded that lipase replace pancreatic amylase as initial test for acute pancreatitis (iii) The measurement of total amylase is recommended
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    i and ii only
    Lipase is more specific and remains elevated longer than amylase, making it the preferred diagnostic marker for acute pancreatitis.
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  39. 39.
    True statement regarding unit of enzyme activity
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    Answer: C —
    The international system of units derived units for catalytic activity is Katal
    The SI unit for catalytic activity is the Katal (kat), defined as the amount of enzyme that catalyzes the transformation of 1 mole of substrate per second.
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  40. 40.
    All are examples of riboenzymes except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Transposase
    Transposase is a protein-based enzyme, whereas the others listed are ribozymes (RNA molecules with catalytic activity).
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  41. 41.
    Which of the following is FALSE regarding EDTA contamination of blood sample?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Increased magnesium
    EDTA is a chelating agent that binds calcium and magnesium; it does not increase magnesium levels.
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  42. 42.
    All the following statements are TRUE regarding control materials EXCEPT
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Should have a non-protein matrix when serum is the test material to be analyzed
    Control materials should ideally have a matrix similar to the patient sample (e.g., serum-based) to ensure matrix effects are accounted for.
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  43. 43.
    A gaussian curve is usually
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Bell shaped
    A Gaussian distribution, or normal distribution, is characterized by its symmetric, bell-shaped curve.
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  44. 44.
    Choose the INCORRECT statement regarding quality assessment in a health care laboratory
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    It emphasizes on statistical quality control procedures
    While statistical quality control is part of quality control, 'Quality Assessment' in a broader sense focuses on the entire process, and the statement is marked incorrect in the context of the specific exam key.
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  45. 45.
    Systematic errors in lab. analytic processes can occur due to all the following EXCEPT
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Lack of reproducibility in the pipetting of samples and reagents
    Lack of reproducibility in pipetting is typically associated with random error, not systematic error.
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  46. 46.
    Quality control measures are used to minimize
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    Answer: B —
    Analytical errors
    Quality control (QC) procedures are specifically designed to monitor and minimize analytical errors within the laboratory testing process.
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  47. 47.
    All the following are measures of central tendencies EXCEPT
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    Answer: C —
    Range
    Range is a measure of dispersion, not a measure of central tendency.
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  48. 48.
    Westgard rule where control values are lying on one side of the mean should likely correspond with all EXCEPT
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    Answer: D —
    The question refers to Westgard rules for detecting systematic error; option D is the designated answer in the key.
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  49. 49.
    Levy Jennings chart is used for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Validation of laboratory reports generated from the automated clinical chemistry analyzer
    Levy-Jennings charts are standard tools used to plot quality control data to monitor the performance of analytical methods over time.
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  50. 50.
    POCT devices are all except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Automated clinical chemistry autoanalyzer
    An automated clinical chemistry autoanalyzer is a centralized laboratory instrument, not a Point-of-Care Testing (POCT) device.
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  51. 51.
    Which of the following DO NOT come under OSHA law and standards?
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    Answer: A —
    OSHA inspectors have no authority to enter a clinical laboratory unannounced and inspect it
    OSHA inspectors actually do have the legal authority to conduct unannounced workplace inspections.
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  52. 52.
    GLP certificate for laboratories in India is granted by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    NGCMA
    National Good Laboratory Practice (GLP) Compliance Monitoring Authority (NGCMA) grants GLP certification in India.
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  53. 53.
    All of the following are TRUE about External Quality Control (EQC) except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    It is an intralaboratory comparison
    External Quality Control is an interlaboratory comparison, not an intralaboratory comparison.
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  54. 54.
    Quality assurance scheme is necessary for
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Quality assurance ensures accurate reporting, adherence to standards, and overall customer satisfaction.
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  55. 55.
    Choose the correct statement
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Preanalytical errors are commoner than post analytical errors
    Preanalytical errors account for the highest percentage of total laboratory errors compared to analytical and postanalytical errors.
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  56. 56.
    The first enzyme to appear in the blood after a heart attack is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Creatine Phospho Kinase
    Creatine Phospho Kinase (specifically CK-MB) is among the earliest classical enzymes to elevate following a myocardial infarction.
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  57. 57.
    "Cardiomegalia glycogenica" is a characteristic of which of the following Glycogen Storage Diseases (GSDs)
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Type II GSD
    Type II GSD (Pompe disease) is characterized by massive cardiomegaly (cardiomegalia glycogenica) due to lysosomal glycogen accumulation.
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  58. 58.
    Regulation of the electrolyte content of the body fluids is done by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Kidney
    The kidneys play the primary role in regulating the electrolyte and water balance of body fluids.
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  59. 59.
    In humans, the renal threshold for glucose per 100 ml of blood is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    180 mg
    The normal renal threshold for glucose is approximately 160-180 mg/100 ml.
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  60. 60.
    The phenomena of "Insulin resistance" is characteristic of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Type II Diabetes Mellitus
    Insulin resistance coupled with relative insulin deficiency is the hallmark of Type II Diabetes Mellitus.
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  61. 61.
    Jaundice (Icterus) occurs due to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Overproduction or failed excretion of bilirubin
    Jaundice can be caused by conditions leading to overproduction, impaired hepatic uptake, conjugation, or excretion of bilirubin.
    Report a mistake
  62. 62.
    "Inulin Clearance Test" is used to estimate
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Glomerular Filtration Rate
    Inulin clearance is the gold standard method used to measure Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR).
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  63. 63.
    In HbA1C test for determining the severity of Diabetes, the glucose binds predominantly to which to amino acid of hemoglobin?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    α\alpha-Val-1, eta-Lys-66, eta-Lys-61
    Glycated hemoglobin (HbA1cHbA_{1c}) is formed non-enzymatically by glucose attachment primarily to the N-terminal valine of the eta-chain (and other specific lysine residues).
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  64. 64.
    Lactate Dehydrogenase 5 (LDH-5 or M4) elevation in blood is indicative of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Liver Cirrhosis
    LDH-5 is predominantly found in the liver and skeletal muscle, and its elevation in blood indicates liver disease such as cirrhosis or hepatitis, or skeletal muscle trauma.
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  65. 65.
    Assertion A: A bone marrow aspirate of a strictly vegetarian female, confirms the suspicion that she has a megaloblastic anemia because it showed a greater than normal number of red and white blood cell precursors, most of which were larger than normal. Reason R: Megaloblastic anemia mostly occurs due to Vitamin B12 deficiency also called as Cobalamin In the light of the above statements, Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    Strict vegetarians are prone to Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) deficiency, which leads to megaloblastic anemia characterized by megaloblastic precursors in the bone marrow.
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  66. 66.
    Assertion A: In a 30 year-old man fasting for several days, his brain reduces its need for glucose by using an alternate source of energy.\nReason R: Beta hydroxy butyrate is used as an alternate source of energy due to ketoacidosis.\nIn the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    During prolonged fasting, the brain adapts to use ketone bodies (like β\beta-hydroxybutyrate) to spare glucose.
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  67. 67.
    Statement I : During acute Myocardial Infarction, the test of Cardiac troponins, Serum myoglobin and Creatine Phospho kinase-MB (CPK-MB) can give the conclusive diagnosis.\nStatement II : During acute Myocardial Infarction, the test of Blood pressure, Lactate dehydrogenase and Choline esterase can give the conclusive diagnosis.\nIn the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    Cardiac troponins, myoglobin, and CK-MB are specific cardiac biomarkers, whereas blood pressure and cholinesterase are not diagnostic for myocardial infarction.
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  68. 68.
    Identify correct statements about Glycogen and its storage disorders\n1. Glycogen is the major storage carbohydrate of animals and a branched polymer of α\alpha-D-Glucose\n2. it occurs mainly in liver (upto 6%) and muscle where it rarely exceeds 1% of its weight\n3. liver glycogen is the readily available source of glucose for glycolysis.\n4. liver contains 3 to 4 times as much glycogen as does muscle\n5. Glycogen Storage Diseases (GSDs) are inherited disorders with abnormal deposition and deficient mobilization of gycogen.\nChoose the correct answer from the options given below :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    1, 2 and 5 only
    Statements 1, 2, and 5 accurately describe the nature and storage of glycogen and the definition of GSDs.
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  69. 69.
    In Jaundice (Icterus) excessive bilirubin catabolism and clearance occurs in the following sequence\n1. bilirubin formed in peripheral tissues is transported to the liver by plasma albumin\n2. bilirubin is conjugated with glucoronic acid by Bilirubin-UGT activity\n3. Uptake of bilirubin by liver parenchymal cells through facilitated transport system\n4. Secretion of conjugated Bilirubin into Bile by an active transport mechanism\n5. Bilirubin is derived from hemoglobin destruction, ineffective erythropoiesis and from other heme proteins like cytochrome P450\nchoose the correct answer from the options given below :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    5, 1, 3, 2, 4
    The physiological pathway of bilirubin metabolism starts with heme degradation, transport to the liver, uptake, conjugation, and finally biliary excretion.
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  70. 70.
    Insulin is released into the blood stream in response to hyperglycemia\n1. ATP sensitive K+K^+ channels are inhibited causing membrane depolarization\n2. There is influx of Ca2+Ca^{2+} ions within the β\beta cells\n3. There is exocytosis of insulin into the blood\n4. The β\beta cells of the Islets of Langerhans are freely permeable to glucose via. GLUT-2 receptors\n5. Glucose increases the metabolic flux and increases ATP production in the β\beta cells\nChoose the correct answer from the options given below :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    4, 5, 1, 2, 3
    The sequence of insulin release involves glucose entry via GLUT-2, increased ATP production, closure of K+K^+ channels, depolarization, Ca2+Ca^{2+} influx, and exocytosis.
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  71. 71.
    Ketosis that occurs in diabetic patients involve
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Overproduction of Acetoacetate and β\beta-hydroxybutyrate
    Diabetic ketosis is characterized by the accumulation of ketone bodies, specifically acetoacetate and β\beta-hydroxybutyrate, due to increased fatty acid oxidation.
    Report a mistake
  72. 72.
    Assertion A : Citrate anticoagulants have an important advantage over the oxalate anticoagulants\nReason R : Oxalate is toxic to the body, whereas moderate quantities of citrate can be injected intravenously.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    While both statements are true, the primary advantage of citrate in clinical settings is its safety profile compared to the toxicity of oxalates.
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  73. 73.
    Identify correct statements about blood clotting and anticoagulants :\n1. The anticoagulant of choice for blood cell counts is EDTA\n2. The anticoagulant suitable for storing blood for transfusion is dextrose, phosphate and citrate\n3. Anticoagulants are also called as Vasodilators\n4. In an anticoagulated specimen, the liquid part separated out from the blood is called as serum\n5. Heparin inhibits the conversatino of prothrombin to thrombin.\nChoose the correct answer from the options given below :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    1, 2 and 5 only
    EDTA is standard for cell counts, CPD is used for transfusion, and heparin acts as an antithrombin agent.
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  74. 74.
    The functions of the synovial fluid includes all of the following except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Removal of cartilage debris
    Synovial fluid provides lubrication, shock absorption, and nutrients, but it is not primarily responsible for the removal of cartilage debris.
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  75. 75.
    Reverse Cholesterol Transport primarily involves
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    High Density Lipoproteins (HDLs)
    HDL is responsible for reverse cholesterol transport, moving cholesterol from peripheral tissues back to the liver.
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  76. 76.
    Choose the hormones which are nonapeptides
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Oxytocin and Antidiuretic hormone
    Oxytocin and vasopressin (ADH) are peptide hormones consisting of nine amino acids (nonapeptides).
    Report a mistake
  77. 77.
    Find out the incorrect match : (Hormone − Signalling Pathway)
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Prolactin − Tyrosine protein kinase
    Prolactin signaling proceeds via the JAK-STAT pathway, not direct intrinsic tyrosine protein kinase activity.
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  78. 78.
    Which is the hormone that require parenchymal cells of more than one organ for its synthesis?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Calcitriol
    Calcitriol (active vitamin D) requires sequential hydroxylation steps occurring in the liver and kidneys.
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  79. 79.
    All the following hormones with common alpha sub units but with different beta subunit, except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Thyrotropin releasing hormone
    TSH, FSH, and LH share a common \(\alpha\)-subunit and unique \(\beta\)-subunits, whereas TRH is a hypothalamic tripeptide.
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  80. 80.
    The substrate of aromatase enzyme complex
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Testosterone and androstenedione
    Aromatase converts androgens (testosterone and androstenedione) into estrogens (estradiol and estrone).
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  81. 81.
    All the following hormones are synthesized from Tyrosine, except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Thyroid stimulating hormone
    TSH is a glycoprotein hormone, whereas thyroxine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine are derived from the amino acid tyrosine.
    Report a mistake
  82. 82.
    Acute decrease in the level of plasma ionized calcium stimulates the synthesis and secretion of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Parathyroid hormone
    Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is secreted by the parathyroid glands in response to hypocalcemia to restore calcium levels.
    Report a mistake
  83. 83.
    Antiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are used to treat renin dependent hypertension because
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Inhibition of ACE block the conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotension II
    ACE inhibitors block the conversion of inactive angiotensin I to the potent vasoconstrictor angiotensin II.
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  84. 84.
    Tyrosyl residues in thyroglobulin are iodinated to form thyroid hormones but iodinated free tyrosine cannot be incorporated into thyroglobulin to form thyroid hormones : Why?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    There are no tRNA in the body which recognizes iodinated tyrosine
    There is no specific tRNA aminoacylated with iodinated tyrosine for ribosomal incorporation into proteins.
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  85. 85.
    The hormone that is not produced from a larger peptide precursor
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Epinephrine
    Epinephrine is an amine synthesized via amino acid decarboxylation/methylation, not a peptide synthesized from a larger precursor polypeptide.
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  86. 86.
    Choose the correct matching sequence related to hormone action :\n(Hormone Hormone action via)
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Insulin – Activation of tyrosine kinase activity
    Insulin receptors possess intrinsic tyrosine kinase activity that triggers downstream signaling cascades.
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  87. 87.
    Different hormones and their urinary metabolites, useful to diagnose related disorders are given below. Find out the mismatch
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Dopamine \(\rightarrow\) Vanillylmandelic acid \(\rightarrow\) Meningioma
    Dopamine metabolites include homovanillic acid (HVA), not meningioma diagnosis via VMA.
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  88. 88.
    The following are hormones of adipose tissue, except
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Ghrelin
    Ghrelin is primarily produced by the stomach, whereas leptin, resistin, and adiponectin are adipokines (adipose tissue hormones).
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  89. 89.
    False statement related to incretins
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    Answer: D —
    enhance the release of glycagon from alpha cells of pancreas
    Incretins (like GLP-1) enhance glucose-dependent insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon release, making statement D false.
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  90. 90.
    The rise in effective plasma osmolality stimulate the production and release of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Antidiuretic hormone
    An increase in plasma osmolality is detected by hypothalamic osmoreceptors, stimulating antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release to conserve water.
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  91. 91.
    Find out the incorrect match
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Activation of Nortriptiline - CYP2D6
    Option D represents the incorrect match regarding CYP enzyme metabolisms.
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  92. 92.
    Proteins used in therapy like insulin are produced by
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Recombinant DNA technology
    Recombinant DNA technology allows the mass production of therapeutic human proteins such as insulin using host systems like bacteria or yeast.
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  93. 93.
    Organic cation transporter OCT1 (SLC22A1) facilitates the movement across membrane of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Metformin
    Organic cation transporter 1 (OCT1) plays a key role in the hepatic uptake of the antidiabetic drug metformin.
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  94. 94.
    The route of administration that reduce bioavailability by first pass effect
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    Answer: D —
    Oral administration
    Oral administration subjects drugs to hepatic first-pass metabolism, reducing systemic bioavailability.
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  95. 95.
    Drug effects that occur not by means of macromolecular receptors
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    Answer: A —
    Mannitol
    Mannitol acts osmotically to exert its diuretic effect without interacting with specific macromolecular receptors.
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  96. 96.
    True about median effective dose
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    The dose of a drug required to produce a specified effect in 50% of the population
    The median effective dose (\(ED_{50}\)) is the dose that produces a therapeutic response in 50% of the population tested.
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  97. 97.
    Idiosyncratic reactions indicate
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    all the above
    Idiosyncratic reactions are unpredictable, genetically determined abnormal reactivity to chemicals or drugs encompassing altered sensitivity profiles.
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  98. 98.
    Choose the mismatch related to allergic reactions
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    Answer: B —
    Type III Arthus Reactions - mediated by sensitized T lymphocytes and macrophages
    Type III hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by immune complexes (antibody-antigen complexes), not sensitized T lymphocytes and macrophages (which mediate Type IV).
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  99. 99.
    An example of genotoxic carcinogen
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    Answer: A —
    Benzo[a]pyrene, in tobacco smoke
    Benzo[a]pyrene is a classic genotoxic carcinogen that directly interacts with and damages DNA.
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  100. 100.
    Erethism is due to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Chronic mercury vapor inhalation
    Erethism (characterized by psychological disturbances like irritability and tremors) is a classic manifestation of chronic mercury toxicity/vapor inhalation.
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